Module 8: Microbial Biotechnology (Basic Concepts + Techniques) Flashcards

1
Q

Biotechnology

A

The use of biological processes, systems, or organisms for the production of goods or services (intended to improve quality of human life)

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2
Q

What made the growth of biotech possible?

A

Molecular biology tools

–> And therefore, the study of microbial genetics (as this study led to the development of these tools)

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3
Q

What are the major categories of biotech?

A

Red = Biotech for medical use

White = Biotech for industrial use

Green = Biotech for agricultural use (NOT environmental SARAH)

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4
Q

What is the extra “4th” category of biotech applications?

A

Biotech for use in the environment (bioremediation)

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5
Q

The microbes utilized in biotech are often _______________ versions of __________________ strains

A

Microbes in biotech are usually MODIFIED versions of naturally occurring microbes

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6
Q

Why do we modify microbes for biotech uses? (generally speaking)

A

To optimize them for some specific biotech function or condition that they are not fully adapted for

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7
Q

What are the main targets for microbial modifications in biotech?

A

1) A microbe’s ability to grow + replicate well under standard lab conditions

2) Increased production of some desired product (or process)

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8
Q

What are the main limitation of natural microbes in biotech?

(Essentially, why would they need to be modified?)

A

1) Are not adapted to grow well or replicate in a non-natural environment (lab)

2) Do not produce large amounts of a desired product

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9
Q

What are the 2 overarching ways in which we can get optimal microbes for biotech use?

A

1) We can FIND them –> selectively isolate the microbes exhibiting most optimal features

2) We can MAKE them –> use recombinant DNA technology to construct more useful microbes

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10
Q

How has the use of microbes increased efficiency of developing biotech?

A

1) Microbes have shorter generation times

2) Microbes can be handled + modified easily

(selection of microbes with superior qualities can be done in YEARS rather than the DECADES it would take for animals and crop plants)

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11
Q

Many useful microbes exist BUT before we can use them we must…

A

Know about them

–> We have to find them first!

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12
Q

What are the two main methods for finding microbes for some biotech purpose?

A

1) Using culture collections

2) Bioprospecting

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13
Q

Culture Collection

A

An archive of microbial strains for use in microbiology study and biotech

–> collections consists of PRESERVED living samples of microbial cultures

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14
Q

How are culture collections made?

A

Most culture collections are open source == scientists from all over deposit microbes they have isolated and characterized into these collections

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15
Q

How can scientists use culture collections to find microbes for a specific purpose?

A

By SCREENING the collections for those that exhibit properties or products of interest

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16
Q

What is a limitation of searching for microbes using culture collections?

A

In many cases, well suited microbes with desired properties may not have been found yet == will not be in the culture collection!

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17
Q

If a given microbe of interest cannot be found in a culture collection, what is the next step?

A

BIOPROSPECTING

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18
Q

Bioprospecting

A

Searching for novel organisms, biological materials, or processes in NATURE that can be used in biotech

–> uses a variety of search tools to find novel microbes from different environments and then screen them for specific activities

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19
Q

What is a limitation of bioprospecting?

(And what is providing a potential solution to this?)

A

Limitation = Low success rate at times due to many microbes not being able to be cultivated!

Potential solution = metagenomics (allows us to analyze uncultivated microbes)

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20
Q

Fermentation

A

Has a DUAL MEANING:

Biochemical Fermentation –> Specific catabolic reactions that produce ATP in the ABSENCE OF OXYGEN (anaerobic)

Industrial Fermentation –> Any industrial process involving the culture of microorganisms for the production of desired substances (can be aerobic OR anaerobic

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21
Q

Industrial fermentation and biochemical fermentation…

A

ARE NOT EQUIVALENT!

–> Industrial fermentation may USE biochemical fermentation but it does not have to!!!

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22
Q

Many modern fermentations occur in the presence of ____________ and no ____________ is occurring

A

Many modern fermentations occur in the presence of OXYGEN and no biochemical fermentation is occurring

–> STILL called fermentation!

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23
Q

Large scale production of recombinant proteins in E. coli in the presence of oxygen is an example of what?

A

FERMENTATION (in biotech!)

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24
Q

Bioreactors

A

Large culture vessels designed to maximize cell density and product yield during fermentation

(Where industrial fermentation takes place!)

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25
Q

What are bioreactors AKA?

A

Fermenters

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26
Q

Bioreactors are specially designed to precisely control _______________________ to _________________ production

A

Bioreactors are specially designed to precisely control environmental conditions to optimize production

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27
Q

What are the main conditions being controlled in bioreactors?

A

1) pH
2) Temperature
3) Oxygen content
4) Nutrient content + abundance

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28
Q

Bioreactors can be what kinds of systems?

A

OPEN or CLOSED systems!

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29
Q

Closed vs Open Bioreactor systems

A

Closed system = NO new nutrients are added or medium removed
(no interaction of culture with the exterior environment)

Open system = Nutrients are added to the medium and/or medium is removed from culture
(reactor contents have at least SOME interaction with the external environment)

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30
Q

Are closed or open bioreactors used more? (why?)

A

OPEN systems

== Provide greater opportunity for control! (and therefore greater optimization is possible!)

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31
Q

What are the two types of open bioreactors?

A

1) Chemostat

2) Fed-Batch Reactor

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32
Q

What is a type of closed bioreactor?

+ How does it work?

A

Batch Reactor

–> Everything for fermentation is added into a reactor and the process continues without ANY modifications; collection occurs at the end!

== Process goes to completion! (all substrate used and/or all cells die)

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33
Q

What are the features of a chemostat + how does it work?

A

Culture contents within the reactor maintain a CONSTANT volume

–> Due to dual input + output occurring at the same rate!

Input = adding new medium

Output = removing some of the culture mix (can contain products, cells, nutrients, etc)

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34
Q

Within chemostats a __________________ is maintained

A

A physiological steady state is maintained!

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35
Q

What is the purpose of a chemostat?

A

To maintain a constant growth rate within the culture

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36
Q

Why are chemostats continuous systems?

A

Because nutrients are continuously being added to the culture (constant input)

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37
Q

Within a chemostat how can growth rate/cell density be controlled?

A

1) Manipulating NUTRIENT COMPOSITION of the medium

2) Manipulating the FLOW RATE of fresh medium into the culture vessel

altering nutrient availability by these methods can increase or decrease growth rate

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38
Q

What is a benefit of the constant efflux within chemostats?

A

Allows for the removal of any potentially toxic or inhibitory byproducts that may form

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39
Q

What are the features of a fed-batch reactor + how does it work?

A

Culture contents within the reactor have a VARIABLE volume

–> Due to SINGLE input (NO OUTPUT)

Input = Intermittently adding new medium (input turned “on” + “off”)

Output = NO OUTPUT; all culture is harvested at the END

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40
Q

Why is a fed-batch reactor considered “partially-open” and “non-continuous?

A

Partially-Open = b/c it has input but no output so it’s not fully open

Non-continuous = b/c input occurs intermittently, input is NOT occurring constantly

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41
Q

What is the difference in volumes between chemostat + fed-batch reactors?

A

Chemostat = CONSTANT volume

Fed-Batch = VARIABLE volume

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42
Q

Fed-batch reactors maintain a HIGH___________________

A

High cell density!

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43
Q

How are toxic/inhibitory byproducts handled in fed-batch reactor?

A

The intermittent addition of limiting nutrients prevents the system from being able to enter overproduction state (when byproducts get made the most)

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44
Q

Growth-Limiting Nutrient

A

A nutrient NEEDED for growth = limits growth when NOT present!

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45
Q

Why are growth-limiting nutrients used as input in bioreactors?

A

To be able to control the growth rate (will only grow as much as the nutrient is provided by a researcher!)

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46
Q

Fed-Batch Reactor (Definition)

A

A partially-open system in which a growth-limiting nutrient is added OVER TIME o control growth rate resulting in high cell densities

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47
Q

How is growth rate and cell density controlled in fed-batch reactor?

A

WHEN + HOW MUCH limiting nutrient is added to the culture

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48
Q

What factors determine what bioreactor should be used?

A

1) Type of microbe being used

2) Nature of the desired end product

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49
Q

Which bioreactor is most commonly used? WHY?

A

The Fed-Batch Reactor is more commonly used due to:

1) Greater reliability
2) Greater reproducibility

50
Q

Microbes in a CLOSED system exhibit a ………..

This consists of:

A

specific growth curve!!!

== 3 phases!

Consists of:
1) LAG phase
2) EXPONENTIAL phase
3) STATIONARY phase

51
Q

What is each phase of a growth curve in a closed system? (define each)

A

LAG phase = low cell density, almost no cell growth/very very low growth rate

EXPONENTIAL phase = growth!

STATIONARY phase = almost no cell growth/ very very low growth rate BUT high cell density

(Death phase)

52
Q

What growth phases correspond to what kinds of metabolites?

A

Exponential Phase = Primary metabolites produced

Stationary Phase = Secondary metabolites produced

53
Q

Primary Metabolite

A

A product of metabolic process/es that are required for cell growth

(== only made when cells are growing! –> Exp. phase )

54
Q

Secondary Metabolite

A

A product of metabolic process/es that are NOT required for cell growth

(== only made when cells are NOT growing –> stat. phase)

55
Q

How can we “force” a culture to stay in a specific growth phase?

Why would we want to do this?

A

Growth phases can be maintained by controlling environmental conditions

We want to maintain a specific growth phase to optimize yield of a desired metabolite (primary or secondary)

56
Q

Antibiotics vs Ethanol: Each are examples of what?

A

Antibiotics = Secondary metabolite

Ethanol = Primary metabolite

57
Q

Why are primary metabolites difficult to achieve a high concentration of in culture?

A

Two potential reasons:

1) Because primary metabolites tend to turn their own pathways off!
–> Tend to be a regulator in negative feedback loop!

== decreases yield of product

2) Because primary metabolite is toxic in high concentrations (leading to death)

58
Q

What are potential genetic alterations we can make to improve microbes for biotech purposes (4)?

A

1) Downregulate competing pathways
2) Downregulate pathways that lead to byproduct formation
3) Increase expression of genes encoding for enzymes of a given pathway (increases yield!)
4) Alter genes to make strain grow on a cheaper carbon source (decreases costs of production!)

59
Q

What are the two main ways (methods) we can improve microbial performance in biotech?

A

1) Mutagenesis (2 types)

2) Recombinant Proteins

60
Q

Mutagenesis

A

The process by which an organism’s genetic sequence is changed (the process of mutation)

61
Q

What are the two types of mutagenesis?

A

Random mutagenesis

+

Site-Directed Mutagenesis

62
Q

Random Mutagenesis

A

The process of introducing RANDOM mutations into DNA sequences typically by exposure to a mutagen

63
Q

What mutagens can be used in random mutagenesis?

A

1) UV Light
2) X-Rays
3) DNA damaging chemical agents

64
Q

After conducting random mutagenesis, what do we do to find microbes of interest?

A

Screen all the mutants for a given function or feature

65
Q

What are the drawbacks of random mutagenesis? (4)

A

1) Mutations produced are largely undefined (little info on them)

2) Can produce detrimental or non-useful mutations

3) Effective screens are sometimes not available for a desired function/phenotype (= wouldn’t be able to isolate mutant of interest)

4) IF screen does exist –> The screening process is labor intensive, costly, and time consuming

66
Q

What are the benefits of random mutagenesis?

A

1) Does not require known potential DNA targets in advance (= good for strains that we haven’t fully characterized yet!)

2) Allows for discovery of novel DNA targets/mutations!

67
Q

What is the general process of strain improvement by random mutagenesis?

A

A process of multiple rounds of mutagenesis followed by screening for superior phenotypic characteristics

1) Mutate a strain
2) Screen for a desired feature
3) Take the BEST COLONIES

4) MUTATE these “best colonies”
5) Screen for the desired feature
6) Take the BEST COLONIES again

7) REPEAT

68
Q

In what microbe was Penicillin originally discovered?

A

Penicillium nonatum

69
Q

After initial discovery of penicillin, what was done?

What did this result in?

A

1) Bioprospecting == Found Penicillium chrysogenum produces MORE penicillin than P. nonatum

2) Random mutagenesis of P. chrysogenum

3) Screening == found strain with mutation that had even greater penicillin production!

70
Q

Penicillium nonatum vs Penicillium chrysogenum

A

BOTH produce penicillin

–> P. nonatum = first discovered BUT produces less penicillin

–> P. chrysogenium = discovered later BUT produces MORE penicillin

71
Q

Site-Directed Mutagenesis

A

A method that induces SPECIFIC mutations within a DNA sequence

–> the formation of KNOWN + SPECIFIC mutations at SPECIFIC/KNOWN DNA sites!

72
Q

Site directed mutagenesis produces __________ which can be used to ______________ which random mutagenesis cannot!

A

Site directed mutagenesis produces precise genetic changes which can be used to change a specific AA in a protein which random mutagenesis cannot!

73
Q

What are the drawbacks of site-directed mutagenesis?

A

1) Requires prior knowledge (we need to know what the sequence of a target site is)
–> Limits applicability can’t be used for microorgs that are poorly characterized

74
Q

What are the main methods of site directed mutagenesis?

A

1) Oligonucleotide Directed Mutagenesis

2) PCR Directed Mutagenesis

75
Q

Oligonucleotide Directed Mutagenesis

A

A method for SD-mutagenesis that utilizes an oligonucleotide (primer) that is MOSTLY homologous to the target DNA sequence BUT contains a desired mutation

76
Q

What is the process for Oligonucleotide Directed Mutagenesis?

A

1) Source DNA inserted into a vector

2) Recombinant vector is rendered single stranded

3) Designed primer w/ mutation is added to the mix + anneals (mostly) to the target site on the inserted DNA of the plasmid

4) DNA polymerase begins DNA synthesis of second strand starting from the primer end!

= dsDNA vector with mutation! (looks like a bubble in the molecule)

5) Vector is transformed into host cell

6) Host cell replicates + vector is divided into two ssDNA template strands for replication

7) Daughter cells produced have different genes! –> One has mutated variant + one has regular variant

8) SCREEN (for cells with the mutation)

77
Q

How is the oligonucleotide with mutation able to hybridize to the DNA of interest if there is a mismatch?

A

Due to there being a large proportion of the primer that IS complementary == overrides the negative interaction of the mismatch!

78
Q

What is special about the oligonucleotide in SD mutagenesis?

A

It is NOT completely complementary to the DNA of interest! (has desired mutation in it!)

79
Q

What vector is commonly used for oligonucleotide directed mutagenesis?

A

M13 == Phage vector –> b/c it already has an ssDNA genome!

80
Q

PCR Directed Mutagenesis

A

A method of SD mutagenesis using PCR (to produce fully mutated vector!)

81
Q

What restriction sites are used in PCR directed mutagenesis?

82
Q

What is special about DpnI sites?

A

Will only get cleaved by restriction enzyme if DpnI sites are METHYLATED

83
Q

What vector is usually used for PCR directed mutagenesis?

A

Usually a vector with 2 methylated DpnI restriction sites!

84
Q

Process of PCR Directed mutagenesis

A

1) DNA of interest inserted into vector between two methylated DpnI sites

2) Recombinant vector is denatured = 2 single stranded vectors

3) Primer with desired mutation is added to the mix + anneals to the target DNA

4) DNA polymerase is added + a few rounds of PCR are conducted to produce different recombination products

== One of which is a molecule with TWO mutated strands! = fully mutated + NO methylated DpnI!

5) All products are transformed into E. coli

6) All NON fully mutated PCR products are cleaved at methylated DpnI site! –> Leaves only the mutated products!

85
Q

In PCR directed mutagenesis, what is the role of DpnI?

A

Degrades any transformed molecules made from a NON-mutated strand (and as such HAS the methylated DpnI)

== Makes it so that only mutated copies persist!

86
Q

In PCR directed mutagenesis, why is the DpnI cleavage done INSIDE E.coli?

A

Allows for DNA outside the cell to continue doing PCR and stuff (as no RE is outside cell to cleave the DNA) == will produce more mutated copies overtime!

87
Q

What is an issue of SD-mutagenesis that recombinant protein method attempts to address?

A

SD-mutagenesis only amplifies and introduces mutated DNA into a given cell BUT there is no guarantee it will get expressed and lead to a product!

Recombinant protein method ensures that the mutated DNA WILL get expressed!

88
Q

What are expression vectors?

A

Agents (usually plasmids) that are specifically designed to produce recombinant proteins within a host cell

89
Q

Recombinant Proteins

A

Proteins produced by cells engineered with a specific gene (protein made from recombinant DNA)

90
Q

Expression vectors are beneficial because they…

A

They increase the production of a desired protein!

91
Q

What is the most common use of expression vectors?

A

Production of therapeutic human proteins

92
Q

Examples of recombinant proteins produced using expression vectors (4)

A

1) Insulin
2) Growth Hormone
3) IL-2 (Interleukin-2)
4) Antiviral Interferons

93
Q

Expression of a eukaryal gene in a bacterial cell will only occur if…

A

If the eukaryal foreign gene contains the correct bacterial transcriptional and translational elements

94
Q

What are necessary elements for transcription + translation in bacteria? (6)

A

For Transcription:

1) Promoter (bacterial specific)
2) Operator
3) Terminator Sequence

For Translation:

1) Shine-Dalgarno Sequence
2) Start codon ~6-10 BPs away from the SD sequence
3) Stop codon

95
Q

What does an expression vector contain for a eukaryal gene? (8)

A

1) Shine-Dalgarno Sequence (SD) –> 6-10 BPs upstream start codon

2) bacterial promoter + operator

3) cDNA version of eukaryal gene positioned 6-10 BPs from SD sequence

4) MCS in the eukaryal gene RIGHT after start codon

5) Terminator sequence

6) Origin of replication for bacterial host cell

7) Selectable marker

96
Q

What is unique about the promoter in an expression vector?

A

VERY strong promoter!

It is a customized promoter designed to increase level of transcription

97
Q

What is the optimal positioning of a gene’s start codon relative to the shine-dalgarno sequence?

A

Start codon should be 6-10 BPs downstream of the SD sequence

98
Q

What is different about a eukaryal gene of interest that must get inserted into an expression vector?

WHY?

A

The gene must be in cDNA format!

Bacteria DO NOT have introns! As such, all the non-coding portions of a eukaryal gene must be removed before inserting into expression vector

99
Q

What is the purpose of the terminator sequence in an expression vector?

A

Signals for the end of transcription

(Sequence must be bacteria specific!)

100
Q

What is the problem with eukaryal EV recombinant proteins?

A

May not end up being functional within the bacterial host!

Due to differences in:

1) glycosylation + 2) Disulfide bond formation (improper formation)

between bacterial + eukaryal systems

101
Q

What is different between bacterial and eukaryal protein glycosylation?

A

They typically glycosylate with different sugars!

–> Bacteria = Mannose Units
–> Eukarya = Sialic Acid

102
Q

What is different for EV vectors being introduced into a eukaryal host?

A

1) No SD sequence
2) Terminator sequence should signal for addition of Poly A tail

103
Q

What are fusion proteins?

A

A form of recombinant protein that contains the domains of 2+ proteins

104
Q

What are fusion proteins AKA?

A

TAGGED PROTEINS

105
Q

What are fused proteins made of usually?

A

1) Protein of interest

2) Portion of another protein with some beneficial characteristic (LIKE AN AFFINITY TAG)

106
Q

What is an Affinity Tag?

A

A peptide sequence that facilitates PURIFICATION of a recombinant protein (allows for its isolation from other cellular materials)

107
Q

What is affinity chromatography?

A

A method of using chromatography to separate out proteins with affinity tags from a sample

108
Q

Process of Affinity Chromatography of a Recombinant Protein

A

1) EV created with gene of interest fused to affinity tag DNA sequence

2) EV inserted into host cell

3) Transcription + protein sythesis of the tagged protein

4) Lyse cells + collect resulting lysate (releases proteins)

5) Pass the lysate through a chromatography column lined with beads that have a receptor adhered to them

== Affinity tags of the recombinant proteins bind to these receptors + immobilize the proteins of interest in the column

6) WASH the column = removes any other non-bound materials from the column

7) Tag removal

= Isolated protein of interest

109
Q

Synthetic Biology

A

The CONSTRUCTION of NOVEL biological systems and functions from constituent parts

–> the design and building of operating systems with defined specifications to carry out desired tasks

110
Q

Oligonucleotide Synthesizers

A

Computer-controlled instruments that automatically synthesize oligonucleotides

111
Q

Synthesizing truly synthetic organisms would require an entire microbial genome to be… (4)

A

1) Synthesized

2) Introduced into a cell

3) Replicate in the cell

4) REPLACE preexisting host cell DNA

112
Q

Xenobiology

A

A developing field focusing on the development of novel biological systems through expansion of the genetic code and incorporation of novel AAs into proteins

–> A subfield of synthetic biology that studies and designs biological systems using NON-NATURAL biochemical building blocks + genetic codes

113
Q

What are 2 examples of successes in xenobiology?

A

1) E. coli successfully altered so that its STOP codon actually encodes for phosphoserine (a novel AA)

2) E. coli with an A-T base pair replaced by an entirely synthetic nucleotide pair

114
Q

“Biological Parts”

(plus examples)

A

“Standard” genetic elements

Ex:
1) Enzyme encoding genes
2) Regulatory DNA sequences
3) Genes encoding regulatory proteins

115
Q

General proposed process for the construction of a synthetic organism

A

1) Computer used to design a genome that will produce an organism with desired properties

2) Produce the synthetic genome

3) Insert synthetic genome into surrogate cell

4) Synthetic genome replaces host cell genome

== Synthetic organism with desired properties

116
Q

What are biological parts analogous to?

A

Standard parts in engineering (nuts and bolts)

117
Q

Registry of Standard Biological Parts

A

Contains descriptions of these biological parts (ex: promoters, ORFs, ribosome binding sites, etc.)

–> Characterizes a set of “pieces” that could be put together to make a desired organism

118
Q

What does a Biobrick vector consist of?

A

Vector with a biological part flanked by two pairs of restriction sites

Left side of part = EcoRI + XbaI

Right side of part = SpeI + PstI

(and a selectable marker)

119
Q

What is the biobrick process?

A

1) One of the biobrick vectors is cleaved with EcoRI + XbaI == OPENED VECTOR (will become the backbone of the “assembled part”)

2) A second biobrick vector is cleaved with EcoRI + SpeI = CUT OUT BIOBRICK

3) The two fragments containing the two biobrick parts are annealed
–> EcoRI ends come together
–> XbaI + SpeI ends come together

4) = Assembled part –> New biobrick vector with the 4 restriction sites and TWO joined biological parts!

120
Q

XbaI + SpeI

A

Two restriction sites whose ends can anneal to one another (as 4 out of 6 bases are complementary!)

–> Ligating these ends will “destroy” the restriction sites!