Module 6 - Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

Owners of common stock normally have which of the following rights?

1) Dividend rights
2) Voting rights
3) Both dividend and voting rights

A

3) Both dividend and voting rights

- Owners of common stock normally also have both dividend and voting rights.

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2
Q

Returns from common stock can be in the form of which one of the following?

1) Dividends only
2) Dividends and interest only
3) Interest only
4) Dividends and capital appreciation

A

4) Dividends and capital appreciation

- Common stock offer returns from dividends and capital appreciation.

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3
Q

Which one of the following assets is considered liquid?

1) Corporate bonds
2) Stable value funds
3) REITs
4) Money market funds

A

2) Stable value funds
- Stable value funds are considered to be a cash equivalent. Corporate bonds, REITs, and money market (mutual) funds are not easily sold, thus they are not liquid.

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4
Q

All of the following are advantages of investing in exchange-traded funds (ETFs) except

1) Only end of day pricing
2) Low expenses
3) Tax efficient
4) Stock, bond, and commodity ETFs are available

A

1) Only end of day pricing

- ETFs trade during market hours, just like stocks—mutual funds have end of day pricing.

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5
Q

Which one of the following is not a type of systematic risk?

1) Exchange rate
2) Interest rate
3) Event
4) Purchasing power

A

3) Event
- Exchange rate, interest rate, and purchasing power risks are all types of systematic risk. Use the acronym “PRIME” for remembering the types of systematic risk: purchasing power, reinvestment, interest rate, market, and exchange rate. Event risk, though having one of the beginning letters in PRIME, is unsystematic risk as it refers to an isolated event, not affecting the whole market (though may affect an industry).

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6
Q

Which one of the following types of debt is issued by municipalities?

1) CDs
2) Mortgage-backed securities
3) Revenue bonds
4) Savings bonds

A

3) Revenue bonds
- Revenue bonds are issued by municipalities and are backed by a specific project, such as a toll road or hospital.

> CDs are issued by banks and credit unions. Revenue bonds are issued by municipalities and are backed by a specific project, such as a toll road or hospital.

> MBS are issued by federal agencies, not state municipalities. Revenue bonds are issued by municipalities and are backed by a specific project, such as a toll road or hospital.

> Savings bonds are issued by the federal government. Revenue bonds are issued by municipalities and are backed by a specific project, such as a toll road or hospital.

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7
Q

T / F - ETFs are also called open-end investment companies, as mutual funds are.

A

False - ETFs are usually more tax efficient with lower expenses than mutual funds. Mutual funds are called open-end investment companies, not ETFs.

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8
Q

T / F - ETFs are usually more tax efficient with lower expenses than mutual funds.

A

True - ETFs are usually more tax efficient with lower expenses than mutual funds. Mutual funds are priced only once at the end of the day, while ETFs trade on secondary stock exchanges all day long.

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9
Q

T / F - ETFs are priced only once, at the end of each trading day.

A

False - ETFs are usually more tax efficient with lower expenses than mutual funds.

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10
Q

T / F - ETFs do not trade on stock exchanges; they are sold only directly through brokers.

A

False - ETFs are usually more tax efficient with lower expenses than mutual funds. Mutual funds are priced only once at the end of the day, while ETFs trade on secondary stock exchanges all day long.

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11
Q

A private company may become public through

1) A venture capitalist investing company
2) Selling the company
3) Making an initial public offering (IPO)
4) Passing control of the company to another family member

A

3) Making an initial public offering (IPO)
- The definition of going public is making an initial public offering (IPO), in which shares of the company are sold to investors, then traded on the secondary market. Venture capital investment, selling the company, and passing control do not constitute becoming public.

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12
Q

An investor has a bond with a duration of 7. If interest rates go up 1%, how much is the price of the bond expected to fall?

1) 1%
2) 5%
3) 7%
4) 14%

A

7% - The duration times the interest rate (7 × 1%) means the bond will fall about 7%.

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13
Q

Advantages of investing in real estate include all of the following except

1) Inflation hedge
2) Fixity
3) Leverage
4) Tax advantages

A

2) Fixity
- Fixity is a disadvantage, and the conversion of property to another use, such as converting a warehouse into apartments, is very costly.

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14
Q

A debt instrument issued with a maturity of one year or less is called a

1) Bond
2) Note
3) Money market instrument
4) Indenture

A

3) Money market instrument - A money market instrument is debt with a maturity of up to one year.

> A bond is a debt instrument with maturities up to 30 years.

> A note is a debt instrument with maturities between one and 10 years.

> An indenture is the legal document spelling out the terms of a bond issue. It is not a debt instrument.

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15
Q

Your client wants to invest in a 10-year, $1,000 corporate bond with a semiannual 4% coupon and states that she is able to buy the bond at a discount price of $970. What is the yield to maturity of this bond?

1) 2.34%
2) 3.74%
3) 4.37%
4) 8.45%

A

3) 4.37%

END mode
#p - 2x/yr
Solving for - YTM (I)

1000 FV
(970) PV
20 PMT (4% coupon gives you $40 annual pmt / 2 = $20 pmts made semi-annually)
10 N
I = 4.37
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16
Q

T / F - Fundamental analysis is less time consuming than technical analysis.

A

False - Fundamental analysis is more time consuming than technical analysis. As an overview, technical analysis finds market trends and anomalies, while fundamental analysis looks at company data and financial ratios.

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17
Q

T / F - Technical analysis looks only forward, while fundamental analysis looks forward and backward.

A

False - Technical analysis looks only backward, and fundamental analysis does look forward and backward. As an overview, technical analysis finds market trends and anomalies, while fundamental analysis looks at company data and financial ratios.

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18
Q

T / F - Fundamental and technical analysis are opposites and cannot be used together in an integrated investment strategy.

A

False - Fundamental and technical analysis are not mutually exclusive and can be used together in an integrated investment strategy. As an overview, technical analysis finds market trends and anomalies, while fundamental analysis looks at company data and financial ratios.

19
Q

T / F - Technical analysis finds market trends and anomalies, while fundamental analysis looks at company data and financial ratios.

A

True - As an overview, technical analysis finds market trends and anomalies, while fundamental analysis looks at company data and financial ratios.

20
Q

Business risk is a type of

1) unsystematic risk that includes the firm’s ability to make a profit.
2) unsystematic risk that is directly related to the amount of debt of the firm.
3) systematic risk that includes the possibility of going bankrupt.
4) systematic risk that includes the risk of a market sell-off.

A

1) unsystematic risk that includes the firm’s ability to make a profit.
- Business risk is a type of unsystematic risk and includes such things as the firm’s ability to make a profit, effectiveness of management, and competition.

21
Q

All of the following are ways to measure risk except

1) Standard deviation
2) Beta
3) Duration
4) Yield to maturity

A

4) Yield to maturity
- Standard deviation, beta, and duration are all ways to measure risk. Yield to maturity is the yield of a bond, taking into account where current interest rates are at—it is not a measurement of risk.

22
Q

Which one of the following forms of ownership would provide the most marketability when investing in real estate?

1) Outright ownership
2) Limited partnership
3) Mortgage REIT
4) Equity REIT

A

4) Equity REIT
- Equity REITs invest in real estate, and are very marketable in that they can be easily bought and sold whenever the stock market is open. Outright ownership and limited partnership interests are much more difficult to sell, and it may take months to find a buyer and execute a sale. Mortgage REITs invest in mortgages (debt) used to finance property purchases—they are not a direct investment in real estate.

23
Q

T / F - Common stock shareholders are the first creditors in line for any remaining assets.

A

False - Common stock shareholders are last in line, and oftentimes are left with nothing in the event of a bankruptcy.

24
Q

T / F - Bond investors are the first creditors in line for any remaining assets.

A

True - Bond investors are first in line for any remaining assets in the event of a company’s bankruptcy.

25
Q

T / F - Both common stock shareholders and bond investors have equal rights to any remaining assets.

A

False - Bond investors are first in line. Oftentimes there is nothing left for the common stock shareholders.

26
Q

A “SWOT” analysis can help both the client and the adviser see the big picture. Which letter is correctly matched below when doing a “SWOT” analysis?

1) S - situation survey
2) W - working analysis
3) O - opportunities
4) T - time frame

A

3) O - opportunities

- “SWOT” stands for strengths, weakness, opportunities, and threats.

27
Q

Which one of the following is not one of the three main investment objectives that a mutual fund may have?

1) income
2) asset allocation
3) capital appreciation
4) capital preservation

A

2) asset allocation
- The three main possible objectives for a mutual fund are striving for income, capital appreciation, or capital preservation. Asset allocation refers to how the assets are invested, and is relevant regardless of which objective a mutual fund may have.

28
Q

T / F - If a bond is issued when interest rates are at 7%, and interest rates decrease to 6%, the bond would then be selling at a discount.

A

False - There is an inverse relationship between bond prices and interest rates. If interest rates go down, the bond price goes up, and the bond would sell at a premium, not a discount.

29
Q

T / F - If a bond is issued when interest rates are at 5%, and interest rates increase to 6%, the bond would then be selling at a premium.

A

False - There is an inverse relationship between bond prices and interest rates. If interest rate go up, the bond price goes down, and the bond would sell at a discount, not a premium.

30
Q

T / F - If a bond is issued when interest rates are at 8%, and interest rates decrease to 7%, the bond would then be selling at a premium.

A

True - There is an inverse relationship between bond prices and interest rates.

31
Q

T / F - The holder of the MBS will receive only interest each month.

A

False - The holder of the MBS (pools of mortgages) will receive both interest and principal each month.

32
Q

T / F - The holder of the MBS will receive only return of principal each month.

A

False - The holder of the MBS (pools of mortgages) will receive both interest and principal each month.

33
Q

T / F - Pools of mortgages are put together to create an MBS.

A

True - The holder of the MBS (pools of mortgages) will receive both interest and principal each month. The payment can vary as mortgages are retired (paid off) and principal returned to the holder.

34
Q

T / F - The holder will receive the same payment amount every month.

A

False - The payment can vary as mortgages are retired (paid off) and principal returned to the holder.

35
Q

Nefeli has earned 9% on her five-year investment to buy a car. She has been in a 22% federal and a 3% state marginal income tax bracket during that time. The inflation rate has averaged 2.4% in the five years. What is her tax- and inflation-adjusted return?

1) 4.25%
2) 4.83%
3) 5.01%

A

Tax Adjust Return = Return x (1 - Tax Rate)

0.09 x (1 - .25) = 0.0675

Inflation Adjusted Return = ((1 + Return) / (1 + Inflation Rate)) - 1

  • To calculate the tax and inflation adjusted return, you use the Tax Adjusted Return # in the formula, not the number listed in the problem.
    (1. 0675 / 1.024) - 1 = 0.04248 (4.25%)
36
Q

Fund T has an average return of 7.5%, and a beta of 1.1. Fund W has an average return of 6.8%, and a beta of 0.9. Which fund should you purchase and why?

1) Fund T because it has the highest return of 7.5%
2) Fund T because it has a risk-adjusted return of 8.25%
3) Fund W because it has a lower beta of 0.9
4) Fund W because it has a better risk-adjusted return: 7.56% vs. 6.82% for Fund T

A

4) Fund W because it has a better risk-adjusted return: 7.56% vs. 6.82% for Fund T
- to calculate beta: Return / Beta (NOTE: do not change percentages into true decimals. A return of 12.5% and a beta of 1.2 would be 12.5 / 1.2 (not .125/1.2)

Fund W: 7.5 / 1.1 = 6.8182 (6.82%)
Fund T: 6.8 / .9 = 7.5556 (7.56%)

37
Q

If a mutual fund has a return of 12% and a standard deviation of 18%, what is its Sharpe ratio if the risk-free rate is 2%?

1) .5
2) .56
3) .67
4) .75

A

2) .56

To calculate the Sharpe ratio:
(Portfolio Return - Risk Free Rate) / SD
- NOTE: do not change percentages to a true decimal. 12% will be 12, not .12

(12 - 2) / 18 = .5556

38
Q

Which one of the following statements is correct about “no-load” mutual funds?

1) “No-load” means the fund doesn’t have any operating expenses
2) There are numerous no-load funds with various investment styles and objectives
3) “A” share no-load funds have an initial sales charge

A

2) There are numerous no-load funds with various investment styles and objectives

> A “no-load” mutual fund is a fund that does not have any sales charges applied when purchasing the fund. All mutual funds have operating expenses.

> If a fund has “A” shares then it is a load fund, meaning there is an upfront sales charge. “No load” means that there are not any sale charges (commissions).

39
Q

T / F - The buy-and-hold strategy is considered an active investment strategy.

A

False - A buy-and-hold strategy is a classic passive investment strategy that minimizes transaction costs and ensures that investors can participate in any upswings in the market.

40
Q

T / F - This strategy of buying and holding investments minimizes transaction costs in the buying and selling of securities.

A

True - A buy-and-hold strategy is a classic passive investment strategy that minimizes transaction costs and ensures that investors can participate in any upswings in the market.

41
Q

T / F - An investor using the buy-and-hold strategy would likely miss out on upswings in the market.

A

False - A buy-and-hold strategy is a classic passive investment strategy that minimizes transaction costs and ensures that investors can participate in any upswings in the market.

42
Q

What are the four major asset classes?

A

Cash / Cash Equivalents
Stocks
Bonds
Real Estate

43
Q

Fred has an account at an FDIC insured bank, and has $300,000 in an account in just his name, and $200,000 in an account with his brother. How much FDIC insurance coverage does Fred have?

1) $250,000
2) $300,000
3) $350,000
4) $500,000

A

3) $350,000
- The FDIC covers up to $250,000 in each “ownership category.” Fred would have $250,000 of coverage in the account in just his name ($50,000 of the $300,000 would not be covered). In a joint account it is assumed that each individual owns half of the account, so Fred would have $100,000 of coverage in the joint account (his brother would also have $100,000 of coverage). This means that the total amount of coverage that Fred has is $350,000.

44
Q

John has a 401(k) plan and is unsure of where to invest. He wants a diversified portfolio of both stocks and bonds, but has no idea of which funds to choose, and how much to put into each fund. He plans to retire in about 20 years and only wants to choose one fund. Given John’s situation, which one of the funds available in his 401(k) would be the best choice?

1) Large company fund of US stocks
2) Bond fund with various maturities
3) 2035 target fund
4) Real estate investment trust (REIT)

A

3) 2035 target fund
- A target fund is a “fund of funds” that is made up of other mutual funds. It would be diversified and have both stock and bond funds, which is what John wants, and would enable John to have just one fund and accomplish his objective. The further away from retirement, the higher the stock allocation will be. The closer to retirement (and in retirement), the stock allocation decreases and the bond allocation increases. The 2035 fund is the closest to his retirement date, without going over (2040 would be the next available target date fund).

> A large company stock fund is just invested in stocks, and does not give John the diversified portfolio of both stocks and bonds that he wants.

> A bond fund is just invested in bonds, and does not give John the diversified portfolio of both stocks and bonds that he wants.

> A real estate investment trust fund is just invested in real estate, and does not give John the diversified portfolio of both stocks and bonds that he wants.