Module 5, Year 1 - Neurophysiology & UCSC, Mechanoreceptive Dysafferentation Flashcards

1
Q

The tectorial membrane is taut at…

A

15 degrees flexion, 20 degrees extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The apical ligament is taut at…

A

20 degrees flexion, 30 degrees extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The anterior atlantodentate ligament is taut at…

A

Less than 10 degrees rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following ligaments connect the occiput to the anterior tubercle of the atlas?

a) anterior longitudinal ligament
b) Lateral atlanto-occipital membrane
c) Anterior atlanto-occipital membrane
d) Posterior longitudinal ligament
e) Tectorial ligament

A

c) Anterior atlanto-occipital membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. The tectorial membrane contains type 3 collagen fibres which have a higher elastic fiber component. Due to this feature, the tectorial membrane begins to limit flexion and extension at the CCJ at which degrees of movement respectively?
    a. 20 degrees of flexion, 15 degrees of extension
    b. 15 degrees of flexion, 20 degrees of extension
    c. 10 degrees of flexion, 15 degrees of extension
    d. 5 degrees of flexion, 10 degrees of extension
    e. 20 degrees of flexion, 10 degrees of extension
A

b. 15 degrees of flexion, 20 degrees of extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding chiropractic and stroke?
    a. Many people will seek help for headaches and neck pain from their doctor or chiropractor
    b. A stroke may present with unilateral neck pain and headache, often described as the worst headache of their life
    c. Strains sustained by the vertebral artery during SMT are approx. 1/9th of the strain at mechanical failure
    d. The vast majority of strokes related to cervical SMT occur in the vertebra-basilar, specifically between C1 and C2
    e. All of the above
A

e. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

a) No significant changes in VA blood flow have been overserved in healthy young adults
b) No significant associated between loss of cervical lordosis and decreased VA hemodynamics have been found
c) 30 degrees of cervical rotation causes contralateral VA kinking
d) 45 degrees of cervical rotation causes ipsilateral VA kinking
e) The vertebral artery becomes compresed with 10 degrees of extension at the atlanto-axial joint

A

b) No significant associated between loss of cervical lordosis and decreased VA hemodynamics have been found

[A significant association has been found between a loss of lordosis and reduced VA diameter, flow volume, and peak systolic velocity]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

a) The transverse ligament is proatantal derivative and is first seen in the embryo when it is 27mm long
b) The anterior atlantodental ligament is found approx. 81% of people and is located below the fovea dentis and the dens
c) The anterior atlantodental ligament become taut with C1/C2 rotation prior to the alar ligaments
d) Only flexion will produce tension in Barkow’s ligament
e) The cruciate ligament has three parts

A

d) Only flexion will produce tension in Barkow’s ligament

Barkow’s ligament produces tension with EXTENSION

The three parts of the cruciate ligament are the transverse ligament, cranial crus, and caudal crus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of the alar ligaments?
    a. Check rotation (aka check ligaments)
    b. Left alar ligament controls right axial rotation
    c. The superior part of the contralateral alar ligament becomes taught in lateral flexion
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
What is the tensile strength of the following ligaments:
Transverse ligament
Capsular ligament
Alar ligament
Tectorial membrane
Lateral atlanto-occipital ligament
A
Transverse - 400N
Capsular - 300N
Alar - 200N
Tectorial - 80N
Lateral atlanto-occipital - 40N
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the accessory atlantoaxial ligament?

a) Maximally taut at 5-10 degrees of extension
b) It is found in 92% of specimens
c) It is lax in flexion
d) It is located between the occiput, atlas, and axis
e) It is taut with rotation of the head at 15-20 degrees

A

d) It is located between the occiput, atlas, and axis

It is maximally taut at FLEXION.
It is found in 100% of specimens.
It is lax in EXTENSION.
It is taut with rotation of the head at 5-8 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The tectorial membrane are made of what kind of tissue?

A

Type 3 collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe Type 1 Mechanoreceptors

A

Slow adapting, ruffini, low threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe Type 2 Mechanoreceptors

A

Low threshold, fast adapting, pascini corpuscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe Type 3 Mechanoreceptors

A

High threshold, slow adapting, golgi tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe Type 4 Mechanoreceptors

A

High threshold, fast adapting, nociceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why might obliquus muscles have higher muscle spindle concentration than the rectus capitis?

A

Possibly due to the limited ROM at C0-C1 joint complex and greater ROM at C1-C2. Either way, all suboccipital muscles have a lack of golgi tendon organs and are not designed for movement; they instead relay information about the joint position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is clinically significant about forward head carriage?

A

For every inch forward, it adds an extra 10lbs on the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A fibrous capsule surrounds the occipital condyles and the atlas superior facets, this capsule is reinforced by what ligaments?

A

Oblique bands called the lateral antlanto-occipital ligaments (the lateral bands of the atlanto-occipital membrane)

They are continuous with the articular capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the connecting points for the anterior atlanto-occipital membrane?

A

The anterior foramen magnum to the superior portion of the atlas anterior tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What ligament strengthens the anterior atlanto-occipital membrane?

A

Its strengthened by the ANTERIOR LONGITUDINAL LIGAMENT which runs from the basilar portion of the occipital bone, atlas anterior arch and all vertebral bodies and discs before ending at the anterior superior sacrum. It widens as it descends.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name the origin and insertion of the tectorial membrane.

A

Continuation of the PLL from cranial base (clivus) to the body of the axis, but NOT to the dens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Is the tectorial membrane taught in both flexion and extension of the AA joint?

A

Yes, flexion at 15 degrees and extension at 20 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

This ligament helps stabilize the skull on the cervical spine posteriorly and attaches
to the EOP, the posterior atlas tubercle and the spinous processes of C1-C7.

A

Ligamentum nuchae (or nuchal ligament)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The C1-2 articulation is formed by how many joints?

A

3 - 2 lateral atlanto-axial joints and 1 anterior arch and dens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This membrane attaches from the inferior atlas posterior arch to the superior lamina of C2?

A

Ligamentum flavum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Are the fibrous capsules surrounding the lateral C1-C2 joints thick and firm or thin
and loose?

A

Thin and loose to allow for the large amount of rotation between C1-C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A posterior ponticle, or arcuate foramen, is the calcification of what ligament?

A

Posterior atlanto-occipital ligament where it arches over the vertebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

This membrane connects to the posterior margin of the foramen magnum to the superior margin of the atlas posterior arch?

A

Posterior atlanto-occipital membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The vertebral artery pierces which membrane when it reaches the atlas?

A

The posterior atlanto-occipital membrane

It then pieces the dura before joining the contralateral VA to form the basilar artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How is the pain described by some experiencing a vertebral artery dissection?

A

Sudden onset of the worst unilateral headache and neck pain person has ever experienced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T/F: patients with VAD commonly present with neck pain or headaches and hence
seek chiropractic and medical care. VAD’s can occur spontaneously and are not necessarily CAUSED by the practitioners intervention.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does “post hoc, ergo propter hoc” mean?

A

“After this therefore caused by this”… In regards to chiropractic’s relationship to stroke, this is a Fallacy.

Correlation does not necessarily mean causation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T/F: The American heart association and American stroke association found a significant link between chiropractic adjustments and stroke.

A

False, position paper in SPINE, January 2008, found insufficient evidence. There is a correlation because people with VAD symptoms frequently visit their chiropractor or MD for help. In fact, they found that there was a stronger association between stroke and visits to the MD.

Cassidy, Euro Spine Journal 2008, though these were strokes in progress and the people went their chiropractor or MD for acute care due to the pain and hence the correlation between a visit to the chiropractor or MD and stroking out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What lining of the artery is most affected in VAD?

A

Tunica media and aventitia (not intimia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

T/F: The strains from CMT are equal to the strains from cervical rotation.

A

False, the strains from CMT are 1/9th the strain from normal C-rotation.

According to the JMPT 2002, vertebral arteries can be stretched 1.5x their normal resting length before mechanical failure.

Normal rotation puts more strain on the soft tissue structures than CMT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Whats

the diameter of the VA?

A

Approximately 4.5mm with the left slightly greater than the right.

Fun fact, the right jugular vein is larger than the left.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How much extension of the Atlanto-axial joint before compression of the VA occurs?

A

Approximately 10 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

T/F: 30 degrees of AA rotation causes the contralateral VA to kink.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

T/F: 45 degrees of AA rotation causes the ipsilateral VA to kink.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

List the 5 Ds And 3 Ns of a stroke.

A

Dizziness, drop attacks, diplopia, dysarthria, dysphagia
Ataxia
Numbness, Nausea, Nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

T/F: For those who had experienced VAD, on follow up 50% had new complaints of upper neck pain and hemi-cranial pain. Described as throbbing, steady, sharp, thunderclap headache.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How many deaths to medical errors?

A

98,000 to 180,000 per year accodring to Leape, JAMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

NSAIDS cause what deadly complications and at what rate?

A

1 in 1,2000 estimated from gastroduodenal complications and end stage renal disease for taking them for two months.

According to Dabbs, JMPT 1995, chiropractic care in comparison is 700x safer.

Journal of Rheumatology report 16,500 die each year from NSAIDS vs 16,685 each year from HIV.

NSAIDS increased risk of pancreatic cancer.

Liver failure from Tylenol (in cold and flu meds).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where is the anterior atlantodental ligament?

A

Between the base of the anterior dens to the posterior aspect of the anterior arch of atlas. Some 38% have connection to the atlanto-occipital membrane.

Becomes taut with approximately 10 degrees of atlantoaxial rotation.

Taut before alars.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where is Barkow’s ligament and what position of the AO joint causes tension?

A

Medial aspect of the occipital condyles (left and right) just anterior to the alar attachments.

Extension is the only movement that affects Barkows.

Because its ANTERIOR to the DENS > 75% have attachments to the anterior AO-membrane.

Tensile strength 28N or 6lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the 3 components of the CRUCIATE/ CRUCIFORM (cross) LIGAMENT?

A

Transverse Ligament
Cranial Crus
Caudal Crus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which two ligaments make up the “longitudinal bands” of the cruciate ligament?

A

Cranial and caudal crus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the attachments of the ALAR LIGAMENTS “check ligaments” and what motion do they check?

A

Tip of dens to medial side of occipital condyles (atlas sometimes depending on the research)

Checks rotation and lateral flexion of the C0-C1 and C1-C2 joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Right lateral flexion and right rotation is checked by which ALAR LIGAMENT?

A

Left alar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Where is the APICAL LIGAMENT and what motions does it restrict?

A

Tip of dens to foramen magnum (for 80% of people).

Apical is taut in 20 degrees flexion and 30 degrees of extension.

Tectorial membrane is taut in 15 degrees flexion and 20 degrees extension. It can withstand 80N before tearing (about 18lbs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which ligament in the CCJ has the greatest tensile strength?

A

Transverse ligament 400N (90lbs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which are stronger, alar ligaments or capsular ligaments?

A

Capsular ligaments - 300N (67lbs)

Alar withstands only 200N (45lbs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which is stronger, alar ligaments or tectorial membrane?

A

Alar ligaments - 200N (45lbs)

Tectorial membrane only withstands 80N (18lbs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What ligament attaches from the posterior body of C2 to C0/C1 joint capsule.

A

Accessory atlantoaxial ligament

Its taut in 10 degrees of flexion and 5-8 degrees of rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What ligament is immediately posterior to the rectus capitus lateralitis? Where does it insert?

A

Lateral atlanto-occipital ligament - 40N (9lbs)

From transverse process of the atlas to the jugular process of occipital bone (the posterior aspect of the jugular foramen)

Vertebral artery is posterior and jugular foramen anterior.

The LAO was found in intimate contact with the vertebral artery posteriorly and with the contents of the jugular foramen anteriorly.

Posterior to the rectus capitus lateralis.

Fully taut at 8 degrees of left and right lateral flexion. Partial tightness in rotation.

Lax in flexion and extension which is probably why its not often torn in whiplash flex/ext trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What ligament is similar to Barkows in its insertions, but on the POSTERIOR side of the dens?

A

Transverse occipital ligament

Its superior to the transverse ligament.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What membrane lays over the CO/C1/C2 ligament complex and is continuous with the PLL?

A

Tectorial membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What type of MRI would be needed to reveal damage to the Alar ligaments? And what are the best views?

A

Sagittal and coronal proton density weighted MRI views

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

From Rosa: on both T1 and T2 images, what color are damaged ligaments?

A
White = damaged
Black = healthy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What position of the head at time of impact, predisposed the occupant to alar ligament damage?

A

Head in rotation, as alar ligaments are “check ligaments” for rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

T / F : high signal changes of the alar and transverse ligaments are common in WAD2 and 3 and are unlikely to represent age-dependent degeneration.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

T/F : Ligament damage is not permanent.

A

False, whiplash trauma can cause permanent damage to the UC ligaments, especially the alars which check rotation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

T/ F : Whiplash patients have a larger number of high grade changes (high signal intensity on proton weighted MRI) compared with non-injured individuals.

A

True, this is evidence that the lesions are cause by the trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which ligaments in the upper cervical spine are often damaged in whiplash trauma and play an important role in chronic whiplash.

A

Alar strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Most Alar ligament lesions as seen in Proton weighted MRI are near which insertion… the condylar insertion or the insertion at the dens?

A

Condylar insertion in 82 of 94 ligaments studied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The central core of the alar ligaments is made up of what?

A

Collagen with a few elastic fibers peripherally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Is collagen tolerant to elongation?

A

No, collagen can sustain 8% elongation. 200% elongation of elastic fibers.

A peripheral nerve can sustain 12% elongation before permanent damage.

A peripheral nerve can sustain 6% elongation and lose 70% of its action potential and recover 90+% in 1 hour &laquo_space;muscle test this… stretch brachial plexus and test muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Is it possible to have a substantial sideways shift of the atlas > than 1.5mm without damage to the alar ligaments?

A

Yes, according to the Krakenes paper in Neuroradiology 2002

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Increased craniovertebral rotation following a whiplash injury suggests damage to what ligament?

A

Alar because they limit rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When viewed on Odontoid Digital Motion X-ray, how many mm of lateral translation of atlas on axis is considered unstable?

A

3mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

According to Goel, in Journal of Biomechanics 1988, the ligaments of the C0/1/2 level are considered lax, and the head is held firmly to the neck by what?

A

Muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What muscle originates on the spinous of T4-3-2-1-C7 and inserts on the superior nuchal line and posterior mastoid? What are its actions bilaterally and unilaterally?

A

Splenius capitus
Bilaterally extends the head
Unilaterally rotates the head ipsilaterally and lateral flexes the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

This muscle originates on the spinous process of T6-5-4-3 and inserts on the posterior transverse process of C2 and C3, and sometimes C1? What action when acting bilaterally? What action when acting unilaterally?

A

Splenius cervicis
Bilaterally extends the head
Unilaterally turns the head and laterally flexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

List the 4 suboccipital muscles

A

Rectus capitis posterior major and minor

Obliquus capitis superior and inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The greater occipital nerve is an extension of what?

A

Medial branch of dorsal ramus of C2 dorsal root (posterior primary ramus of C2)

It travels under the inferior oblique as it makes its way up the back of the head to the vertex of skull. It innervates the skin in the UC spine - back of head to vertex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The lessor occipital nerve is an extension of what nerve?

A

Ventral ramus of C2 with a branch from C3

Travels posterior to the SCM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The greater occipital nerve pierces what muscle as it makes it way to the occiput?

A

Semispinalis capitus and upper traps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The suboccipital nerve (C1) exists where & innervates what group of muscles?

A

The suboccipital triangle
All suboccipital muscles. The rectus capitis lateralis is not a suboccipital muscle and is innervated by the anterior rami of C1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What muscles make up the suboccipital triangle?

A

Obliquus capitis superior and inferior and rectus capitis posterior major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Who is considered the “father of spinal biomechanics”?

A

Giovanni Borelli 1608-1679

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Who is considered the father of orthogonally based upper cervical care?

A

John Grostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The AA articulation provides what degree of rotation to the left and right?

A

Approximately 40 degrees

How when that alars are taut at 10 degrees?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The AA articulation provides what percent of total rotation of the cervical spine?

A

50% - 60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

How many degrees of OA flex/extension (total)?

A

25 degrees (4 in flexion, 21 in extension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The C0-C1 joint has very little motion in lateral flexion and rotation to each side… how much approximately?

A

0-5 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

During lateral flexion, the atlas translates slightly in what direction?

A

Ipsilateral translation of atlas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

According to Ruth Jackson, the head and atlas move primarily as what on the axis in rotation and lateral bending movement?

A

One unit with a little side to side gliding movement (ipsilateral translation) due to the condyles of the skull

Penning (1978) stated that the movement, if possible at all, is so small.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

T/F: There are various reports in the literature with some (White/Panjabi) stating that NO rotation occurs at the OA joint and others (Penning, Wilmink, Dvorak) reporting between 1-5 degrees to either side.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

In the vertex position, does ROTATING the head 1⁄4, 1⁄2, or 1 inch in either direction change the rotation of the AO articulation?

A

No.

0-5 degrees of motion at the end of range.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

In the vertex position, does TILTING the head 1⁄4, 1⁄2, or 1 inch from vertical, change the relationship between the condyles and atlas?

A

No.

0-5 degrees of motion at the end range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

T/F: the movement at the AO joint occurs at the END RANGE OF MOTION.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Does axial rotation of the sub-axial cervical spine accompany lateral bending in the same or opposite direction as axial rotation?

A

Same.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

How many degrees of AO joint flexion/extension?

A

10 flex and 20 extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How many degrees of AO lateral bending?

A

0-5 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

How many degrees of AO joint rotation?

A

0-5 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

How many degrees of AA rotation to each side?

A

39-47 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

How many degrees of AA lateral bending?

A

0-5 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Normal cervical movement requires ________ motion.

A

Coupled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Coupled motion helps dissipate tension where?

A

In the joints and nervous system by offsetting purse lateral flexion or rotation with small movements in the x, y, and z axes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

When a joint misaligns in an uncoupled fashion we, as chiros, might call that?

A

Subluxation

Uncoupled misalignments are difficult to adapt to biomechanically and neurologically.

102
Q

Spinal cord extends from the atlas to where?

A

L2-L3

103
Q

The average length of the cord is?

A

40-45cm or 18 inches

104
Q

What three membranes surround the cord?

A

Pia mater
Arachnoid mater
Dura mater

105
Q

What is the space between the dura mater and the vertebral canal?

A

Epidural space (for veins)

106
Q

The CSF is contained between which two layers?

A

Between the arachnoid mater and pia mater (aka subarachnoid space)

107
Q

The pia mater adheres to what?

A

The spinal cord and its vascularity

108
Q

T/F: The dentate ligaments strong enough to deform the cord.

A

True, they can scar both the white and grey matter.

109
Q

T/F: Osseous misalignments are large enough to cause mechanical irritation to the spinal
cord.

A

True.

110
Q

Attachments between the ligamentum nuchae and RCPMi and the dura occur between what vertebrae?

A

C0-C1 (RCPmi)

C1-C2 (Ligamentum nuchae)

111
Q

Where is the Cranial durae matris spinalis ligament?

A

Fibrous strands between the dura and the posterior border of the AO-joint, the edge of the foramen magnum, the atlas posterior arch and the base of the spinous process and lamina of axis

112
Q

T/F: The muscles that are associated with the cervical dural sleeve (suboccipital muscles) may work as a pump providing important force required to move CSF in the spinal canal.

A

True

113
Q

T/F : The ligamentum nuchae contains a dense fibrous band that connects with the
dura mater at the C1/C2 level.

A

True

114
Q

What is the name of the dense fibrous band connecting the ligamentum nuchae to the dura mater at the C1/C2 level?

A

“to be named ligament”

115
Q

What is the ligament called that runs from the posterior aspect of the cervical dura mater to the posterior wall of the spinal canal at the C1/C2 level.

A

Vertebrodural ligament

116
Q

T/F: The TBNL and VDL, firmly link the posterior aspect of the cervical dura mater to the posterior wall of the spinal canal and ligamentum nuchae.

A

True

117
Q

T/F: The spinal dura is innervated and a source of pain.

A

True

118
Q

A C0/C1/C2 subluxation can put tension on which ligaments?

A

Vertebrodural ligament
Cranial durae matris spinalis ligament
To Be Named Ligament

119
Q

What happens to the spinal cord in flexion? What causes this?

A

Elongates and flattens. 30mm (approx. 1inch) change between extension to
flexion.

Dentate ligaments pull laterally, flattening the cord (Poisson’s effect)

120
Q

What is Davis’ Law?

A

Soft tissue deforms according to imposed demands. Sustained kinks and twists cause ligamentous creep, and ultimately cervical
instability and accelerated spondylosis.

121
Q

What is Wolff’s Law?

A

Hard tissue deforms according to imposed demands

122
Q

Can cervical spondylosis cause loss of nerve cells and gliosis and degeneration of the grey and white matter?

A

Yes, the dentate ligaments at the level of spondylosis are usually thicker (due to sustained tension)

Ligamentous tensions can cause spinal cord lesions.

123
Q

Traction on the spinal cord affects the nerve tracts by two means. Name them.

A

Direct mechanical irritation on the spinal cord.
Ischemia - closing veins of the cord producing stasis of blood in the cord with a loss of nutrients necessary to carry on the high energy reactions necessary for nerve conduction.

124
Q

How much pressure is needed to induce venous congestion and functional impairment?

A

5-10mm Hg

125
Q

What is the transverse diameter of the cord at C1?

A

12.5mm (0.5 in)

23mm diameter for the foramen

126
Q

*T/F: A 3 degree C1 misalignment (3mm or 1/8 of an inch) could deform the cord by 25% of its diameter.

A

True

127
Q

*Which ligaments were the most significant element in increasing tension requirements and SSEP alterations?

A

Dentate, short leg is on the side of dentate ligamental tension.

128
Q

*T/F: 0.75 degrees is the minimum to put stress on the cord.

A

True, also the minimum to having a subluxation.

129
Q

*Under normal conditions the maximum AP movement of the upper cervical spinal cord in the sagittal plan is about?

A

4mm, this causes shortening of the dentate ligaments.

130
Q

*Grostic found the lateral deviation of the cord, due to shortening of the dentate ligaments to be what?

A

0.5mm, this is normal movement.

131
Q

T/F: Traction on the cord by subluxations are smaller than those produced by normal movement.

A

False, traction on the cord by subluxations are LARGER than those produced by normal movement.

132
Q

When a nerve is under 6% tension, it reduces the action potential by what amount within 1 hour?

A

70% reduction

133
Q

Mild Leg length inequality has been associated with which 3 orthopedic disorders?

A

Stress fracture
Low back pain
Osteoarthritis

134
Q

The trigeminocervical nucleus descends down to what cervical level?

A

C3-C4

135
Q

Trigeminal nerve afferents and cervical C1-C2-C3 afferents converge where?

A

Trigeminocervical nucleus

136
Q

T/F: Upper cervical subluxation has a negative effect on the glymphatic system

A

True

137
Q

What does the glymphatic system do?

A

Delivers interstitial solutes and metabolic waste products from deep brain
tissues to the body’s lymphatic and venous circulation for clearance.

Conducts CSF though the deep brain tissue and removes cellular waste products, to the body’s venous circulation.

Provides immune surveillance

138
Q

T/F: Its possible that disturbance in the glymphatic system and reduced jugular vein
outflow has a connection to the pathogenesis of MS.

A

True

139
Q

The structure and movement of what anatomical structure may create impedance to intracranial fluid dynamics by occluding the jugular vein?

A

Upper cervical spine

140
Q

Mandolesi has demonstrated a significant increased incidence of severe anterior intrusion of the internal jugular vein by what structure?

A

C1-C2

Mandolesi also showed reduction of jugular intrusion after a UC adjustment.

141
Q

What structures exit the jugular foramen?

A

CN IX, X, XI, and the jugular vein

142
Q

T/F: Subluxation of the upper cervical spine alters intracranial fluid dynamics and
can lead to neurodegenerative conditions.

A

True

143
Q

T/F : UC corrections have been shown to be helpful in treating depression

A

True

144
Q

T/ F : Spinal cord dimensions and volume in a living being is less than that of a cadaver.

A

True, see Choi and Abrahams Surgical Radiological Anatomy 1996 Study - Spinal cord dimensions increase with embalming

145
Q

The Tucker study in the Journal of Bone and Joint Surgery concluded that at the extreme physiological axial rotation (approx. 47 degrees), the spinal canal was reduced by ____%

A

61% reduction

146
Q

In the Tucker study in the Journal, it was determined that an atlanto-axial subluxation of up to _____mm would reduce the area of the spinal canal, in neutral position, to _____%.

A

9mm; 60%

147
Q

T/F: The perception of every positive or negative physical phenomenon is governed by receptors of various types.

A

True

148
Q

What are the three functional divisions of the nerve system?

A

Sensory
Integration
Motor

149
Q

Which two receptor types play a vital role in all functional divisions of the nervous system?

A

Nociceptors and mechanoreceptors

150
Q

How to mechanoreceptors activate?

A

Mechanical deformation

151
Q

T/F: Skin, muscles, joints, and visceral organs all contain mechanoreceptors.

A

True

152
Q

Mechanoreceptors covey _____ and _____ to the neuroaxis.

A

Tactile sensations; position sense

153
Q

What are the 2 categories of position sense?

A

Static position

Kinesthesia

154
Q

Define Static Position.

A

The conscious awareness of the orientation of different parts of the body with respect to each other.

155
Q

Define kinestheisa.

A

The conscious awareness of body position and movement of muscles, tendons, joints

156
Q

T/F : Mechanoreceptors make the brain aware of detailed information regarding the position and movement of each body part within a gravity environment.

A

True

157
Q

What type of receptor provides information to the neuroaxis about the body’s relationship to the HORIZON?

A

Optic receptors

158
Q

What informs the brain of the heads position, and works to keep it perpendicular with the ground by altering the tone of the cervical muscles?

A

Vestibular apparatus

159
Q

It appears that small deviations of the skull, as little as ___ degrees, are detected by the membranous labyrinth.

A

0.5 degrees

160
Q

T/F : The eyes play a more significant role in determining the position of the head in space when there is extreme head tilt.

A

True

161
Q

Which two condition (in general) can result from a disturbance in the integration of afferent signals between the visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive (mechanoreceptor) systems?

A

Vertigo

Dizziness

162
Q

Guyton states that the most important proprioceptive information required for the maintenance of equilibrium comes from?

A

Cervical joint receptors

163
Q

In 1994 Spine Journal, McLain found that there were in fact mechanoreceptors in the cervical facet joints. And that the mechanical state of the capsule was under the constant surveillance of?

A

The central nervous system

164
Q

T /F : Human supraspinal and intraspinal ligaments are not innervated.

A

False, according the Jiang, Spinal Journal 1995, they are well innervated.

165
Q

This type of corpuscle is a slowly adapting end organ that is sensitive to static motion, especially to stretch and provides awareness of joint position and movement. They are very common in articulations where static position sense is necessary for the control of posture.

A

Ruffini corpuscles

166
Q

T / F: Mechanoreceptors have been found in the outer 2-3 lamellae of the human IVD and ALL.

A

True, according to Roberts, Spine Journal 1995, these provided the individual with sensations of posture and movement.

167
Q

Indahl, Kaigle, Reikeras Spine 1995 found that if the annulus fibrosis of the IVD was stimulated it caused reactions in the multifidus on multiple levels on which side? With stimulation of the facet joint capsule, which side were reactions on?

A

Stimulating the annulus reactivates the multifidi on the contralateral side at many segmental levels.

Stimulating the facet capsule reactivates the multifidi on the ipsilateral side on the same level.

168
Q

According to Bogduk Spine 1999, the cervical annulus is thick ___(anteriorly or posteriorly)_____ and tapers laterally and is deficient _____(anterorlaterally or posterorlateraly)______.

A

Anteriorly; posteriolaterally

169
Q

Bogduk described the architecture of the cervical annulus as a _______ _______ _____ ____ more than a ring of fibers surrounding the nucleus pulposis (like lumbar disc).

A

Crescentric anterior intervertebral ligament

170
Q

At birth the cervical nucleus constitutes no more than ____% of the cervical disc.

A

25%

171
Q

At birth the lumbar nucleus constitutes no more than ____% of the lumbar disc.

A

50%

172
Q

T/F: Cervical herniated nucleus pulposus can be managed successfully with UC-care.

A

True

173
Q

T /F: The thoracic and lumbar spine have more mechanoreceptors than the cervical spine.

A

False, according to McLain, Pickar study, Spine 1998

174
Q

T/F: Mobility of a joint and number of mechanoreceptors are directly related.

A

True

175
Q

The predominance of receptors in the cervical spine is consistent with its _____ mobility, the need to accurately position the _____ in space, and the need for coordinated muscle control for _____ and ______.

A

The predominance of receptors in the cervical spine is consistent with its GREATER mobility, the need to accurately position the HEAD in space, and the need for coordinated muscle control for PROTECTION and POSTURE.

176
Q

There are 4 types of articular receptors, most of which are what type?

A

Type 1, Ruffini receptors, low threshold and slow to adapt. They signal the angle of joints through the ROM, stretch.

177
Q

T/F: Type 1 Ruffini receptors are active at rest and with movement.

A

True

178
Q

Type II receptors are ______ threshold and _____ adapt. When are they activated?

A

Type II receptors are LOW threshold and RAPIDLY adapt.

Type II, Pacinian, receptors are activated at the beginning and end of movement.

179
Q

Type III receptors are _____ threshold, and ______ adapting. They are only activated at the ______ of joint movement. They are structurally similar to the ____ in the muscular system.

A

Type III receptors are HIGH threshold, and SLOWLY adapting. They are only activated at the EXTREMITIES of joint movement. They are structurally similar to the GOLGI TENDON ORGANS in the muscular system.

180
Q

Type IV receptors are ______ threshold and _________ adapting.

A

Type IV receptors are HIGH threshold and NON-adapting.

181
Q

What tract do Ruffini mechanorecptors transmit over?

A

Spinocerebellar tracts to the ipsilateral cerebellum.

182
Q

What is the most numerous mechanoreceptors?

A

Type 1: Ruffini

183
Q

What are the most active mechanoreceptors?

A

Type 1: Ruffini, active during static joint motion.

184
Q

What tract do Pacinian mechanoreceptors transmit over?

A

Dorsal column-medial lemiscus to the contralateral thalamus

185
Q

What type of mechanoreceptors is the golgi tendon organ?

A

Type III mechanoreceptor

186
Q

This is the mechanoreceptor for pain.

A

Type IV - high threshold, non-adapting, normally inactive

187
Q

According to Kulkarni-Chandy-Babu, Neurology India 2001, which suboccipital muscle has the greatest spindle density?

A

Obliquus capitus inferior, 242gm

188
Q

T or F: Suboccipital muscles have GTOs.

A

False.

189
Q

The high spindle density and lack of GTO’s indicates what about these muscles?

A

That they are not suited for movement, but for monitoring craniovertebral position and movement and sending afferent input into the neuroaxis.

Suboccipital muscles MONITOR but don’t MOVE the CCJ.

GTO sense muscle tension from contraction… when contraction is too much the GTO activates and inhibits further contraction. Pressing Tendons/GTO’s toward
the O/I inhibits the muscle reflexively.

190
Q

T /F: Muscles involved in delicate Vernier movements may require a signal that has a finer resolution than muscles subserving coarser movements, and such high resolution will require many spindles.

A

True, according to Bakker and Richmond study.

191
Q

Where does virtually all sensory information from somatic segments of the body enter the spinal cord?

A

Dorsal spinal nerve roots

192
Q

What are the 4 main pathways sensory information is conveyed up into the neuroaxis?

A
  • Dorsal column-lemniscal system (fasciculus gracilis and cuneatus)
  • Spinocervical tract
  • Spinocerebellar tract (dorsal and ventral - cuneocerebellar and rostral spinocerebellar)
  • Anteriolateral (spinothalamic & spinoreticular)
193
Q

Mechanoreception enters the dorsal root & synapses with what part of the cord?

A

Dorsal white columns

194
Q

Each proprioceptive fiber divides to form how many branches?

A

2, the medial and the lateral

195
Q

The medial branch turns upwards into what two pathways?

A

Fasciculus Gracilis & Faciculus Cutneatus

196
Q

T or F: The lateral branch proceeds laterally and anteriorly and divides many times and gives off one terminal to the spinal cord and gray matter.

A

False, it gives off MULTIPLE terminals.

197
Q

Some of the lateral branch terminals elicit local spinal cord reflexes, while others excite relay neurons that give rise to the _______ and ______ tracts.

A

Spinocerebellar (ipsilateral); spinocervical

198
Q

DCLS carries _________ mechanoreceptive signals to the ______of the medulla.

A

DCLS carries IPSILATERAL mechanoreceptive signals to the NUCLEUS GRACILIS & NUCLEUS CUNEATUS of the medulla.

199
Q

At the level of the nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus in the medulla, second order neurons cross over to the opposite side and travel to the _______ by way of the medial lemniscus.

A

At the level of the nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus in the medulla, second order neurons cross over to the opposite side and travel to the THALAMUS by way of the medial lemniscus.

200
Q

The most medially placed fibers in the fasciculus gracilus arise from where?

A

The coccygeal dorsal roots

201
Q

The most laterally placed fibers in the fasciculus gracilus arise from where?

A

The mid thoracic segments

202
Q

The most medially placed fibers in the faciculus cuneatus arise from where?

A

The mid thoracic segments

203
Q

The most laterally placed fibers in the faciculus cunetus arise from where?

A

From the C2 dorsal roots

204
Q

Which tract is more medial in the cord? Fasciculus gracilus or cunetus?

A

Gracilus

205
Q

The spinocervical tract functions in close association with what system?

A

DCLS: transmits signals from rapidly adapting receptors Pacinian and Meissner corpuscles

Spinocervical tract is considered an accessory tract

206
Q

Pacinian and Meissner corpuscles are low threshold and rapidly adapting receptors that convey what types of sensation?

A

DCML: Fine touch, 2-point discrimination, pressure, vibration, stereognosis and some proprioception related to body position.

207
Q

Which two tracts transmit low threshold slow adapting position sense signals?

A

Spinocervical and spinocerebellar

208
Q

Which two tracks play an important role in the coordination of locomotion and position sense transmission from the periphery to the cerebellum.

A

Spinocerebellar tract

Cuneocerebellar tract

209
Q

The dorsal spinocerebellar tract (DSCT) originates where?

A

Sacral, lumbar and thoracic segments of Clarks nucleus in the gray matter from C8-L3

210
Q

Describe the pathway of the dorsal spinocerebellar tract?

A

Neuro muscular spindle –> dorsal root ganglion –> dorsal white matter –> Clark’s nucleus –> spinocerebellar tract –> cerebellum

211
Q

Secondary afferent fibers from Nucleus dorsalis of Clarke enter the dorsal spinocerebelar tract and ascend ________ up to the brainstem.

A

Secondary afferent fibers from Nucleus dorsalis of Clarke enter the dorsal spinocerebelar tract and ascend IPSILATERALLY up to the brainstem.

212
Q

The spinocerebellar fibers are organized such that the most caudal fibers lie _________ & the most rostral fibers lie _________ in the tract.

A

The spinocerebellar fibers are organized such that the most caudal fibers lie LATERAL & the most rostral fibers lie MEDIAL in the tract.

213
Q

The DSCT terminates where?

A

Ipsilateral cerebellum

214
Q

What is the DSCT transmitting?

A

Unconscious proprioception from muscle spindles and other mechanoreceptors (GTO)

215
Q

The afferent input from the DSCT informs the cerebellum of the instantenous status of what 4 things?

A

Muscle contraction and length (via muscle spindles)
Tension on the muscle tendons (golgi tendon organs)
Positions and rate of movement for joints and body parts
Forces on the surface of the body

216
Q

T/F: The cerebellum can compare afferent input and efferent output from higher motor centers in order to influence movement and performance.

A

True

217
Q

Which tract enters the cerebellum through the superior cerebellar peduncle and terminates on BOTH sides of the cerebellum?

A

Ventral spinocerebellar tract.

218
Q

Where does the spinocerebellar tract enter and terminate in the skull?

A

Enters through the inferior cerebellar peduncle and terminates in the cerebellum ipsilaterally

219
Q

T/F: the VSCT has only crossed fibers?

A

False, the ventral spinocerebellar tract has crossed AND uncrossed.

220
Q

T/F: Many of the decussating fibers of the VSCT cross again as they reach the cerebellum.

A

True

221
Q

What primarily excites the VSCT?

A

Motor signals from the corticospinal and rubrospinal(upper extremity flexors) tracts that appraise the cerebellum that the motor signals have arrived at the cord, and the intensity of the signals as well.

This is how the cerebellum can compare afferent input and motor out from higher (cortical) brain centers.

222
Q

Which pathways have the most rapid conduction velocity in the entire neuroaxis?

A

Spinocerebellar tracts at 100meters/second.

This speed is necessary for the cerebellum to have instantenous information of the
changes that take place in the body.

223
Q

Which two tracts relay proprioceptive information from the cervical dorsal roots?

A

Cuneocerebellar and rostral spinocerebellar tract.

The VSCT and DSCT range from C8-L3.

224
Q

The cuneocerebellar and rostral spinocerebellar tracts transmit ________ to the cerebellum.

A

The cuneocerebellar and rostral spinocerebellar tracts transmit IPSILATERALLY to the cerebellum.

Ipsilaterally via the fasciculus cuneatus>caudal medulla>accessory cuneate nucleus

Rostral spinocerebellar tract runs roughly with the VSCT

225
Q

The cerebellum constitutes what % of the brain?

A

10%

226
Q

What part of the neuroaxis has the most neurons?

A

The cerebellum

This is due in part to the fact that we live in a gravity environment.

227
Q

It has been suggested that afferent input to the cerebellum exceeds efferent by a ratio of?

A

40 to 1

Afferent > Efferent

Sensory input more important for proper nerve system

228
Q

T/F : All sensory afferent information is summated in the thalamus.

A

False, all but olfactory

229
Q

T/F: All sensory afferent information is integrated in the thalamus.

A

False, all but olfactory

230
Q

The vertebral artery supplies blood to every cranial nerve except for which nerve?

A

CN 1 (Olfactory)

231
Q

Cortical firing is dependent on what?

A

Thalamic summation and integration

232
Q

What are the two types of thalamic summation?

A

Spatial and temporal

233
Q

Describe spatial summation

A

Increasing the INTENSITY of transmission into the neuroaxis by
USING MORE NERVE FIBERS. Increasing SPACE for more nerve fibers.

234
Q

Describe temporal summation.

A

Increase in the STRENGTH of transmission into the neuroaxis by sending MORE IMPULSES PER FIBER. Tempo-drumming-one hand-one fiber- with more TEMPO

235
Q

What is Thalamic integration?

A

The routing of afferent input to the appropriate region of the cerebral cortex.

236
Q

T/F: The sensory signals are filtered along the synaptic relay stations so that the incoming cortical messages have been previously fine-tuned.

A

True

This helps prevent an efferent impulse response from each and every afferent input. The brain discards >99% of all incoming sensory information as being irrelevant and unimportant.

237
Q

What does the Thalamic Neuron Theory postulate?

A

That the CNS is involved in all disease processes.

As it handles all incoming and outgoing signals in order to maintain homoeostatis.

Lee, Theoretical basis for the role played by the CNS in the causes and cures of
all diseases: Medical Hypothesis 1994

238
Q

T/F : Stretching a single lateral ligament of the spine can produce a barrage of sensory feedback from several spinal cord levels on both sides of the spinal cord.

A

True

This information is transferred via the dorsal columns and spinocerebellar tracts to higher levels in the brain including the nucleus gracilis, nucleus cuneatus, vestibular nuclei and thalamus. (Spine 1997 Jiang)

239
Q

T/F: Proprioceptive neck afferents have no effect on the control of posture, head position, or eye movements.

A

False, they do via rostral (rostral spinocerebellar) cervical afferents synapse with pre-cerebellar, vestibulospinal, and preoculo-motor neurons.

240
Q

T/F: A small percentage (8%) of the neck responsive neurons in the medulla were shown to project rostrally to the thalamus.

A

True, according to Bolton, Brain Research 1992

241
Q

Muscle afferent input may converge with the cardiorespiratory receptor input and facilitate the release of Substance P in the Nucleus tractus solitarii (NTS). What does substance P do?

A

Substance P is involved in mediating central autonomic neurotransmission and nociceptive and non-nociceptive stimuli in the spinal pathways.

242
Q

The NTS (nucleus tractus solitarii) collects and transmits what type of afferent input

A

Viscerosensory

It’s a vagal nerve nuclei

243
Q

Viscerosensory input to the NTS affects visceral output through the …

A

Dorsal motor nucleus of vagus (DMNV)

244
Q

T/F : Visceral motor output has been shown to affect the immune system and host resistance.

A

So muscle afferent input affects immune system and host resistance.

245
Q

T/F : Spinal subluxation can affect the firing of paraspinal muscles, which distorts afferentiation into the neuroaxis. The adjustment improve afferentation to the neuroaxis and may improve function of the NTS and resultant DMNV visceral output.

A

True

246
Q

T/F: Sensory information from the upper neck is important in the reflex control of posture and eye position.

A

True

247
Q

T/F: Sensory information from the upper neck is not linked to autonomic control of the cardiovascular or respiratory systems.

A

False, it is linked to these systems.

248
Q

T/F: Whiplash and cervical dystonia, due to the disturbance in afferentation in the cervical spine can cause oromotor, respiratory and cardiovascular abnormalities.

A

True

249
Q

What neural pathways are involved in this process?

A

Intermedius nucleus of the medulla (InM) receives afferent information from the
upper cervical spine and links to the respiratory, cardiovascular, postural, oro-
facial, hypoglossal nucleus, fascial and motor trigeminal nuclei, parabrachial
nuclei, rostral and caudal ventrolateral medulla and nucleus ambiguous (heart)

250
Q

The InM integrates information from the ____ and ___ and relays this information to the NTS where autonomic responses can be generated via the DMNV. It also projects to the hypoglossal nucleus to influence movements of the tongue and upper airway.

A

The InM integrates information from the HEAD and NECK and relays this information to the NTS where autonomic responses can be generated via the DMNV. It also projects to the hypoglossal nucleus to influence movements of the tongue and upper airway.

251
Q

T or F: Sensory afferent signals from the neck can influence central cardiorespiratory control as components of postural reflexes via the InM.

A

True

As the InM receives afferents from the neck muscles spindles and sends both excitatory and inhibitory signals to the NTS which then influences cardiorespiratory centers.