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microbio > Module 5 > Flashcards

Module 5 Flashcards

1
Q

The study of disease, especially structural and functional changes that result from disease process.

A

Pathology

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2
Q

The study of relationships between the various factors that determine the frequency and distribution of diseases.

A

Epidemiology

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3
Q

A disease that is caused by a pathogen

A

Infectious Disease

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4
Q

If the infectious disease is transmissible from one human to another

A

Communicable Disease

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5
Q

A communicable disease that is easily transmitted from one person to another

A

Contagious Disease

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6
Q

Infectious Disease that humans acquire from animal sources

A

Zoonotic Disease

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7
Q

Number of new cases of that disease in a defined population during a specific time period

A

Incidence of a Particular Disease

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8
Q

The number of new cases of a particular disease that occured during a specified time period per a specifically defined population

A

Morbidity Rate

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9
Q

Identify the type of Prevalence

The number of cases of the disease existing in a given population during a specific time period

A

Period Prevalence

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10
Q

Identify the type of Prevalence

the number of cases of the disease existing in a given population at a particular moment in time

A

Point Prevalence

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11
Q

The ratio of the number of people who died of a particular disease during specified time period per a specified population

A

Mortality Rate

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12
Q

It occurs only occasionally within the population of a particular geographic area

A

Sporadic Disease

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13
Q

A disease that is always present within the population of a particular geographic area

A

Endemic Disease

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14
Q

A disease occuring in a higher than usual number of cases in a population during a given time interval

A

Epidemic Disease

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15
Q

A disease that is occuring in epidemic proportions in many countries simultaneously - sometimes worldwide

A

Pandemic Disease

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16
Q

Identify 3

Factors pertaining to the pathogen

A
  1. Virulence of the pathogen
  2. way for the pathogen to enter the body
  3. number of organisms that enter the body
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17
Q

The person who may become infected

A

Host

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18
Q

Identify 3

Factors pertaining to the Host

A
  1. Health Status
  2. Nutritional Status
  3. Other factors pertaining to the succeptibility of the host
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19
Q

Give 4

Factors pertaining to the environment

A
  1. Physical Factors
  2. Availability of appropriate reservoirs
  3. Sanitary and housing conditions
  4. Availability of potable water
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20
Q

Give 6

Components in the Infectious Disease Process

A
  1. There must be a pathogen
  2. There must be a source of pathogen
  3. There must be a portal of exit
  4. There must be a mode of transmission
  5. There must be a portal of entry
  6. There must be a susceptible host
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21
Q

Any site where the pathogen can multiply or merely survive until it is transferred to a host. It could be a living host or inanimate objects or materials.

A

Reservoir

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22
Q

A person who is colonized with a particular pathogen but the pathogen is not currently causing disase in that person

A

Carrier

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23
Q

Identify which type of Carrier

Carry the pathogen without ever having had the disease

A

Passive Carrier

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24
Q

Identify which type of Carrier

A person who is capable of transmitting a pathogen during the incubation period of a particular infectious disease

A

Incubatory Carrier

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25
Q

Identify which type of Carrier

Harbor and can transmit a particular pathogen while recovering from an infectious disease

A

Convalescent Carrier

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26
Q

Identify which type of Carrier

Have completely recovered from the disease, but continue to harbor the pathogen indefinitely

A

Active Carrier

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27
Q

Give 5

Non-living Reservoirs

A
  1. Air
  2. Dust
  3. Food and Milk
  4. Water
  5. Fomites
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28
Q

Give 7

Ways how infectious diseases are transmitted from person-person

A
  1. Direct skin to skin contact
  2. Direct mucous membrane to mucous membrane contact
  3. Indirectly by airborne droplets of respiratory secretions
  4. Indirectly by contamination of food and water by fecal material
  5. Indirectly by arthropod vector
  6. Indirectly by fomites that become contaminated by respiratory secretions, blood, urine, feces, vomitus or exudates from hospotalized patients
  7. Indirectly by transfusion of contaminated blood or blood products from an ill person by a parenteral injection
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29
Q

Identify the route of transmission or entry of this disease

Chickepox, colds, influenza, measles, staph and streph infections

also identify the route of Exit

A

skin discharge -> air -> respiratory tract

route of exit: Skin

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30
Q

Identify the route of transmission or entry of this disease

Impetigo, eczema, boils, warts, syphilis

also identify the route of exit

A

Skin to skin

route of exit: skin

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31
Q

Identify the route of transmission or entry of this disease

Colds, influenza, pneumonia, mumps, measles, chickenpox, tuberculosisa

also identify the route of exit

A
  • Aerosol drop inhalation
  • Nose or mouth - > hand or object - > nose

route od exit: Respiratory

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32
Q

Identify the route of transmission or entry of this disease

Gastroenteritis, hepatitis, salmonellosis, shigellosis, typhoid fever, cholera, giardasis, amoebiasis

also identify thr route of exit

A
  • Feces - > hand -> Mouth
  • Stool -> soil, food
  • Water - > Mouth

Route of exit: Gastorintestinal

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33
Q

Identify the route of transmission or entry of this disease

Herpes, cold sore, infectious monocleosis, strep throat

Also identify the route of exit

A

Direct Salivary transfer

Route of Exit: Salivary

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34
Q

Identify the route of transmission or entry of this disease

Gonorrhea, herpes, Chlamydia infection, Cytomegalovirus infection, AIDS, syphilis, wartsa

also identify the route of exit

A
  • Urethral of cervical secretions
  • Semen

Route of exit: Genital Secretions

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35
Q

Identify the route of transmission or entry of this disease

Hepatitis B, cytomegalovirus infection, malaria, AIDS, Malaria relapsing fever

also identify the route of exit

A
  • Transfusion of needlestick injury
  • insect bite

route of exit: blood

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36
Q

Identify the route of transmission or entry of this disease

Rabies

Also identify the route of exit

A

Animal bite

route of exit: Zoonotic

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37
Q

Identify the route of transmission or entry of this disease

Tuleramia, anthrax

Also identify the route of exit

A

Contact with animal carcasses

Route of exit: Zoonotic

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38
Q

Identify the route of transmission or entry of this disease

Rocky mountain spotted fever, Lyme Disease, typhus, viral encephalitis, yellow fever, malaria, plague

A

Arthropod

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39
Q

Identify the vehicle for the following Diseases

Comphylobacter jejuni (bacterium)

A

Chickens

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40
Q

Identify the vehicle for the following Diseases

Cryptosporidium parvum (protozoan)

A

Drinking Water

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41
Q

Identify the vehicle for the following Diseases

Cyclospora cayetanesis (protozoan)

A

Drinking Water, raspberries

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42
Q

Identify the vehicle for the following Diseases

E. coli O15:H7 (bacterium)

A

Meats, produce contaminated by manure in growing fields (e.g. sprouts), drinking water

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43
Q

Identify the vehicle for the following Diseases

Giardia lamblia (aka Giardia intestinalis) (protozoan)

A

Drinking water

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44
Q

Identify the vehicle for the following Diseases

Listeria monocytogenes (bacterium)

A

Soft cheese and deli meats

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45
Q

Identify the vehicle for the following Diseases

Salmoella enteriditis (bacterium)

A

Eggs

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46
Q

Identify the vehicle for the following Diseases

Slamonella typhimurium DT-104 (bacterium)

A

Unspaturized milk

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47
Q

Identify the vehicle for the following Diseases

Shigella spp. (bacteria)

A

Drinking water

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48
Q

Identify the Animal reservoir from this viral disease

Avian Influenza

pathogen: an influezna virus

A

Birds

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49
Q

Identify the Animal reservoir from this viral disease

Equine Encephalitis

pathogen: Various arboviruses

A

Birds, small mammals

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50
Q

Identify the Animal reservoir from this viral disease

Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

Pathogen: Hantaviruses

A

Rodents

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51
Q

Identify the Animal reservoir from this viral disease

Lassa Fever

pathogen: Lassa Virus

A

Wild rodents

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52
Q

Identify the Animal reservoir from this viral disease

Marburg Disease

pathogen: Marburg virus

A

Monkeys

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53
Q

Identify the Animal reservoir from this viral disease

Rabies

Pathogen: rabies virus

A

Rabid dogs, cats, skunks, foxes, wolves, racoonds, coyotes, bats

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54
Q

Identify the Animal reservoir from this viral disease

Yellow fever

pathogen: yellow fever virus

A

Monkeys

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55
Q

Identify the Animal reservoir from this viral disease

West nile virus encephalitis

pathogen: west nile virus

A

Birds

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56
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Anthrax

A

Cattle, sheep, goats

pathogen: Baciillus anthracis

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57
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Bovine tuberculosis

A

Cattle

Pathogn: Myobacterium bovis

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58
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Brucellosis

A

Cattle, swine, goats

Pathogen: Brucella spp.

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59
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Comphylobacter infection

A

Wild mammals, cattle, sheep, pets

Pathogen: Compylobacter spp.

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60
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Cat-scratch disease

A

Domestic cats

pathogen: Bartonella henselae

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61
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Ehrlichiosis

A

Deer, mice

Pathogen: Ehrlichia spp.

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62
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Endemic typhus

A

Rodents

pathogens: Rickettsia typhi

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63
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Leptospirosis

A

Cattle, rodents, dogs

Pathogen: Leptospira spp.

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64
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Lyme disease

A

Deer, rodents

Pathogen: Borrelia burgdoferi

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65
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Pasteurollosis

A

Oral cavities of animals

Pathogen: Pasteurella multocida

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66
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Plague

A

Rodents

Pathogen: Yersinia pestis

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67
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Psittacosis (ornithosis, parrot fever)

A

Parrots, parakeets, other per birds, pigeons, poultry

Pathogen: Chlamydophila psittaci

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68
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Relpasing fever

A

Rodents

pathogen: Borrelia spp.

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69
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Rickettsia pox

A

Rodents

pathogen: Rickettsia akari

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70
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Rocky mountain spotted fever

A

Rodents, dogs

pathogen: Rickettsia rickettsii

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71
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Salmonellosis

A

Poultry, livestock, reptiles

pathogen: Salmonella spp.

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72
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Scrub typhus

A

Rodents

Pathogen: Orientia tsutsugamushi

73
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Tularemia

A

Wild mammals

Pathogen: Francisella tularensis

74
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (bacterial diseases)

Q fever

A

Cattle, sheep, goats

Pathogen: Coxiella burnetii

75
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (fungal diseases)

Tinea (ringworm) infections

A

Various animals including dogs

Pathogen: dermatophytes

76
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (protozoal diseases)

African trypanosomiasis

A

Cattle, wild game animals

Pathogen: subspecies of trypanosoma bruccei

mode of transmission: tsetse fly bite

77
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (protozoal diseases)

American trypanosomiasis (Chagas’ disease)

A

Numerous wild and domestic animals, including dogs, cats, wild rodents

Pathogen: Trypanosoma cruzi

78
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (protozoal diseases)

Babesiosis

A

Babesia microti

pathogen: Deer, mice, voles

79
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (protozoal diseases)

Leishmaniasis

A

Rodents, dogs

Pathogen: Leishmania spp.

80
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (protozoal diseases)

Toxoplasmosis

A

Cats, pigs, sheep, rarely cattle

Pathigen: Toxoplasma gondii

mode of transmission: ingestion of oocysts in cat feces or cysts in raw or underooked meat

81
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (helminth diseases)

Echinococcosis (hyatid disease)

A

Dogs

Pathogen: Echinococcus granulosis

mode of transmission: ingestion of eggs

82
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (helminth diseases)

Dog tapeworm infection

A

Dogs, cats

Pathogen: Dipylidium caninum

83
Q

Identify the animal reservoir and pathogen (helminth diseases)

Rat tapeworm infection

A

Rodents

pathogen: Hymenolepsis diminuta

84
Q

Give 2

categories of acquiring infectious disease

A
  1. Nosocomial Infection (Hospital-acquired infection)
  2. Community-acquired infection (acquired outside heatlhcare facilities)
85
Q

Give 2

types of pathogens most often involved in nosocomial

A
  1. Gram positive cocci (Staphylococcus aureus, Coagulase-negative staphylococcus, Enterococcus spp.)
  2. Gram negative bacilli (Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Enterobacter spp., Klebsiella spp.
86
Q

Give 4

Common types of Nosocomial infections

A
  1. Urinary Tract Infection
  2. Surgical wound infections (postsrugical wounds infections)
  3. Lower respiratory tract infections (primary pnuemonia)
  4. Bloodstream infection (septicemia)
87
Q

Give 7

types of patients most likely to develop Nosocomial Infections

A
  1. Elderly Patients
  2. Women in labor and delivery
  3. Premature infants and newborns
  4. Surgical and burn patients
  5. Patients recovering treatment with steroids, anticancer drugs, antilymphocyte serum, and radiation
  6. Immunosuppressed patients
  7. Patients who are paralyzed or are undergoing renal dialysis or catherization
88
Q

Give 3

Major Factors contributing to Nosocomial infections

A
  1. An eye-increasing number of drug resistant pathogen
  2. The failure of healthcare personnel to follow infection control guidelines
  3. An increased number of immunocompromised patients
89
Q
  • Any condition in which the normal structure or functions of the body are damaged or imparied
  • Physiscal injuries or disabilities are not classified as this, but there can be several causes for disease, including pathogen, genetics, noninfectious environmental causes, or inappropriate immune responses.
A

Disease

90
Q

Colonization by a pathogen

A

Infection

91
Q

Give 4

Vital signs and normal values

A
  1. Body Temperature (37 degrees C or 98.6 degrees F)
  2. Heart Rate (60-100 bpm)
  3. Breathing rate (18-20 breathes per minute)
  4. Blood pressure (between 90/60 - 120/80 mm Hg)
92
Q

The presence of _ in a patient’s serum can be observed and measured through blood tests and, therefore, can be considered as a sign.

A

Antibodies

93
Q

True of False

Antibodies may develop in response to a pathogen that is in the body even tho it isnt causing a disease

A

True

93
Q
A
94
Q

True or False

Symptoms of diseases are subjective

A

True

95
Q

Clinicians use this to ask their patients to rate their pain on a scale of 0-10

A

Wong-Baker Faces pain-rating scale

96
Q

A specific group of signs and symptoms characteristics of a particular disease is called a ___________

A

Syndrome

97
Q

Give the meaning of the following nomenclature affix

cyto-

A

cell

cytopenia: reduction in the number of blood cells

98
Q

Give the meaning of the following nomenclature affix

hepat-

A

of the liver

Hepatitis: inflamation of liver

99
Q

Give the meaning of the following nomenclature affix

-pathy

A

diseaese

neuropathy: a disease affecting nerves

100
Q

Give the meaning of the following nomenclature affix

-emia

A

-of the blood

bacteraemia: presense of the bacteria in the blood

101
Q

Give the meaning of the following nomenclature affix

-itis

A

inflamation

colitis: infmation of the colon

102
Q

Give the meaning of the following nomenclature affix

-lysis

A

destruction

hemolysis: destruction of red blood cells

103
Q

Give the meaning of the following nomenclature affix

-oma

A

tumour

lymphoma: cancer of the lymphatic system

104
Q

Give the meaning of the following nomenclature affix

-osis

A

diseased or abnormal condition

leukocytosis - abnormally high number of WBC

105
Q

Give the meaning of the following nomenclature affix

-derma

A

of the skin

Keratoderma: a thickening of the skin

106
Q

True of False

Not all contagious disease are equally so; the degree to which a disease is contagious usually depends on how the pathogen is transmitted

A

True

107
Q

Diseases that are contracted as a result of a medial procedure are known as _________

A

iatrogenic diseases

108
Q

What is the causative agent for necrotizing fasciitis (an aggressive, “flesh-eating” disease)?

A

Clostridium perfringens

109
Q

An example of disease that once infected, an individual cannot pass the pathogen to other individulas.

Also give the casusative agent

A

Legionnaires Disease

Legionella pnuemophila

110
Q
  • An important cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide
  • can be caused by a wide variety of factors, including genetics, the environment, or immune system dysfunction
A

Noninfectious Disease

111
Q

Give 7

Types of Noninfectious disease

A
  1. Inherited
  2. Congenital
  3. Degenerative
  4. Nutritional deficiency
  5. Endocrine
  6. Neoplastic
  7. Idiopathic
112
Q
  • Occurs in an acute disease after the initial entry of the pathogen into the host (patient)
  • It is during this time the pathogen begins multiplying in the host
A

Incubation period

113
Q
  • Occurs after the incubation period
  • During this phase, the pathogen continues to multiply and the host begins to experience general signs and symptoms of illness, which typically result from activation of the immune system, such as fever, pain, soreness, swelling, or inflamation.
A

Prodromal Period

114
Q
  • During which, the signs and symptoms of disease are most obvious and severe
  • Communicable diseases are most easily transmitted during this period
A

Period of illness

115
Q
  • The number of pathogen particles begins to decrease, and the signs and symptoms of illness begin to decline
A

Period of decline

116
Q

The patient generally returns to normal function, although some diseases may inflict permanent damage that the body cannot fully repair

A

Period of Convalescence

117
Q

Pathologic changes occur over a relatively short time (e.g., hours, days, or a few weeks) and involve a rapid onset of disease conditions.

A

Acute Disease

118
Q

Pathologic changes can occur over longer time spans (e.g., month, years, or a lifetime)

A

Chronic Disease

119
Q

The casual pathogen goes dormant for extended periods of time with no active replication

A

Latent Disease

120
Q

The sequence of steps in the disease process caused by pathogenic microbes

A

Pathogenesis

121
Q

give 4

stages of Pathogenesis

A
  1. exposure (contact)
  2. adhesion
  3. invasion
  4. infection
122
Q

An encoucnter with a potential pathogen is known as

A

Exposure or Contact

123
Q

An anatomic site through which pathogens can pass into host tissue is called

A

Portal of Entry

124
Q

Refers to the capability of pathogenic microbes to attach to the cells of the body using adhesion factors, and different pathogens use various mechanisms to adhere to the cells of the host tissue

A

Adhesion

125
Q

It involves the dissemenation of a pathogen throughout local tissues or the body

A

Invasion

126
Q

Following invasion, successful multiplication of the pathogen leads to ____. It can be described as local, focal or systemic, depending on its extent.

A

Infection

127
Q

A localized pathogen, or the toxins it produce, can spread to a secondary location

A

Focal Infection

128
Q

When an infection becomes disseminated throughout the body

A

Systemic Infection

129
Q

True or False

Some secondary infections can even develop as a result of treatment for a primary infection

A

True

130
Q
  • It is described as an ability of an organisms to infect the host and cause disease
  • It is a pathogen’s or microorganisms’ ability to cause damage to a host.
A

Virulence

131
Q

The pathogenecity of an organism, its ability to cause disease is determined by its ________

A

Virulence Factors

132
Q

Viruses use ____ to facilitate adhesion to host cells.

A

Adhesins

133
Q

Certain enveloped viruses rely on ________ to avoid the host immune defenses

A

antigenic variation

134
Q

AKA preferential targeting – is defined by the interaction of viral adhesins of viruses with specific cell receptors for specific cells, tissues , and organs in the body

A

Tropism

135
Q

Adhesin for Influenza Virus

and where does it attached?

A

Spike protein Hemagglutinin

attached to siacilic acid of respiratory and intestinal cells

136
Q

Adhesin for Herpes simplex virus I or II

and where does it attached?

A

Glycoproteins gB, gC, gD

attached to Heparan sulfate on mucosal surfaces of mouth & genitals

137
Q

Adhesin for Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

and where does it attached?

A

Glycoprotein gp120

attached to CD4 and CCR5 or CXCR4 or immune system cells

138
Q

It is the result of point mutations causing slight changes in the spike hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N)

A

Antigenic Drift

139
Q

It is a major change in spike proteins due to gene reassortment.

A

Antigenic shift

140
Q

Virulence Factors that assist the Bacterium colonize host at cell level

Facilitate the bacterium to undergo quick adaptive - metabolic, physiological and morphological shifts

A

Cystolic Factors

141
Q

Virulence Factors that assist the Bacterium colonize host at cell level

Aid the bacterium in adhesions and evasion of the host cell

A

Membrane Associated Virulence Factors

142
Q

Virulence Factors that assist the Bacterium colonize host at cell level

Important components of bacterial armoury which help the bacterium wade through the innate and adaptive immune response mounted within the host. In extracellular pathogens it acts as synergistically to kill the host cell.

A

Secretory Factors

143
Q

Virulence Factor - Bacterial Structure

Enable bacteria to gain access to anatomic areas that nonmotile bacteria cannot reach; may enable bacteria to “escape” from phagocytes

A

Flagella

144
Q

Virulence Factor - Bacterial Structure

Serve an antiphagocytic function

A

Capsules

145
Q

Virulence Factor - Bacterial Structure

Enable bacteria to attach to surfaces

A

Pili

146
Q

Virulence Factor - Enzymes

Enables bacteria to produce clots within which to “hide”

A

Coagulase

147
Q

Virulence Factor - Enzymes

Enable bacteria to dissolve clots

A

Kinases

148
Q

Virulence Factor - Enzymes

Dissolve hyaluronic acid, enabling bacteria to penetrate deeper into tissues

A

Hyaluronidase

149
Q

Virulence Factor - Enzymes

Destroys Cell Membranes

A

Lecithinase

150
Q

Virulence Factor - Enzymes

Cause massive destruction of tissues

A

Necrotizing enzymes

151
Q

Virulence Factor - Toxins

Release from the cell walls of Gram-Negative bacteria - causes fever and septic shock

A

Endotoxin

152
Q

Virulence Factor - Toxins

Cause damage to the central nervous system; tetanospasmin and botulinal toxin are examples

A

Neurotoxins

153
Q

Virulence Factor - Toxins

Cause gastrointestinal disease

A

Enterotoxins

154
Q

Virulence Factor - Toxins

The cytotoxin that causes pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clostridium defficile toxin B

155
Q

Virulence Factor - Toxins

The toxin that causes most cases of toxic shock syndrome

A

Staphylococcus aureus TSST-1

156
Q

Virulence Factor - Toxins

cause the destruction of leukocytes

A

Leukocidins

157
Q

Virulence Factor - Toxins

Produced by some strains of S. aureus; causes scalded skin syndrome

A

Exfoliative toxin

158
Q

Virulence Factor - Toxins

Produced by some strains of Streptococus pyogenes; causes scarlet fever

A

Erythrogenic Toxin

159
Q

Virulence Factor - Toxins

Produced by toxigenic strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae; causes diptheria

A

Diphtheria Toxin

160
Q

Give 3

layers of immune system

A
  1. Barrier immunity
  2. Innate Immunity
  3. Acquired Immunity
161
Q

main Organ involved in barrier immunity

A

Skin

162
Q

Immunity that are already present before birth

A

Innate Immunity

163
Q

Give 8

Cells of Innate Immunity

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Mast Cells
  3. Basophils
  4. Dendritic Cells
  5. Eosinophils
  6. Monocytes
  7. Macrophage
  8. Natural Killer (NK) Cells
164
Q

Most abundant of immune cells. Usually first cell to responds to infection.

A

Neutrophils

165
Q

2 lobed nucleus immune cell. They fight multicellular parasites and some bacteria. Alos responsible for various allergies like asthma

A

Eosinophil

166
Q

Least common of all WBC’s and have important role in fighting parasitic infections. Also have role in blood clotting. Granules also contain heparin that is important in allergic reaction

A

Basophils

167
Q

It resides in connective tissue and mucous membranes. Plays role in wound healing and microbial defense. Involved in serious allergic reaction.

A

Mast Cells

168
Q

Large eaters. Can migrate from blood to tissue spaces for invading pathogens.

A

Macrophage

169
Q

have branch like structures and located in tissues in contact with external environment. It a type of antigen presenting cell.

A

Dendritic cell

170
Q

They do not attack microbes instead they kill our own defective cells like tumour cells and virally infeted cells.

A

Natural Killer Cells

171
Q

type of immunity that is Not present since birth. It develops in response to an infection.

A

Adaptive or Acquired Immunity

172
Q

Give 2

Cells of Adaptive immunity

A
  1. B Lymphocytes
  2. T Lymphocytes
173
Q

A type of T Lymphocytes responsibel for fighting and dircetly killing pathogen

A

Killer T-Cells or CD8

174
Q

A type of T-Lymphocytes that is responsible in proper functioning of the rest of immune cells.

A

Helper T-cells or CD4

175
Q

Cell that is a type of Humoral immunity. It is responsible in producing antibodies.

A

B-Lymphocytes

176
Q

It is when a virus is being coated with many antibodies that attarack immune cells to attack the virus

A

Opsonization

177
Q

True or False

Innate is slower in terms of response compared to Adaptive immunity.

A

False

microbio (4 decks)

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