Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Respiratory Sys Exam 2 > Module 4 (Week 7-8) > Flashcards

Module 4 (Week 7-8) Flashcards

1
Q

Module 4A: Equine Viral Respiratory Disease

A

Module 4A: Equine Viral Respiratory Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A very common DNA viruses in horse populations worldwide

A

Equine herpesviruses (EHV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Is a common, highly contagious equid respiratory disease

A

Equine influenza virus (EIV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Other EHV’s – EHV-2 and -5 (the y-herpesviruses)
- Upper respiratory infection
- Abortion
- Vasculitis

A

Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Other EHV’s – EHV-2 and -5 (the y-herpesviruses)
- Mild URI
- Poorly characterized currently

A

Rhinoviruses - ERAV and ERBV’s (n=3)
Remember: equine ‘rhino’ is not the same as rhinovirus (that horseman’s terminology again…)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In the setting of respiratory disease, list the alpha- herpesviruses:

A
  • EHV -1 – URT
  • EHV -4 – URT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In the setting of respiratory disease:
- Is ubiquitous and of questionable pathogenicity
- Localized to respiratory mucosa, conjunctiva, WBC’s

A

EHV -2 (cytomegalovirus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In the setting of respiratory disease:
- May be involved in syndrome of pulmonary fibrosis (EMPF = equine multinodular pulmonary fibrosis)

A

EHV -2 and -5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

EHV -1 and EHV -4 are _______ genetically similar

A

70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Differences between EHV -1 & EHV -4:
- Upper respiratory disease
- Abortion
- Birth of severely compromised foals
- Neurologic disease

A

EHV -1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Differences between EHV -1 & EHV -4:
- Primarily mild upper respiratory disease

A

EHV -4
- VERY common infection in young horses
- Viral infection limited to respiratory tract epithelium, regional lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  • Can be very similar clinically to influenza
  • Requires additional ancillary diagnostic tests to differentiate
  • However, usually mild (sometimes clinically inapparent)
  • More common in weanling foals (2-6 months old)
    - Aerosol spread
    - The dam is usually the source
A

Respiratory disease (EHV -1 & -4)
- ‘Rhinopneumonitis’
- Clinical Signs:
- Incubation: 2-10 days
- Fever
- Serous nasal discharge
- Cough
- Inappetance
- Submandibular lymphadenopathy, lymphoid hyperplasia (pharyngeal)
- Secondary bacterial infections can occur
- Tracheobronchitis
- Bronchopneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List the main two things for respiratory disease associated with EHV -1 & -4:

A
  • Most common in YOUNG horses
  • Usually MILD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

(T/F) There is a vaccine for EHV -1 Myeloencephalopathy

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List the methods you can use to diagnose EHV -1:

A
  • Virus isolation
  • PCR –> NASAL SWAB & WHOLE BLOOD
  • Fluorescent antibody
  • Serology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the treatments for EHV -1, -4?

A
  • Supportive Care
    • Anything more than this is probably unnecessary and, if required, should suggest that something ELSE is going on
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

(T/F) EHV -1 vaccination protects against neurologic disease

A

False, does NOT protect against neurologic disease
- We don’t know the best way(s) to vaccinate horses against EHV -1/4 to protect against EHM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  • Orthomyxovirus
  • Type A (antigenic drift and shift COMMON)
  • Single-stranded, negative-sense, segmented RNA virus
  • Two subtypes in horses: H3N8 and H7N7
    - H7N7 not documented in outbreaks for >20 years
    - Two lineages of H3N8
    - Eurasian/European
    - American
  • Worldwide, the most common viral respiratory infection in horses
A

Equine Influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  • Transmission - inhalation of virus
  • Highly contagious
  • Particularly prevalent in young horses
    - Generally not in horses less than 1 year of age
    - Risk factors (mixing, shipping, training, etc.)
  • Major concern in areas of high population density
  • Often develop secondary bacterial infection
    - Effects on ciliated respiratory tract epithelium
A

Equine Influenza
- Horses can expel the virus during coughing with enough velocity to infect other horses up to 35 yards away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does equine flu look like?
- Incubation period: _________
- Clinical Signs: ______
- Ventral, limb edema may occur
- Purpura hemorrhagica reported post-infection
- Secondary bacterial infections COMMON!!

A
  • about 1-3 days (SHORT)
  • Dry, hacking cough
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Diagnosis for Equine Flu?

A
  • PCR
  • Nasal Swab
  • Clinical signs and evidence of high level of contagion = suggestive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Module 4B: Equine Bacterial Respiratory Disease

A

Module 4B: Equine Bacterial Respiratory Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

List risk Factors for Pleuropneumonia (‘Equine shipping fever’):

A
  • Transportation (distance)
  • Head tied up during transport
  • Insufficient time with head lowered during breaks
  • Altered mucociliary clearance (viral disease)
  • Altered pulmonary macrophage function
  • Stress; immunosuppression
  • Racehorses
  • Esophageal obstruction
  • Poor definition
  • General anesthesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  • Fever
  • Tachypnea
  • Purulent/hemorrhagic nasal discharge
  • Lethargy
  • Inappetance
  • Injected, ‘toxic’ mucous membranes
    - Toxic line
  • Weight loss
    These are the clinical Signs:
A

Pleuropneumonia

25
What can be an immediate diagnostic of pleuropneumonia?
Ultrasonography
26
List Pleuropneumonia treatment:
- Thoracic drainage, lavage - Broad-spectrum antibiotic coverage - Fluid therapy - Anti-inflammatories - *Laminitis prophylaxis*-> stand them in ice - Nutritional therapy - Respiratory support - Thrombolytics
27
What is the prognosis for survival of Pleuropneumonia?
- Fair to good, if survive acutely - Recovery = prolonged (months) - Treatment is expensive - Prognosis for *performance* is *guarded* - See complications - Adhesions are problematic
28
Definition: the formation of fibrotic bands that span the pleural space, between the parietal and visceral layers of the pleura
Pleural adhesions
29
- *Gram (+) chaining cocci* - Long Chains - (Short Chains = S. equi subsp. zooepidemicus) - Very contagious - Infection, disease limited to equids - Bimodal age distribution - Youngsters (weanling -- 2 years of age) - Middle-aged to older horses - Asymptomatic Carriers
Streptococcus equi subsp.equi - Equine 'Strangles'
30
Why Strangles could be eradicated?
- Only equids - Fever occurs about *48* hours prior to nasal shedding of the organism - Not terribly persistent in the enviroment
31
Strangles: In a small proportion of recovered horses, a *carrier state* is established. This requires diagnostic testing of the ________ to confirm
guttural pouches
32
- Immune-mediated vasculitis - Type III hypersensitivity (Arthus reaction) - Clinical Signs: - A few days to several weeks post-recovery from *strangles* - *Fever*, lethargy, malaise - Distal limb, ventral edema; can progress to skin sloughing - *Petechiation* of mucous membranes - Diagnosis - Most are treated presumptively - Serum M-protein titer - Skin biopsy -- Leukocytoclastic vasculitis
Purpura Hemorrhagica
33
What are the Vaccinations for 'Strangles'?
- Inactivated M-protein derivative vaccine - Modified live intranasal vaccine
34
- Gram (+) - Pleomorphic coccobacillus - *Soil saprophyte* - Facultative intracellular pathogen - Can survive and replicate within macrophages - *VapA*
Rhodococcus equi - Immunocompromised - human problem too
35
(T/F) Foals are infected EARLY with R. equi (Likely within the first 7-10 days of life)
True
36
R. equi: Clinical Disease Syndrome in Horses - Weanling foals (2-6 months of age)
*Pyogranulomatous bronchopnemonia*
37
Clinical Signs: - Mild to severe - Most common -- *Fever* - Cough, nasal discharge -- *unreliable* signs of respiratory disease in foals
R. equi Bronchopneumonia
38
Which of the following best describes how a weanling filly with uncomplicated strangles should be treated?
Supportive care (NSAIDs, soft feed, careful monitoring of respiratory rate and effort) and isolation/biosecurity
39
You are presented with a 2-year-old American Quarter Horse colt that returned home from a large national show 10 days ago and now has a fever, bilateral mucopurulent nasal discharge, and greatly enlarged submandibular lymph nodes. Which disease do you suspect, and what test would you ideally use to confirm your suspicion?
Strangles (Streptococcus equi subsp. equi infection); culture and PCR of guttural pouch lavage fluid
40
Which of the following is a known risk factor for equine shipping fever (septic bronchopneumonia/ pleuropneumonia)?
Prolonged transport, particularly with infrequent stops and the head tied
41
Regarding Rhodococcus equi infections in equids, which of the following statements is FALSE?
The disease is rarely documented outside of the respiratory tract
42
You are presented with a 4 month old Thoroughbred colt for evaluation of bilateral mucoid nasal discharge of 5 days’ duration. The colt’s physical examination is otherwise normal; which of the following is an unlikely differential diagnosis for this patient?
Septic pleuropneumonia
43
You are presented with a 3-year-old Standardbred filly with significant dependent edema, fever, and inappetence that have all developed acutely in the last 24-36 hours. She is housed on a farm on which strangles is endemic, and she recently recovered from the disease ~3 weeks ago. What condition do you now suspect, and how should this complication best be treated?
Purpura hemorrhagica; penicillin and dexamethasone
44
Module 4C: Equine Non-Infectious Respiratory Disease
Module 4C: Equine Non-Infectious Respiratory Disease
45
Definition: Is a highly prevalent respiratory disease affecting *adult horses*
Severe equine Asthma - Recurrent airway obstruction (RAO), 'Heaves' - *Common* non-infectious lower airway disease - Reactive, *inflammatory* airway disease
46
List the 3 hallmark characteristics of RAO:
1. Airway inflammation -- neutrophil accumulation 2. Bronchoconstriction, increased airway reactivity 3. Mucus production
47
List the Clinical Signs for RAO:
- *Most common = cough (80%) - esp. in first few minutes of work and when fed* - Expiratory effort - Nostril flaring at rest - Nasal discharge - Exercise intolerance *Episodic and progressive*
48
What are the main diagnoses of Severe Equine asthma?
- History - Auscultation - Bronchoalveolar lavage fluid cytology
49
BALF cytology: ________% BALF non-degenerate neutrophils = considered diagnostic
>20
50
(T/F) Many of the cases of equine asthma are controlled with management changes alone
True, never forget management, this should come first
51
(T/F) EIPH has been reported in horses that complete in *all* of equine sport disciplines
True
52
Definition: Is bleeding that occurs from the lungs of horses during exercise
Exercise‐induced pulmonary hemorrhage (EIPH)
53
You are presented with a 16 year old Tennessee Walking Horse mare for evaluation of intermittent productive cough of 3-4 months’ duration. The condition appears to wax and wane, with cough most frequently noted when the mare eats and when she is ridden. She otherwise appears well; no treatment has been attempted to date. You are highly suspicious of one disease in particular; which of the following therapeutic strategies would you initiate FIRST for this disease (assuming that diagnostic test results are supportive of this diagnosis)?
Move the mare from her dusty stall to a grass paddock (permanently)
54
What are the three hallmark pathologic changes that characteristically occur in the small airways of horses with severe equine asthma (formerly known as recurrent airway obstruction/RAO, or ‘heaves’)?
Inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and mucus production
55
Regarding equine exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage (EIPH), which of the following statements is TRUE? - Administration of furosemide prior to a race has been shown to attenuate EIPH and provide a performance benefit to horses that receive it. - No treatments that have been attempted for this condition (and there have been MANY) have been shown to be effective in controlled studies. - Affected horses tend to be younger and slower than unaffected horses. - EIPH only occurs in Thoroughbred racehorses.
Administration of furosemide prior to a race has been shown to attenuate EIPH and provide a performance benefit to horses that receive it.
56
Which of the following is the MOST sensitive diagnostic test for equine EIPH (i.e., ~90% of Thoroughbred racehorses are bleeders if evaluated with this modality)? - Cytologic evaluation of bronchoalveolar lavage fluid - Thoracic radiography - Visual inspection of the nares - Tracheal brush cytology
Cytologic evaluation of bronchoalveolar lavage fluid
57
A rebreathing examination is a technique that involves thoracic auscultation after encouraging the horse to take a few deep breaths by (carefully) placing a plastic bag over its nose for a minute or two (during which time it will ‘rebreathe’ exhaled CO2, slightly increasing the paO2, and increasing the rate and depth of respiration briefly when the bag is removed). This technique increases the sensitivity of auscultation for detection of certain respiratory sounds, particularly expiratory wheezes; it is therefore most likely to be useful in the evaluation of a patient with which of the following diseases?
Severe equine asthma
58
What percentage of neutrophils in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid would support a diagnosis of severe equine asthma/’heaves’?
>20%
59
Module 4D: Equine Respiratory Cases
Module 4D: Equine Respiratory Cases

Respiratory Sys Exam 2 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions