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Samplex Module 4 > Module 4 Pharmacology > Flashcards

Module 4 Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Releaser, except

A. Tyramine
B. Ephedrine
C. Angiotensin II
D. Aldosterone

A

Aldosterone

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2
Q

The metal which is the causative agent of Minamata’s disease wherein the villagers manifested CNS toxicity

A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Arsenic
D. Platinum

A

Mercury

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3
Q

Noyes-Whittney equation determines

A. Particle size measurement
B. Actual drug solubility
C. Dissolution constant
D. Dissolution rate

A

Dissolution rate

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4
Q

Major pathway for elimination of many drugs and metabolites from the body

A. Tears
B. Sweat
C. Urine
D. Feces

A

Urine

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5
Q

What is the common undesirable effect of methyldopa

A. Vertigo
B. Depression
C. Sedation
D. Hemolytic anemia

A

Sedation

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6
Q

Creatinine clearance is used as a measure of

A. Renal excretion
B. Glomerular filtration rate
C. Active tubular secretion
D. Passive tubular secretion

A

Glomerular filtration rate

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7
Q

Difference in bioavailability aren most frequently observed with drugs administered by which of the following route

A. Subcutaneous
B. Intravenous
C. Oral
D. Sublingual

A

Oral

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8
Q

The intensity of pharmacologic action of a drug is most dependent on the

A. Concentration of the drug at the receptor site
B. Elimination half-life of the drug
C. Onset time of the drug after oral administration
D. Minimum effective concentration of drug in the plasma

A

Concentration the drug at the receptor site

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9
Q

Target proteins to which a drug molecule can bind are

A. Receptors
B. Ion channel
C. Carrier
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

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10
Q

Which tissue has the greatest capacity to biotransform drugs

A. Brain
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Lungs

A

Liver

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11
Q

The biological half-life of a drug

A. Is a constant physical property of a drug
B. Is a constant chemical property of a drug
C. Is the time for one half of the therapeutic activity to be lost
D. Depends entirely on the route of administration

A

Is the time for one half of the therapeutic activity to be lost

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12
Q

Main mechanism of most drug absorption in the GIT is

A. Active transport
B. Filtration
C. Endocytosis
D. Passive diffusion

A

Passive diffusion

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13
Q

Which if the following factors influence renal clearance

A. Age
B. Disease
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

A

Both a and b

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14
Q

What is the reason of complicated penetration of some drugs through the blood brain barrier

A. High lipid solubility
B. Meningitis
C. Absence of pores in the brain capillary endothelium
D. High endocytosis degree in the brain capillary

A

Absence of pore in the brain capillary endothelium

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15
Q

Also known as drug delivery system

A. Drug distribution
B. Drug liberation
C. Drug administration
D. Dosage form

A

Dosage form

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16
Q

A decrease in the therapeutic index of a drug

A. Increases the potential of a drug to become toxic
B. Increases the efficacy of a drug
C. Decrease the lethality of a drug
D. All of the above

A

Increases the potential of a drug to become toxic

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17
Q

For the calculation of the volume of distribution one must take account of

A. Concentration of substance in the plasma
B. Concentration of substance in the urine
C. Therapeutic index of the drug action
D. Daily dose of drug

A

Concentration of substance in the plasma

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18
Q

An inactive (or much less active) substance which biotransformed to active drug in the body

A. Dosage form
B. Modified release
C. Drug product
D. Prodrug

A

Prodrug

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19
Q

Biotransformation of medicinal substance results in

A. Faster urinary excretion
B. Slower urinary excretion
C. Easier distribution
D. Higher binding to membrane

A

Faster urinary excretion

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20
Q

During ovulation, peak plasma concentration of which of the following hormone(s) will be reached
I. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
II. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
III. Progesterone

A. I only
B. III only
C. I & II only
D. II & III only

A

I & II only

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21
Q

Half -life doesn’t depend on

A. Biotransformation
B. Time of drug absorption
C. Concentration drug in the plasma
D. Rate of drug elimination

A

Time of drug absorption

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22
Q

Elimination is expressed as follow

A. Rate of renal tubular reabsorption
B. Clearance speed of some volume of blood from substance
C. Time required to decrease the amount of drug in the plasma by one-half
D. Clearance of an organism from xenobiotic

A

Clearance of an organism from xenobiotic

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23
Q

Stimulation of beta-adrenereceptor involves generation of secondary messenger known as

A. IP3
B. cGMP
C. DAG
D. cAMP

A

cAMP

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24
Q

Toxins found in castor bean plant

A. Pyrethrin
B. Ergometrine
C. Ricin
D. Uroshiol

A

Ricin

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25
Q

Elimination rate constant is defined by which of the following parameter

A. Rate of absorption
B. Maximal concentration of a substance in plasma
C. Highest single dose
D. Half-life

A

Half-life

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26
Q

A type of absorption mechanism which is characterized by engulfing vesicle

A. Convective transport
B. Pinocytosis
C. Ion-pair transport
D. Passive diffusion

A

Pinocytosis

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27
Q

Alteration of protein synthesis such as disruption of membrane protein channel and interference on signaling and loss of enzyme function is an example of which mechanism

A. Lipid peroxidation
B. Target molecule dysfunction
C. Non targeted toxicity
D. Formation of neoantigen

A

Target molecule dysfunction

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28
Q

Which of the following is a phase II drug metabolizing reaction

A. Acetylation
B. Hydrolysis
C. Reduction
D. Deamination

A

Acetylation

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29
Q

A physical process by which a weak acid becomes less water soluble and more lipid soluble at low pH

A. Distribution
B. First Pass
C. Protonation
D. Elimination

A

Protonation

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30
Q

An absorption process is not involved when a drug by which one of the following route of administration

A. Oral
B. Intravenous
C. Intramuscular
D. Rectal

A

Intravenous

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31
Q

Regarding termination of drug action, which of the following statements is true

A. Drug must be excreted from the body to eliminate the action
B. Metabolism of drug always abolishes their pharmacologic activity
C. Metabolism of drug always increases their water solubility
D. Hepatic metabolism and renal excretion are two of the most important mechanism involved

A

Hepatic metabolism and renal excretion are two of the most important mechanism involved

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32
Q

The term “biological availability” or “bioavailability” refers to the relative amount of drug that reaches the

A. Small intestine
B. Stomach
C. Systemic circulation
D. Liver

A

Systemic circulation

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33
Q

The AUC can be described as being a

I. Theoretic value
II. Measure of drug concentration-time curve
III. Value with units of weigh and time/volume

A. I & II
B. II & III
C. I & III
D. I, II & III

A

I, II & III

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34
Q

The “F” value for a drug product is ideally compared to its

A. Absolute bioavailability
B. Dosing rate
C. Clearance rate
D. Relative bioavailability

A

Absolute bioavailability

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35
Q

The biological half-life of a drug that is eliminated by first order kinetics is represented mathematically by

A. 1/k
B. Log k
C. 0.693/k
D. 2.303 / k

A

0.693/k

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36
Q

The following beta-blocker have local anesthetic activity

I. Pindolol
II. Carvedilol
III. Metoprolol
IV. Esmolol

A. I , II
B. II, III
C. I, III
D. I, IV

A

I, III

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37
Q

Difference in bioavailability are most frequently observed with drugs administered by which of the following route

A. Subcutaneous
B. Intravenous
C. Oral
D. Sublingual

A

Oral

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38
Q

Two different oral formulations containing the same dose of the same drug having equal areas under their respective serum concentration – time curve

A. Deliver the same total amount of drug to the body and are therefore bioequivalent
B. Deliver the same total amount of drug to the body but are not necessarily bioequivalent
C. Are bioequivalent
D. Bioequivalent if they both meet the USP disintegration standard

A

Deliver the same total amount of drug to the body but are not necessarily bioequivalent

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39
Q

If an oral capsule formulation of drug A produces a serum concentration – time curve having the same area under the curve as that produced by an equivalent dose of drug A given IV, it can generally be conducted that

A. The IV route is preferred over the oral route
B. Capsule formulation is essentially completely absorbed
C. The drug is very rapidly absorbed
D. All oral dosage forms of drug A will be bioequivalent

A

Capsule formulation is essentially completely absorbed

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40
Q

Gastric emptying time is slowed by all of the following, except

A. Vigorous exercise
B. Fatty food
C. Hot meals
D. Hunger

A

Hunger

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41
Q

The following are indirect acting cholinergic agonist, except

A. Metacholine
B. Edrophonium
C. Physostigmine
D. Echotiophate

A

Metacholine

42
Q

Assuming complete absorption and elimination half-life of 4 hours, how many mg of a drug will remain in the body 12 hours after administering 400 mg dose? Assume linear pharmacokinetic

A. 10
B. 25
C. 50
D. 100

A

50

43
Q

Which of the following pharmacokinetic parameter is/are likely to decrease in geriatric population when compared to the average population

I. Renal elimination
II. Drug metabolism
III. Volume of distribution

A. I & II
B. II & III
C. I & III
D. I, II & III

A

I, II & III

44
Q

Drugs having an affinity at Beta receptor include which of the following

I. Epinephrine
II. Propranolol
III. Dobutamine
IV. Cocaine

A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. II, III
D. I, III, V

A

I, II, III

45
Q

Nicardipine is indicated for the treatment

I. Angina pectoris
II. Hypertension
III. Ventricular tachycardia

A. I & II
B. II & III
C. I & III
D. I, II, & III

A

I & II

46
Q

Which of the following is/are true of fentanyl

A. Available as a transdermal system
B. Used as local anesthetic
C. May be used as a cough suppressant
D. All of the above

A

Available as a transdermal system

47
Q

Colestipol HCl can be classified as

A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
B. Vasopressor
C. ACE Inhibitor
D. Bile acid sequestrant

A

Bile acid sequestrant

48
Q

Which of the following is an indication of Sumatriptan

A. Partial seizure
B. Arthritic pain
C. Tachycardia
D. Migraine

A

Migraine

49
Q

All of the following drugs are believed to undergo significant first-pass hepatic biotransformation, except

A. Lidocaine
B. Morphine
C. Nitroglycerin
D. Phenytoin

A

Phenytoin

50
Q

Which of the following hormone is released from the posterior pituitary glands

A. Growth hormone
B. Follicle stimulating hormone
C. Oxytocin
D. All of the above

A

Oxytocin

51
Q

Most antipsychotic drugs can be said to have which of the following actions

A. Cholinergic
B. Dopaminergic
C. COMT inhibition
D. Dopamine inhibition

A

Dopamine inhibition

52
Q

DOC for the treatment of SIADH

A. Vasopressin
B. Methotrexate
C. Vancomycin
D. Demeclocycline

A

Demeclocycline

53
Q

Which one of the following equation would have enables the pharmacist to estimate the creatinine clearance in the previous patient

A. Cockroft – Gault
B. Harris – Benedict
C. Henderson – Hasselbalch
D. Loo Riegelman

A

Cockroft – Gault

54
Q

Clonidine may best be described as a (an)
A. Alpha adrenergic blocker
B. Beta adrenergic blocker
C. MAO inhibitor
D. Alpha-adrenergic agonist

A

Alpha-adrenergic agonist

55
Q

Selegeline can best be described as (an)

A. MAO inhibitor
B. Anticholinergic
C. COMT inhibitor
D. Anticonvulsant

A

MAO inhibitor

56
Q

A common adverse effect associated with chronic use of magnesium antacid is
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Gastrointestinal bleeding
C. Constipation
D. Diarrhea

A

Diarrhea

57
Q

Propylthiouracil is used for the same therapeutic indication as

A. Methoxsalen
B. Danazol
C. Omeprazole
D. Methimazole

A

Methimazole

58
Q

Which of the following is not classified as an amide type of local anesthetic

A. Prilocaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Procaine

A

Procaine

59
Q

Which of the following is a COMT inhibitor

A. Selegiline
B. Carbidopa
C. Disulfiram
D. Tolcapone

A

Tolcapone

60
Q

Endorphins are

A. Endogenous neurotransmitter
B. A new class of topical anti-inflammatory agents
C. Neuromuscular blocking agent
D. Endogenous opioid peptide

A

Endogenous opioid peptide

61
Q

Prednisone is an agent that is employed in the treatment of

I. Fungal infection
II. Crohn’s disease
III. Rheumatic disorder

A. I & II
B. II & III
C. I & III
D. All of the above

A

II & III

62
Q

Which of the following are active metabolite of primidone

I. Acetylcholine
II. Phenylethylmalonamide
III. Phenobarbital

A. I & II
B. II & III
C. I & III
D. I, II & III

A

II & III

63
Q

Which of the following is an example of pure narcotic antagonist

A. Butorphanol
B. Buprenorphine
C. Nalbuphine
D. Naltrexone

A

Naltrexone

64
Q

Nerves in the human body that transmits their impulse by releasing acetylcholine are known as _____ nerve
A. Adrenergic
B. Cholinergic
C. Sympathetic
D. Anticholinergic

A

Cholinergic

65
Q

An antihistamine that can be used to treat acute dystonia caused by antipsychotic belongs to which group

A. Piperazine
B. Ethylenediamine
C. Ethanolamine
D. Phenothiazine

A

Ethanolamine

66
Q

Vidarabine is an antiviral agent indicated for the treatment of

A. Rubella
B. AIDS
C. Influenza
D. Herpes simplex encephalitis

A

Herpes simplex encephalitis

67
Q

Which one of the following barbiturates is likely to be shortest acting

A. Amobarbital sodium
B. Methohexital sodium
C. Pentobarbital sodium
D. Mephobarbital

A

Methohexital sodium

68
Q

Ganglionic blocker that were used as antihypertensive drugs

A. Mecamylamine
B. Trimethaphan
C. Hemicholinium
D. A & B

A

A & B

69
Q

Which of the following agents is indicated for the treatment of chronic inflammatory bowel disease

A. Misoprostol
B. Ritodrine
C. Mesalamine
D. Metoclopramide

A

Mesalamine

70
Q

Which of the following statements regarding therapeutic window is correct

A. The ratio of LD50 and ED50
B. The dosage range between the minimum effective therapeutic concentration and the minimum toxic concentration
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

A

The dosage range between the minimum effective therapeutic concentration and the minimum
toxic concentration

71
Q

Zafirlukast is a drug that can best be classified as

A. Leukocyte stimulant
B. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
D. Leukotriene formation inhibitor

A

Leukotriene formation inhibitor

72
Q

An agent that would be most likely to cause drug induced bronchospasm

A. Cromolyn
B. Benazepril
C. Isoproterenol
D. Sotalol

A

Sotalol

73
Q

Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be of any value in the management of cocaine overdose

A. Dantrolene
B. Diazepam
C. Methyldopa
D. Naltrexone

A

Naltrexone

74
Q

Hypoparathyroidism is a disorder that would most logically be treated with
A. Entacapone
B. Prednisone
C. Liothyronine
d. Dihydrotachysterol

A

Dihydrotachysterol

75
Q

Deferoxamine mesylate is considered to be a specific antidote for the treatment of poisoning caused by

A. Anticholinergic
B. Heavy metal
C. Benzodiazepine
D. Iron-containing product

A

Iron-containing product

76
Q

Which of the following statement is true in relation to “drug toxicity” and “poisoning”

A. The two terms are synonymous
B. When a toxic effect requires specific treatment, it is called poisoning
C. A toxic effect which endangers life by markedly affecting vital functions is called poisoning
D. Toxicity is caused by drugs while poisoning is caused by other harmful chemicals

A

A toxic effect which endangers life by markedly affecting vital functions is called poisoning

77
Q

Reduction of heavy metal toxicity by dimercaprol is an example of

A. Chemical antagonist
B. Physiological antagonist
C. Pharmacokinetic antagonist
D. Antagonism by receptor blocking

A

Chemical antagonist

78
Q

Which of the following drugs are known to cause toxic cataract

A. Chloroquine
B. Ergot
C. Phenothiazine
D. Naphthalene

A

Naphthalene

79
Q

When used as monotherapy, a major toxicity of gemfibrozil is increased risk of

A. Bloating and constipation
B. Cholelithiasis
C. Hyperuricemia
D. Liver damage

A

Cholelithiasis

80
Q

The consumption of shellfish harvested during a “red tide” is not recommended because it may contain
A. Arsenic
B. Cyanide
C. Botulinum toxin
D. Saxitoxin

A

Saxitoxin

81
Q

Toxicities of local anesthetic do not include
A. Cardiovascular arrhythmia (Bupivacaine)
B. Convulsion (Lidocaine)
C. Dizziness, sedation (Lidocaine)
D. Hypertensive emergencies, stroke (Procaine)

A

Hypertensive emergencies, stroke (Procaine)

82
Q

An unconscious patient is brought to the emergency department with a history of an unknown drug overdose. Which of the following action should the physician perform

A. Administer 50mL of 50% dextrose, thiamine 100mg IV push and naloxone 0.8mg IV push
B. Protect the patient’s airway and ensure that vital signs are stable and perform gastric lavage
C. Order the following laboratory test: CBC, electrolyte and a toxicology screen
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

83
Q

An overdose victim presents to the emergency department with an elevated heart rate, decrease blood pressure, dilated pupils and lethargy. Upon arrival to the ICU, she had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure that is treated with IV diazepam and forsphenytoin. Which of the following is the most likely intoxicant

A. Ethyl alcohol
B. Methanol
C. Acetaminophen
D. Amitryptyline

A

Amitryptyline

84
Q

British Anti-Lewisite is used to counter the toxic effects of

A. Atropine
B. Mercury
C. Morphine
D. Barbiturates

A

Mercury

85
Q

Antidote for malathion poisoning
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Nalorphine
D. Pralidoxine

A

Pralidoxine

86
Q

The toxicity of methanol is due to its conversion in the body to

A. Acetaldehyde
B. Formic acid and formaldehyde
C. Ethyl alcohol
D. Carbonic acid

A

Formic acid and formaldehyde

87
Q

Neostigmine is beneficial in cobra envenomation because

A. It binds to and inactivates cobra toxin
B. It reverses coma due to cobra toxin
C. It counteracts the cardio-depressant action of cobra toxin
D. It antagonizes the paralyzing action of cobra

A

It antagonizes the paralyzing action of cobra

88
Q

Which of the following drugs have been found to reduce alcohol craving and chances of resumed heavy drinking by alcoholics after they have undergone detoxification program

A. Chlordiazepoxide
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Methadone
D. Naltrexone

A

Naltrexone

89
Q

Infusion of potassium chloride is indicated in digitalis toxicity when the manifestations are

A. Vomiting, hyperapnoea, and visual disturbance
B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate of 110 bpm in a patient on maintenance digoxin therapy
C. Ventricular tachycardia in a child who has accidentally ingested 10 digoxin tablets
D. 2:1 AV block with occasional ventricular extrasystole

A

Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate of 110 bpm in a patient on maintenance digoxin therapy

90
Q

Which of the following is the most suitable antiarrhythmic drug for counteracting ventricular extrasystole due to digoxin toxicity

A. Lidocaine
B. Quinidine
C. Verapamil
D. Amiodarone

A

Lidocaine

91
Q

Methanol is toxic to optic nerve because

A. Methanol itself
B. Oxidative metabolite of methanol
C. Conjugated product of methanol
D. Idiosyncratic reaction

A

Oxidative metabolite of methanol

92
Q

Botulinum toxin causes muscle palsy by blocking

A. Nerve action potential
B. Acetylcholine release
C. Permeation to sodium and potassium
D. Muscle action potential

A

Acetylcholine release

93
Q

Lithium toxicity is may manifest as

A. Polyuria
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Renal caliculi
D. Acute renal failure

A

Polyuria

94
Q

Which of the following opioid antagonist is used as an adjunct to prevent relapse in addicts following detoxification because of its long half-life

A. Nalorphine
B. Naloxone
C. Naltrexone
D. All of the above

A

Naltrexone

95
Q

Which of the following is used for methanol poisoning

A. Disulfiram
B. Naltrexone
C. Ethanol
D. None of the above

A

Ethanol

96
Q

Which of the following could be used as an antidote to curare poisoning

A. Neostigmine
B. Atropine
C. Homatropjne
D. Hexamethonium

A

Neostigmine

97
Q

The mechanism explaining the clinical picture observed in carbon monoxide poisoning is

A. Hemolysis of red blood cell
B. A chemical union of the carbon monoxide with the hemoglobin of the red blood cell
C. Transformation of the carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide in the blood
D. Arrest of oxidation in the tissue by enzyme

A

A chemical union of the carbon monoxide with the hemoglobin of the red blood cell

98
Q

Nalorphine is not used as antidote for

A. Morphine
B. Pethidine
C. Pentazocine
D. Heroin

A

Pentazocine

99
Q

The greatest threat from morphine poisoning is

A. Renal shutdown
B. Paralysis of the spinal cord
C. Respiratory depression
D. Cardiovascular collapse

A

Respiratory depression

100
Q

Ethylenediamine-tetracetic acid is an antidote for which of the following

A. Sodium secobarbital
B. Aspirin
C. Phosphorus
D. Lead

A

Lead

Samplex Module 4 (5 decks)

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