Module 5 Kelsey Chapter 8 Flashcards
Your client, who you are co-managing with your consulting physician, is 33 weeks and 4 days pregnant. She is admitted with premature labor, with a cervical exam of 2–3 cm/80%/–1, vertex, intact. She is currently on MgSO4 at 3.0 g/hour with occasional contractions. During rounds, she complains of feeling flushed and hot; lethargic; and short of breath, with this sensation usually getting better when she changes position. Which response would be best to address her complaints?
A) “The MgSO4 commonly makes you feel like this, but hopefully they will start weaning the medication today.”
B) “Well, because you are almost 34 weeks, I could ask the doctor if we can discontinue the medication now.”
C) “I do not think that you should be having shortness of breath; I am going to have the physician see you and order a chest radiograph.”
D) “Being a little uncomfortable is so much better than giving birth to a 33-week-old infant.”
C) “I do not think that you should be having shortness of breath; I am going to have the physician see you and order a chest radiograph.”
Shortness of breath is not a typical side effect of magnesium sulfate and should be investigated.
In the second stage of labor, how frequently should the blood pressure of low-risk women be checked?
A) Every 30 minutes
B) Every 2 minutes
C) Every 60 minutes
D) Every 15 minutes
D) Every 15 minutes
Blood pressure should be evaluated every 15 minutes in the second stage of labor for low-risk women.
Mrs. Hogan, a 37-year-old G4 P0 at 35 weeks, presents saying that she has been having bright red bleeding and clots for 2 hours since intercourse with her husband. She has saturated two pads in 2 hours. She is not having any pain. The most probable diagnosis is:
A) placenta previa.
B) cervical irritation from intercourse.
C) placental abruption.
D) normal bloody show.
A) placenta previa.
With placenta previa, painless vaginal bleeding occurs 70% to 80% of the time.
A client who is a G3 P2002 at 38 weeks presents with regular uterine contractions every 4 to 6 minutes for 60 seconds for the past 8 hours. Their vaginal exam is 2 cm/30%/–2, vertex with intact membranes. They are very uncomfortable with the contractions and declines discharge to home at this time. Your management plan at this time is to:
A) admit the client immediately.
B) have the client ambulate for 2 hours and then reassess the client.
C) contact the consulting physician for augmentation of labor.
D) defer to the client’s birth plan.
B) have the client ambulate for 2 hours and then reassess the client.
Ambulation for 2 hours allows the clinician to evaluate for cervical change (definition of labor). The client’s perception of need for admission to the birthing facility is also important in clinical decision making.
All of the following are risk factors for preterm labor except:
A) age.
B) smoking.
C) race.
D) sex of the fetus.
D) sex of the fetus.
The other risk factors—age, smoking, and race—are evidence-based risk factors for preterm labor. Research does not support sex of the fetus as a risk factor for preterm labor
When is the most optimal time to administer pudendal anesthesia for perineal pain relief in the multiparous client?
A) For the repair of any laceration or episiotomy
B) When the head distends the perineum and the client complains of the “ring of fire”
C) When the vertex is at +2
D) At approximately 8–9 cm dilated
D) At approximately 8–9 cm dilated
The optimal timing for administration of pudendal anesthesia is just before complete dilation in a multiparous client because it provides coverage for the birth as well as any repair needed.
The bluish discoloration of the baby’s hands and feet within the first 24–48 hours after birth is:
A) acrocyanosis.
B) circumoral cyanosis.
C) central cyanosis.
D) Mongolian spots.
A) acrocyanosis.
Bluish discoloration of the baby’s hands and feet, known as acrocyanosis, is normal in the first 24–48 hours after birth.
Your client is in active labor and is making appropriate progress. Currently, their exam is 6 cm/100%/2, vertex with intact membranes. During your exam, you notice the position of the vertex is LOT and the sagittal suture of the fetus is closer to the maternal sacrum. Your diagnosis at this time is:
A) deep transverse pelvic arrest.
B) anterior asynclitism.
C) failure to descend.
D) posterior asynclitism.
B) anterior asynclitism.
Anterior asynclitism is noted when the sagittal suture is closer to the sacrum.
The benefit of placing an internal scalp electrode on a fetus in labor is:
A) the ability to have a continuous tracing when external monitoring is insufficient.
B) the ability to detect decelerations.
C) that it keeps the client in bed.
D) the ability to assess variability.
A) the ability to have a continuous tracing when external monitoring is insufficient.
An internal scalp electrode allows for accurate, continuous fetal monitoring when an external monitor is not producing a reliable continuous tracing.
The following is the clinical picture of your client. She is a G1 P0 at 39 weeks with an uncomplicated pregnancy. Her labor started at 4:00 a.m. with regular contractions. She was admitted at 8:00 a.m., when her exam was 2–3 cm/100%/–2 station, vertex, membranes intact.
At 12:00 p.m., her exam was 3–4 cm/100%/–2, intact.
At 4:00 p.m., her exam was 4 cm/100%/–2, intact.
At 7:30 p.m., her exam was 5–6 cm/100%/–1, intact. At 8:15 p.m., she ruptured membranes, producing light meconium-stained fluid.
At 10:00 p.m., her exam was 8 cm/100%/0 station.
At 10:00 p.m., the client requests something for pain because she states that the pain is intolerable now and she is feeling increased pelvic pressure.
What would not be indicated for pain relief at this time?
A) Epidural anesthesia
B) Intravenous opioids
C) Pudendal anesthesia
D) Paracervical block
B) Intravenous opioids
Intravenous opioids should not be used when birth is anticipated within an hour because of the risk for respiratory depression in the newborn.
The process of involution takes place over which of the following time frames?
A) The first 6 weeks postpartum
B) The first 24 hours postpartum
C) The first 2 weeks postpartum
D) The first year postpartum
A) The first 6 weeks postpartum
Normal postpartum involution takes a full 6 weeks to be complete.
In the initial newborn period, a 10-minute Apgar score is performed:
A) routinely.
B) if the 1-minute Apgar score is less than 7.
C) if the 5-minute Apgar score is less than 7.
D) if the combined Apgar score at 1 and 5 minutes is less than 16.
C) if the 5-minute Apgar score is less than 7.
Apgar scores are performed routinely at 1 and at 5 minutes, with a 10-minute Apgar scoring usually performed only if the 5-minute Apgar score is less than 7.
When an IUPC is used for the assessment of uterine contractions, the adequacy is quantified:
A) in mm of mercury.
B) as mild, moderate, and strong.
C) in mVu.
D) in cm.
C) in mVu.
Whereas the IUPC quantifies the strength of the contractions in millimeters of mercury, adequacy is determined by the average number of mVu over a 10-minute period.
Which of the following would not be included in the differential diagnosis of premature labor?
A) Urinary tract infection
B) Appendicitis
C) Renal colic
D) Heartburn
D) Heartburn
he other conditions—urinary tract infection, appendicitis, and renal colic—may mimic the signs and symptoms of preterm labor, whereas heartburn does not.
Your client, who is 41 weeks and 5 days pregnant, presents for postdates testing, including an NST. When you assess the tracing after 20 minutes, the FHR is 140–145 bpm, there are no decelerations, and the variability is moderate, but the tracing does not meet criteria for reactivity. What would you do?
A) Admit the client and induce labor.
B) Begin a contraction stress test.
C) Use the vibroacoustic stimulator.
D) Continue the NST for another 20 minutes.
D) Continue the NST for another 20 minutes.
The fetus has sleep/wake cycles, so nonreactivity may be due to fetal sleep. Extending the time of the test is common practice to account for this possibility.
Which of the following sequences represents the cardinal movements of labor and birth for the occiput anterior position?
A) Flexion, descent, internal rotation, extension, restitution, external rotation
B) Descent, flexion, extension, internal rotation, external rotation, restitution
C) Descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, restitution, external rotation
D) Descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation, restitution
C) Descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, restitution, external rotation
The cardinal movements of labor are descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, restitution, and external rotation.
Ryan Jones, a G3 P2002 at 37 weeks and 1 day, presents to the labor and delivery service with regular contractions every 2 to 3 minutes for 5 hours. Your vaginal exam reveals 6 cm/100%/–2, LSA with ruptured membranes positive for light meconium. What is your next step?
A) Admit the client for expectant management.
B) Discuss the birth plan with the client.
C) Await a reactive tracing before making a management plan.
D) Notify the consulting physician and prepare for a cesarean section.
D) Notify the consulting physician and prepare for a cesarean section.
LSA indicates that the fetus is in breech presentation. At 6 cm, delivery is not imminent; thus a cesarean birth is indicated.
The definition of postpartum hemorrhage is blood loss:
A) that causes the patient to be hemodynamically symptomatic.
B) in excess of 750 mL during the entire labor.
C) of more than 500 mL after a cesarean section.
D) of 750 mL or more after the third stage of labor.
A) that causes the patient to be hemodynamically symptomatic.
The current definition of PPH is excessive, delivery-related blood loss that causes the patient to be hemodynamically symptomatic and/or hypovolemic (Gabbe et al., 2017).
Mothers in premature labor are given glucocorticosteroids to:
A) help stop the uterine contractions.
B) prevent infections, especially chorioamnionitis.
C) speed the maturation of the fetal respiratory system, including the production of surfactant.
D) prevent the muscle wasting commonly seen in patients on bed rest.
C) speed the maturation of the fetal respiratory system, including the production of surfactant.
A client is seen in labor and delivery at 33 weeks and 1 day complaining of menstrual-type cramping for the past 3 hours. She denies bleeding or ruptured membranes. The fetus is active. The EFM reveals occasional uterine contractions approximately every 8–12 minutes. The FHR is 135–140 bpm. Which of the following tests would be most important in formulating your management plan?
A) Complete blood count
B) Cervical culture
C) Urine culture
D) Ultrasound
C) Urine culture
A urinary tract infection can mimic—and is a risk factor for—preterm labor.
What is the largest group of muscles in the pelvic musculature?
A) Levator ani
B) Pubococcygeus
C) Bulbocavernosus
D) Sphincter ani
A) Levator ani
Infants born to mothers with gestational diabetes are at increased risk for:
A) hypothermia.
B) IUGR.
C) hyperglycemia.
D) shoulder dystocia.
D) shoulder dystocia.
A client is seen in labor and delivery at 33 weeks and 4 days reporting menstrual-type cramping for the past 5 hours. She denies bleeding or ruptured membranes. The fetus is active. The EFM reveals occasional uterine contractions approximately every 8–12 minutes. The FHR is 120–140 bpm. What would be the next step in your management plan for this patient?
A) Expectant management until the lab results are back
B) Tocolysis
C) Pain management
D) Additional information is necessary to formulate the management plan.
D) Additional information is necessary to formulate the management plan.
In the first stage of labor for low-risk laboring women, the interval for intermittent FHR auscultation is:
A) 15 minutes.
B) 20 minutes.
C) 30 minutes.
D) 60 minutes.
C) 30 minutes.
What is the major risk of multifetal gestation?
A) Eclampsia
B) Gestational diabetes
C) Cephalopelvic disproportion
D) Preterm birth
D) Preterm birth
If a nuchal arm is encountered during an assisted breech birth, what should you do?
A) Exert steady downward traction on the entire fetus.
B) Slowly rotate the infant 180 degrees to attempt to dislodge the arm.
C) Raise the baby in a warm towel above the plane of the vagina.
D) Sweep the arm down by hooking the elbow and pulling the arm down.
D) Sweep the arm down by hooking the elbow and pulling the arm down.
It is important to remain calm and guide the arm in a physiologic range of motion.
The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is:
A) sulcus tears.
B) episiotomy extensions to third- and fourth-degree lacerations.
C) uterine atony.
D) cervical lacerations.
C) uterine atony.
With internal monitoring of uterine contractions, which of the following levels must be achieved in the course of 10 minutes to be considered adequate contractile strength to dilate the cervix?
A) 80–100 mVu
B) 80–100 mm Hg
C) 200–250 mVu
D) 200–250 mm Hg
C) 200–250 mVu
Adequate contraction strength is indicated by 200–250 mVu over a 10-minute period.
Your client is in active labor and is making appropriate progress. Currently, their exam is 6 cm/100%/2, vertex with intact membranes. During your exam, you notice the position of the vertex is LOT and the sagittal suture of the fetus is closer to the maternal sacrum. On the fetal monitor strip, you notice the FHR has intermittently been 100–110 bpm for 20–30 seconds at a time for the past 10–15 minutes with good return to the baseline of 140 bpm. You would document this as:
A) variable decelerations.
B) late decelerations.
C) fetal bradycardia.
D) You cannot determine how to document from this information.
A) variable decelerations.
Variable decelerations are abrupt in nature with a decrease in FHR from a baseline of ≥ 15 bpm lasting ≥ 15 seconds but < 2 minutes.
Moderate variability of the FHR is a change of how many beats per minute from the baseline?
A) Fewer than 2 bpm
B) 2–6 bpm
C) 6–25 bpm
D) > 25 bpm
C) 6–25 bpm