Module 6 - Genetics, Evolution & Ecosystems Flashcards

DONE!

1
Q

Allele

A

A version of a gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Allopatric speciation

A

A form of speciation that occurs when 2 populations become geographically isolated due to a physical barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Apoptosis

A

Programmed cell death, is important for pruning surplus cells and tissues in development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Artificial selection

A

The process by which humans artificially select organisms with desirable characteristics and breed them to produce offspring with desirable phenotypes. Artificial selection may also be referred to as ‘selective breeding’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Autosomal linkage

A

When two or more genes are positioned on the same autosome. They are unlikely to be separated by crossing over during meiosis so are often inherited together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Autosome

A

A chromosome that is not an X or Y chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Bioinformatics

A

The development of the computer tools and software required to analyse unprocessed biological data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chi-squares (X²) test

A

A statistical test used to determine whether a pattern of inheritance is statistically significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Chlorosis

A

A condition in which plant leaf cells produce insufficient chlorophyll, resulting in pale/yellow leaves. May be due to lack of light/mineral deficiencies/viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Codominace

A

When both alleles for a gene in a heterozygous organism equally contribute to the phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Computational biology

A

The use of computational techniques to analyse large amounts of biodata and build theoretical models of biological systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Continuous variation

A

A type of variation that cannot be categorised e.g skin colour, height. It produces a continuous range in which a characteristic can take any value. Multiple genes influence continuous variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Degrees of freedom (X² test)

A

Number of categories minus one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Deletion

A

A form of gene mutation in which one or more nucleotide bases are removed from a DNA sequence. This may lead to a frameshift mutation, changing every successive codon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dihybrid inheritance

A

The determination of a trait by the inheritance of 2 genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Directional selection

A

A type of selection that favours 1 extreme phenotype and selects against all other phenotypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Discontinuous variation

A

A type of variation that can be categories e.g blood group. A characteristic can only appear in discrete values. 1 or 2 genes influence discontinuous variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Disruptive selections

A

A type of selection that favours individuals with extreme phenotypes and selects against those with phenotypes close to the mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DNA barcode

A

A short sequence of DNA that is used to identify a species. DNA barcodes are common to all species but vary between species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

DNA ligase

A

An enzyme that joins the sugar-phosphate backbone of 2 DNA segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

DNA profiling

A

A technique used to determine the patterns in the non-coding DNA of an individual. It involves 5 main stages: DNA extraction, digestion, separation of DNA fragments, hybridisation and observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

DNA sequencing

A

Determining the entire DNA nucleotide base sequence of an organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dominant

A

Describes an allele that is always expressed. Represented by a capital letter C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Electrophoresis

A

A type of chromatography that separated nucleic acid fragments/proteins by size using electric current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Electroporation

A

A method of transformation in which a small electric current is used to transfer recombinant plasmids into bacterial cells/fragments of DNA into eukaryotic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Epistasis

A

Describes a relationship between genes at different loci, where the alleles of 1 gene affects the expression of a different gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Etiolation

A

A condition in plants characterised by weak stems & small, pale leaves, due to insufficient exposure to light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Evolution

A

The gradual change in the allele frequencies within a population over time, occurs due to natural selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Exon

A

A sequence of DNA that codes for an amino acid sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Founder effect

A

A type of genetic drift in which a few individuals of a species break off from the population and form a new colony, results in smaller gene pools & an increased frequency of rale alleles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Gene mutation

A

A change to at least 1 nucleotide base in DNA/ arrangement of bases, gene mutations can occur spontaneously during DNA replication & may be beneficial/damaging/neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Gene therapy

A

Therapeutic technique in which a faulty allele is replaced with a functional allele in order to treat/prevent disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO)

A

An organism that has had its genome altered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Genetic bottleneck

A

A drastic reduction in population size, leading to reduced genetic diversity within a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Genetic drift

A

Random variations in allele frequencies in small populations, due to mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Genetic engineering

A

The modification of the genome of an organism by the insertion of a desired gene from another organism, enables the formation of organisms with beneficial characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Genome

A

The complete genetic material of an organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Genotype

A

An organism’s genetic composition, describes all alleles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Germ Line cell gene therapy

A

A type of gene therapy, faulty allele is replaced with a functioning allele in germ cells/very early embryo, effects of this are permanent & can be inherited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hardy-Weinburg priciple

A

A model that predicts that the ratio of dominant & recessive alleles in a population will remain constant between generations, if 5 conditions are met.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the 5 conditions which the need to be met for the Hardy-Weinburg principle

A

No new mutations
No natural selection
No migration
Large population
Random mating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the formula provided by the Hardy-Weinburg principle

A

Formula for calculating frequencies of alleles:
p² + 2pq + q² = 1.0
p = frequency of dominant allele
q = frequency of recessive allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Heterozygous

A

When someone has 2 different allele of a gene e.g. Ff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

High-throughput sequencing

A

More recent, large scale approaches to DNA sequencing that use a flow cell
Enable many clusters of DNA fragments to be sequenced simultaneously, giving efficient & rapid sequencing. Has allowed whole-genome sequencing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Homeobox genes

A

A group of regulatory genes that contain a homeobox, DNA sequence that is highly conserved in animals/plants/fungi. Homeobox genes are responsible for the development of body plans in different organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Homozygous

A

When someone has 2 identical alleles of a gene e.g. FF, ff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hox gene

A

A type of homeobox gene that is present in ANIMALS ONLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Inbreeding

A

The formation of offspring from the breeding of closely related individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Insertion

A

A form of gene mutation, 1≥ nucleotide bases are added to DNA sequence, may lead to a frameshift mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Intron

A

A non-coding sequence of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Lac operon

A

A group of 3 structural genes, lacZ, lacY, lacA, are required for metabolism of lactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Mature mRNA

A

The final mRNA product that has had introns removed, as well as having undergone other post-transcriptional changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Mitosis

A

A form of cell division that produces 2 genetically identical diploid daughter cells. Mitosis is important for growth, increasing the no. of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Monogenic inheritance

A

The determination of a trait by the inheritance of a single gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Multiple alleles

A

When a gene has more than 2 potential alleles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Mutagen

A

A chemical/biological/physical agent that increases the rate of gene mutations above normal level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Operon

A

A group of genes that are expressed together & controlled by the same regulatory mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Phenotype

A

An organism’s observable characteristics. Due to interactions of the genotype & environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

A

An in vitro technique used to rapidly amplify fragments of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Post-transcriptional control

A

The level of gene regulation in which primary mRNA can be modified, controlling translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Post-translational control

A

The level of gene regulation in which proteins can be modified post-synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Pre-mRNA

A

The product of transcription before any post-transcriptional regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Recessive

A

Describes an allele that is only expressed in the absence of a dominant allele. Represented by a small letter (ff)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Recombinant DNA

A

A combination of DNA form 2 different organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Regulatory gene

A

A gene that codes for the production of proteins involved in DNA regulation. The expression of regulatory genes is influenced by internal & external stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Repressor protein

A

A protein that binds to the operator, altering the transcription rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Restriction endonucleases

A

Enzymes that cut DNA molecules at recognition sequences, creating sticky ends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Sanger sequencing

A

The 1st method of DNA sequencing that involved the formation of DNA fragments of varying lengths. Fluorescent ‘terminator’ bases marked the final base of each fragment, allowing the overall DNA sequence to be determined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Selection pressures

A

Factors that affect an organism’s ability to survive in an environment e.g. disease, prey, competitors, H2O availability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Selective breeding/Artificial selection

A

Process by which humans artificially select organisms with desirable characteristics & breed them to produce offspring with desirable phenotypes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Sex-linkage

A

The presence of a gene on an X/Y chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Sexual reproduction

A

A form of reproduction involving the random fusion of male & female gametes, creates genetic variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Somatic cell gene therapy

A

Type of gene therapy which a faulty allele is replaced with a functional allele in affected somatic cells. The effects of this are temporary & cannot be inherited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Speciation

A

The formation of new species due to the evolution of 2 reproductively separated populations, 2 forms: allopatric & sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Stabilising selection

A

A type of selection that favours individuals with phenotypes close to the mean & selects against extreme phenotypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Sticky ends

A

The staggered cut formed by restriction endonucleases in double-stranded DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Structural gene

A

A ene that codes for the production of proteins/enzymes that aren’t involved in DNA regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Substitution

A

A form of gene mutation which 1 nucleotide base is exchanged for another, may change a amino acid/produce the same amino acid (due to degeneracy of the genetic code)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Sympathetic speciation

A

A form of speciation that occurs when 2 populations within the same area become reproductively isolated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Synthetic biology

A

The design nd construction of new biological entitiles, as well as the reconstruction of pre-existing natural biological systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Thermocycler

A

A machine controlled by a computer that varies temperatures at predetermined time intervals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Transcriptional control

A

The level of gene regulation in which genes are switched ‘on’/’off’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Transcription factors

A

Proteins that help to switch genes ‘on’ or ‘off’ by controlling the binding of RNA polymerase to DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Transgenic organism

A

An organism that contains recombinant DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Translational control

A

The level of gene regulation in which translation can be initiated/stopped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Vector

A

A carrier used to transfer a gene from 1 organism to another e.g. plasmid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Artificial twinning

A

The artificial production of monozygotic twins from the manual splitting of the early embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Aseptic techniques

A

A range of techniques used to culture microorganisms under sterile conditions in order to minimise contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Batch fermentation

A

An individual method of fermentation that runs for a set period of time. The culture broth is not removed until the fermentation is complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Bioremediation

A

The use of microorganisms to remove soil and water pollution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Biotechnology

A

The field of biology involving the use of living systems to produce or transform materials. Applications include agriculture, medicine and food science

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Brewing

A

Production of beer from the steeping of barley in water and the fermentation of the resulting product of yeast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Clones

A

The genetically identical offspring produced as a result of cloning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Cloning

A

A method of producing genetically identical offspring by asexual reproducation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Continuous fermentation

A

An industrial method of fermentation in which culture broth is continuously removed and extra nutrient medium is added. The fermentation conditions remain relatively constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Culture

A

The growth of living matter in vitro in suitable conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Cutting

A

A small section of the root or stem of an adult plant that is used in horticulture to produce natural clones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Enucleation

A

The removal of the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Fermentation

A

A type of anaerobic respiration that doesn’t involve an electron transport chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Immobilised aminoacylase

A

An immobilised enzyme that is used to produce pure samples of L-amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Immobilised enzymes

A

Enzymes which are attached to an inert, insoluble material over which the substrate passes and the reaction takes place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Immobilised glucoamylase

A

An immobilised enzyme that can be used to breakdown dextrins into glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Immobilised glucose isomerase

A

An immobilised enzyme that is used to convert glucose to fructose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Immobilised lactase

A

An immobilised enzyme that hydrolyses lactose to glucose and galactose in the production of lactose free milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Immobilised penicillin acylase

A

An immobilised enzyme that is used to produce semi-synthetic penicillin from natural penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Micropropagation

A

The production of large numbers of clones from 1 parent plant using tissue culture

107
Q

Monozygotic twins

A

Identical twins formed from 1 fertilised egg that splits to form 2 embryos

108
Q

Natural Clonign

A

A form of asexual reproduction that takes place in plants in which a new genetically identical plant grows from a structure (stem/leaf/bud/root) pf the parent plant, also known as vegetative propagation

109
Q

Penicillin

A

The 1st conventional effective and safe antibiotic derived from the mould Penicillium chrysogenum

110
Q

Somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT)

A

The production of an embryo from the transfer of the nucleus of an adult animal cell to an enucleated egg cell in the laboratory. The nucleus + egg are fused and stimulated to divide

111
Q

Tissue Culture

A

The growth of cells/tissues outside of an organism in an artificial culture medium

112
Q

Abiotic factors

A

A non living aspect of an ecosystem e.g. light/temp/water availability/oxygen availability/soil pH

113
Q

Abundance

A

The number of individuals per species in a specific area at any given time

114
Q

Ammonification

A

The production of ammonium compounds when decomposers feed on organic nitrogen-containing molecules

115
Q

Azotobacter

A

A type of nitrogen-fixing bacteria that lives freely in the soil

116
Q

Belt transect

A

A line along a sampled area, quadrats placed on at intervals to determine abundance and distribution of organisms in an ecosystem

117
Q

Biomass

A

The total mass of organic material, measure in specific are over set time period, can be calculated in terms of dry mass

118
Q

Biotic factors

A

The living components of an ecosystem e.g. pathogen/food availability/predators/other species

119
Q

Carbon cycle

A

The cycle through carbon moves between living organisms & environment, involving respiration/photosynthesis/combustion

120
Q

Carrying capacity

A

The maximum population size that can be indefinitely supported by an enviro

121
Q

Climax community

A

The stable community of organisms that exist at the final stage of ecological succession

122
Q

Conservation

A

The maintenance of ecosystems & biodiversity by humans in order to preserve the Earth’s resources

123
Q

Consumers

A

Organisms that feed on other organisms to obtain energy

124
Q

Decomposers

A

Organisms that release enzymes which catalyse the breakdown of dead plant and animal material into simpler organic matter

125
Q

Deflected succession

A

Changes to the natural flow of succession due to human activity that result in a stable community known as a plagioclimax

126
Q

Dentrification

A

The conversion of nitrate ions to nitrogen gas by denitrifying bacteria

127
Q

Denitrifying bacteria

A

Anaerobic microorganisms, waterlogged soils, responsible for the reduction of nitrate ions to nitrogen gas

128
Q

Distribution

A

The spread of living organisms in an ecosystem

129
Q

Ecological efficiency

A

The efficiency of energy/biomass transfer between trophic levels

130
Q

How to calculated ecological efficiency

A

ecological efficiency=(energy/biomass available after transfer/energy/biomass available before transfer)x100

131
Q

Ecosystem

A

The community of organisms & non-living components of an area and their interactions

132
Q

Food chain

A

Describes feeding relationships between organisms & resulting stages of biomass transfer:
producer⟶primary consumer⟶secondary consumer⟶tertairy consumer

133
Q

Interspecific competition

A

A type of competition that takes place between members of different speciesI

134
Q

Intraspecific competition

A

A type of competition that takes place between members of the same species

135
Q

Limiting factor

A

A variable that limits the rate of a particular process

136
Q

Line transect

A

A line along a sampled area, species touching transect at regular intervals are recorded to determine the abundance & distribution of organisms in an ecosystem

137
Q

Nitrification

A

The conversion of ammonium ions to nitrate ions by nitrifying bacteria, takes place in 2 stages: ammonium ions are oxidised to nitrite ions, nitrite ions are oxidised to nitrate ions.`

138
Q

Nitrifying bacteria

A

Aerobic microorganisms found in soil responsible for oxidation of ammonium ions to nitrate ions

139
Q

Ntirobacter

A

A genus of nitrifying bacteria that oxidises nitrites into nitrates

140
Q

Nitrogen cycle

A

Cycle: nitrogen moves between living organisms & environment, involving ammonification, nitrification, nitrogen fixation and dentrification

141
Q

Nitrogen fixation

A

The conversion of atmospheric nitrogen gas into ammonia by nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the soil/root nodules of legumes

142
Q

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria

A

Microorganisms responsible for the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen gas into nitrogen-containing compounds, can be free living/mutualistic

143
Q

Nitrosomonas

A

A genus of nitrifying bacteria that oxidises ammonium compounds into nitrites

144
Q

Peat bogs

A

Areas of peat soil in wetland habitats formed by accumulation of partially decayed organic matter, store carbon & commonly referred to as ‘carbon sinks’

145
Q

Pioneer species

A

Species that can survive in hostile environments & colonies bare rock/sand

146
Q

Plagioclimax

A

Stage in succession, artificial factors prevent formation of a natural climax community

147
Q

Populationo

A

All organisms of same species living with 1 another in habitat at same time

148
Q

Predator

A

An organism that eats other organisms

149
Q

Preservation

A

The restriction of human interference in an area in order to protect & maintain the ecosystem

150
Q

Prey

A

An organism that is eaten by predators

151
Q

Primary succession

A

A type of succession in which pioneer species colonise a newly formed/exposed are of land

152
Q

Producers

A

Photosynthetic organisms at the start of the food chain the manufacture biomass for all living things

153
Q

Quadrat

A

A square grid used in sampling to determine abundance of organisms in a habitat

154
Q

Rhizobium

A

Type of nitrogen-fixing bacteria that lives inside the root nodules of leguminous plants

155
Q

Succession

A

Describes changes in the community or organisms occupying a certain area over time

156
Q

Sustainable

A

The ability to maintain something for future generations

157
Q

Sustainable resource

A

A resource that can be continuously renewed, it won’t diminish/run out

158
Q

Trophic level

A

The position of an organism in a food chain

159
Q

What is a mutation

A

An alteration to DNA base sequence, often spontaneously during DNA replication

160
Q

Addition mutations

A

1 or more nucleotides are inserted into DNA sequence, more likely to be either harmful/beneficial due to frame shift

161
Q

Deletion mutations

A

1 or more nucleotides are deleted from DNA sequence, harmful/beneficial due to frame shift

162
Q

Substitution mutation

A

Nucleotide in DNA sequence is replicated by another, more likely to be neutral mutation, no change occurs in amino acid sequence

163
Q

How is gene expression regulated at transcription level

A

Transcription factors-proteins that initiate/inhibit transcription of genes, only certain parts of DNA are expressed

164
Q

Function of lac operon in low lactose concentration

A

E.coli can use lactose as respiratory substrate vie use of enzyme,
When lactose con. is low, lac operon binds to gene that makes this enzyme & inhibits its expression

165
Q

Function of lac operon in high lactose concentration

A

Lactose binds to operon causing it to change shape & unattach from gene, allows RNA polymerase to bind & gene to be expressed

166
Q

How is gene expression regulated at post-transcriptional level

A

Splicing, primary mRNA contains coding (exons) & non-coding regions (introns). Introns removed to produce mature mRNA ready for translation

167
Q

How is gene expression regulated at post-translational level

A

Activation of proteins, adrenaline, when it binds to receptor, an enzyme is activated-converts ATP to cyclic AMP, promotes further enzyme reactions, activates the protein

168
Q

How is development controlled by homeobox genes

A

Codes for transcription factors that activate genes when they’re needed during development of zygote, sequences are similar in plants/animals/fungi

169
Q

How is development controlled by mitosis

A

Mitosis, primary mechanism of growth, genes regulating mitosis respond to various stimuli, both internal & external, order to control rate of growth

170
Q

How is development controlled by apoptosis

A

Programmes death of cells, highly controlled & keeps cell division at constant rate to prevent cancer

171
Q

Pheotype

A

Expression of an organism’s genetic constitution, e.g. low metabolism, combined with its interaction with the environment e.g. diet

172
Q

How can meiosis bring about genetic variation

A

Random arrangement of chromosomes when lining up
crossing over of chromatids before 1st division

173
Q

How does random fertilisation bring about genetic variation

A

Gametes=haploid cells, meaning only contain 1/2 person’s DNA, is determined by meiosis every gamete contains different DNA, produce genetically different offspring

174
Q

Monogenic inheritance

A

One phenotype characteristics is controlled by 1 gamete

175
Q

Dihybrid inheritance

A

2 phenotypic characteristics are determined by 2 different genes present on 2 different chromosomes at same time

176
Q

Sex-linkage

A

An allele is located on 21 of the sex chromosomes, its expression depends on sex of individual

177
Q

Multiple alleles

A

Gene with more than 2 alleles

178
Q

Codominant alleles

A

2 dominant alleles that both contribute to phenotype, by showing blend of characteristic/characteristics appearing together

179
Q

Autosomal linkage

A

2≥genes are located on same (non-sex) chromosome, only 1 homologous pair is needed for all 4 alleles to be present, for genes that aren’t linked 2 homologous pairs are needed

180
Q

Epistasis

A

2 non-linked genes interact, 1 gene either masking/suppressing the other gene

181
Q

Chi-squared test

A

Statistical test to find out whether difference between observed & expected data is due to chance/real effect, can be used to compare expected phenotypic ratios with observed ratios

182
Q

How is chi-squared test performed

A

Formula results in no. is compared to critical value, if no. is ≥ critical values we conclude no significant difference & result occurred due to chance

183
Q

Discontinuous variation

A

Characteristics determined by 1 gene (monogenic inheritance)

184
Q

Continuous variation

A

Characteristic determined by ≥ 1 gene (polygenic inheritance)

185
Q

Stabilising selection

A

Occurs in environmental conditions stay the same, individuals closes to mean are favoured, & any new characteristics are selected against, =low diversity

186
Q

Directional selection

A

Occurs when environmental conditions change , individuals with phenotypes suited to new conditions will survive & pass on genes, over time the mean of population will move towards these characteristics

187
Q

Genetic drift

A

Change in population’s allele frequencies that occurs due to chance rather than selective pressures, caused by sampling error during reproduction

188
Q

Genetic bottleneck

A

Catastrophic event dramatically reduces size of population, decreasing variety of alleles in gene pool & causing large changes in allele frequencies not reflective of original population

189
Q

Hardy-Weinberg principle

A

Allows us to estimate the frequency of alleles in population as well as if allele frequency is changing over time

190
Q

Hardy-Weinberg equation for calculating allele frequency

A

Frequencies of each allele for characteristic must add to 1.0
p+q=1
p=frequency of dominant allele
q=frequency of recessive allele

191
Q

Hardy-Weinberg equation for calculating genotype frequency

A

Frequencies of each characteristic must =1.0
p² + 2pq + q² = 1
p²= frequency of homozygous dominant
2pq=frequency of heterozygous
q²=frequency of homozygous recessive

192
Q

Speciation

A

Population is split & isolated, are different selective pressures on 2 groups, if genetic makeup changes to the extent the 2 groups can no longer interbreed, have become separate species

193
Q

Allopatric speciation

A

Speciation resulting from physical barrier e.g. river, environments occupied by 2 groups are different & different alleles are favouredSy

194
Q

sympatric speciation

A

Speciation resulting form a non-physical barrier e.g. mutation that no longer allows 2 organisms to produce fertile offspring, any changes in anatomy/behaviour may prevent breeding

195
Q

Artificial selection

A

Humans chose particular organisms to breed together in order to produce a desired characteristic in offspring

196
Q

Examples of artificial selection in plants & animals

A

Plants=seeds used from plants that produce larger fruit & veg
Animals=cows with higher milk yield are chosen & selectively bred

197
Q

Why is it important to keep a resource of genetic material when selective breeding

A

Allows ant traits the]at were accidently bred out to be reintroduced/reverted back to point before any negative traits were introduced

198
Q

Ethical issues around the use of artificial selection

A

Anatomical changes in animals e.g. respiratory issues in pugs
higher susceptibility to disease in both plants & animals

199
Q

DNA sequencing

A

identifying the base sequence of a DNA fragment

200
Q

How have sequencing methods changed over time?

A

Used to be manual process, now its automated
Entire genomes can now be read

201
Q

Benefits of genome-wide comparisons

A

Comparing between species allows us to determine evolutionary relationships
Comparing between individuals of same species allows us to tailor medical treatment to individual

202
Q

how can DNA sequencing be used in synthetic biology

A

Knowing sequence of gene, allows us to predict sequence of amino acids that will make up polypeptide it produces, allows for development of synthetic biology

203
Q

DNA profiling

A

Identifying unique areas of person’s DNA, in order to create a profile that is individual to them

204
Q

Uses of DNA profiling

A

Forensics=DNA obtained during crime investigations, compared to victims/suspects
Medicine=screen for particular base sequence to identify heritable diseases

205
Q

How can we amplify DNA fragments in order to sequence them?

A

Use Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), makes millions of copies of fragment, are cut at different lengths in order to be sequenced

206
Q

Reaction mixture in fist stage of PCR

A

Contains DNA fragment to be amplified, primers that are complementary to start of fragment, free nucleotides to match up to exposed bases & DNA polymerase to create new DNA

207
Q

PCR process

A

1.Heated to break apart DNA strands
2.Cooled to allows primers to bind
3.Heated to activate DNA polymerase & allow free nucleotides to join
4.New DNA acts as template for next cycle

208
Q

How is gel electrophoresis used in DNA profiling

A

●DNA fragments of varying lengths are placed at one end of a slab of gel
●Electric current applied, DNA fragments move towards the other end of gel
●Shorter fragments travel further, pattern of bands created is unique to each individual

209
Q

Genetic Engineering

A

DNA fragment form 1 organism is inserted into DNA of another organism, sometimes across different species. Is done through use of vector & host cell

210
Q

Process of isolating DNA fragment

A

Restriction enzymes (RE) cut DNA at specific sequences. Different REs cut at different points, 1 RE will always cut at the same sequence, using a particular REs allows you to cut out a certain gene of interest

211
Q

Process of inserting DNA fragment into a vector

A

A plasmid is used as a vector & is cut using same REs as the DNA, so that the ends are complementary. DNA ligase joins fragments & plasmid together

212
Q

Process of inserting vector into a host cell

A

Host cells (bacteria) are mixed with vectors in ice-cold solution, then shocked to increase permeability of cell membrane (electroporation) which encourages the cells to take up vectors

213
Q

Ethical issues around genetic engineering

A

+insect resistance can be introduced to crops
+GE animals used to produce pharmaceuticals (pharming)
+GE pathogens can be produced for research
-GE seeds would be hard to acquire for poorer farmers

214
Q

Gene therapy

A

Replacing a faulty allele with a normal allele, 2 types are somatic and germ line

215
Q

Somatic gene therapy

A

Allele introduced to target cells only
Short-term needs repeating

216
Q

Germ line gene therapy

A

allele introduced to embryonic cells so it is present in all resultant cells, permanent will be passed to offspring

217
Q

How can we produce natural clones of plants

A

Vegetative propagation.
Part of a plant is separated then develops into a new plant genetically identical to original

218
Q

How should a plant cutting be taken for cloning

A

Stem is cut between leaf & nodes, replanted & allowed to grow, sometimes with use of plant hormones

219
Q

How can we produce artificial clones of plants

A

●Tissue culture, sample placed on various nutrient-containing mediums to encourage cell division & shoot growth
●Micropropagation, material produced from tissue cultures is rapidly multiplied to produce large numbers of plants

220
Q

Evaluate use of artificial plant cloning in agriculture

A

+large no. of plants can be produced regardless of weather conditions
-reduced genetic variation, making them susceptible to disease

221
Q

Example of natural cloning in animals

A

Monozygotic twins, embryo splits during development to produce 2 genetically identical individuals

222
Q

Producing artificial clones of animals

A

●somatic cell nuclear transfer, differentiated cell from parent fused with an enucleated egg cell, the cell develops into an embryo & can be implanted into a womb
●Embryo splitting, same process by which twins form, performed artificially

223
Q

Arguments surrounding cloning in animals

A

+quick process suited to growing population of Earth
+can preserve endangered species
-cloned animals often suffer from health problems
-low genetic diversity

224
Q

Why are microorganisms suited for use in biotechnological processes

A

●rapid growth in variety of environmental conditions
●can be genetically engineered
Reduces use of chemical, beneficial to environment

225
Q

Ways microorganisms are used in biotechnological processes

A

●food: baking, brewing, yogurt, cheese
●medicine: penicillin, insulin
●Environmental: removing pollution (bioremediation)

226
Q

Advantages of using microorganisms to produce food for human consumption

A

+Production rate easily varied
+Not dependent on climate
+Long-lasting
+Uses waste products

227
Q

Disadvantages of using microorganisms to produce food for human consumption

A

-lacks flavour
-proteins must be isolated and purified
-contains different amino acids to animal proteins

228
Q

Technique that should be used to culture microorganisms

A

Aseptic technique: everything must be kept completely sterile so no unwanted microorganisms are present in culture

229
Q

Three steps of growing microorganisms

A

1.Sterilisation
2,Inoculation, microorganism introduced to agar plate by streaking, seeding or spreading.
3.Incubation, placed in warm environment for 24-48hrs to grow

230
Q

Batch fermentation

A

Closed environment , competition for resources, maintains culture in stationary phase, easy to set up, less efficient

231
Q

Continuous fermentation

A

Products continually removed, maintains culture in log phase, difficult to set up more efficient

232
Q

How are growth conditions manipulated to maximise yield

A

●Temperature maintained at optimum
●Sufficient nutrient supply
●Aerobic conditions to prevent products of anaerobic respiration
●pH kept constant to maximise enzyme activity

233
Q

Phases of growth curve of a microorganism in closed culture

A

Lag=cells increase in size & take in water, population constant
Log=cells divide, population increases exponentially
Stationary=nutrient levels decrease, slowing growth rate, population stabilises
Death=toxic metabolites increase to point that kills cells, population declines

234
Q

Formula for bacterial growth

A

N=N0 X 2^n
N=no. of bacteria currently in population
N0=no. of bacteria in population at beginning
n=no. of divisions

235
Q

Immobilised enzyme

A

Enzyme attached to an inert material in order to restrict its movement & hold it in place during a reaction so that it can be reused

236
Q

Methods of immobilised enzymes

A

1.Bonding-enzyme binds with support ionically (adsorption)/covalently
2.Entrapment-enzyme placed in a semi-permeable material that allows diffusion of the substrate & product
3.Membrane separation-partially permeable membrane separates enzyme from substrate

237
Q

Uses of immobilised enzymes

A

●Glucose→fructose conversion
●Semi-synthetic penicillin production
●Lactose to glucose/galactose conversion
●Pure samples of amino acids
●Dextrins→glucose conversion

238
Q

Evaluate use of immobilised enzymes

A

+Product isn’t contaminated by enzyme, so doesn’t need to be purified
+Enzymes can be reused
+Enzymes are protected from harsh environment
-Expensive
-Reaction rate is slower as enzymes cannot move

239
Q

Ecosystem

A

All living organisms found in 1 area & non-living aspects of their environment.
Can range in size, e.g. rock pool/tree/field. Known as ‘dynamic’ as they depend on interactions between biotic & abiotic factors

240
Q

Biotic factor

A

Living features of an ecosystem e.g. predators/disease

241
Q

Abiotic factor

A

Non-living features of an ecosystem e.g. light/temperature

242
Q

How is biomass transferred & how it is measured

A

Transferred up trophic levels through consumption, can be measured in terms of mass of carbon/dry mass of tissue

243
Q

Formula for efficiency of biomass

A

Efficiency=(biomass transferred / biomass intake) x100

244
Q

How can human activities affect biomass transfer

A

●Light/water/temperature maximised
●Increased nutrients in soil
●Pests & weeds removed
●Growth rates boosted through steroids/selective breeding ect.

245
Q

Roles of microorganisms in the nitrogen cycle

A

●Nitrogen-fixing bacteria in roots (Rhizobium) & soil (Azotobacter), convert gaseous nitrogen into ammonia
●Nitrifying bacteria (Nitrosomonas) convert ammonia compounds into nitrites to nitrates

246
Q

Role of organisms in the carbon cycle

A

●Respiration of plants & animals add carbon dioxide into atmosphere
●Photosynthesis of plants removes carbon dioxide from atmosphere
●Decomposers (microorganisms) decay plant & animals material into carbon dioxide

247
Q

Primary succession

A

An area previously devoid of life is colonised by a community of organisms

248
Q

Process of primary succession

A

●Pioneer species, able to survive harsh conditions, colonise the area
●They die, decompose & add nutrients to ground
●Over time, allows more complex organisms to survive

249
Q

Climax community & how its reached

A

Final stage of succession, ecosystem is balanced 7 stable, is reached when the soil is rich enough to support large trees/shrubs & environment is no longer changing

250
Q

Deflected succession

A

Where succession is interrupted, usually by human interference

251
Q

Sampling

A

Selecting a group of individuals that will represent whole target population, allows us to measure the distribution & abundance of organisms

252
Q

Methods of sampling & how they are used

A

●Quadrats=used in small areas, randomly/regularly placed across habitat, frequency/% cover calculated
●Transects=used in larger area, sample taken along a line that crosses the habitat, can be combined with quadrats in form of a belt transect

253
Q

Carrying capacity

A

Maximum population size that a habitat can support, defined by the presence of limiting factors

254
Q

Factors that limit maximum size of a population

A

●Food
●Water
●Light
●Oxygen
●Nesting sites
●Shelter
●Parasites
●Predators

255
Q

Pattern of a typical predator-prey relationship in terms of population change

A

●Prey is eaten by predator, resulting in predator population increasing & prey population decreasing.
●Fewer prey means increased competition for food, so predator population decreases
●Fewer predators means more prey survives & cycle begins again

256
Q

Intraspecific competition=between organisms of the same species

A

between organisms of the same species

257
Q

Interspecific competition

A

Between organisms of different species

258
Q

Conservation

A

Maintains biodiversity of a habitat by allowing sustainable use of resource there

259
Q

Preservation

A

Maintains biodiversity of a habitat by minimising human impact

260
Q

Why we conserve & preserve habitats

A

Economic=Food source, natural pests control boost tourism
Social=Organisms can be used in medicine, aesthetics
Ethical=Responsibility to maintain habitats for future generations

261
Q

Sustainability

A

Using resources in a way that also maintains them for future generation

262
Q

Methods allowing sustainable use of ecosystem’s resources

A

Timber production=coppicing to encourage growth, replacing felled trees, selective cutting
Fishing=stocks not depleted, no overfishing, can continue indefinitely

263
Q

Example of how conflict between conservation & human needs can be balanced

A

Terai region (Nepal), over-exploited for use in fuel, locals now have responsibility to look after forrest, ‘Corridors’ places to enable migration

264
Q

Example of how human effects are controlled in sensitive ecosystems

A

Galapagos islands, endangered due to hunting & tourism. New species introduced, caused damage to native species, trying to find balance