Module 4 Flashcards
The term “ biologic availability” or “bioavailability” refers to the relative amount of drug that
reaches the
a. Small intestine
b. Stomach
c. Systemic circulation
d. Liver
Systemic circulation
Which of the following is the first process that must occur before a drug can become available
for absorption from a tablet dosage form?
a. Dissolution of the drug in the GI fluids
b. Dissolution of the drug in the GI epithelium
c. Ionization of the drug
d. Disintegration of the tablet
Disintegration of the tablet
The rate of dissolution may be described by which one of the following equations or laws?
a. Fick’s second law
b. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
c. Noyes-Whitney equation
d. Stoke’s law
Noyes-Whitney equation
The area under the serum concentration-time curve represents the
a. Biologic half-life of the drug
b. Amount of drug that is cleared by the kidneys
c. Amount of drug in the original dosage forms
d. Amount of drug absorbed
Amount of drug absorbed
The “F” value for a drug product is ideally compared to its
a. Absolute bioavailability
b. Dosing rate
c. Relative bioavailability
d. Route of administration
Absolute bioavailability
Differences in bioavailability are most frequently observed with drugs administered by which of the following routes?
a. SQ
b. IV
c. PO
d. IM
PO
The biologic half-life of a drug
a. Is constant physical property of the drug
b. Is a constant chemical property of the drug
c. Is the time for one half-life of the therapeutic activity to be lost
d. May be decreased by giving the drugs by rapid IV injection
Is the time for one half-life of the therapeutic activity to be lost
Gastric emptying is slowed by all of the following except:
a. Fatty foods
b. Hot meals
c. Hunger
d. Emotional stress
Hunger
The biologic half-life of many drugs is often prolonged in newborn infants because of
a. A higher degree of protein binding
b. Microsomal enzyme induction
c. More completely absorption of drug
d. Incompletely developed enzyme systems
Incompletely developed enzyme systems
A knowledge of Vd for a given drug is useful because it allows us to
a. Estimate elimination rate constant
b. Determine the biologic half-life
c. Calculate a reasonable loading dose
d. Determine the best dosing interval
Calculate a reasonable loading dose
Estimate the plasma concentration of a drug when 50 mg is given by IV bolus to a 140-lb patient if her volume of distribution is 1.6L/kg
a. mg/L
b. 0.5 mg/L
c. mg/L
d. 5 mg/L
0.5 mg/L
The metabolism of drugs generally result in
a. Less acidic compounds
b. More acidic compounds
c. More polar compounds
d. Compounds with lower aqueous solubility
More polar compounds
An adverse effect commonly associated with the use of theophylline products is
a. Crystalluria
b. Skin rash
c. Syncope
d. Insomnia
Insomnia
As an antiarrhythmic drug, procainamide is most similar in action to which one of the following
agents?
a. Amiodarone
b. Propranolol
c. Verapamil
d. Quinidine
Quinidine
Colestipol HCl is most commonly employes as a/an
a. Antidote for atropine overdose
b. Hypoglycemic agent
c. Bile acid sequesterant
d. Fat substitute
Bile acid sequesterant
An agent that would be most likely to cause drug-induced bronchospasm is
a. Nedocromil
b. Enalapril
c. Isoproterenol
d. Pindolol
Pindolol
Sulfones such as dapsone are employed commonly in the treatment of
a. UTI
b. Psoriasis
c. Hansen’s disease
d. Cushing’s disease
Hansen’s disease
A commonly adverse effect associated with the chronic use of aluminum antacids is
a. Flatulence
b. Diarrhea
c. GI bleeding
d. Constipation
Constipation
A disadvantage in the use of cimetidine (Tagamet) is its ability to cause
a. Chelosis
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Gastric hyperparesis
d. Inhibition of hepatic enzyme activity
Inhibition of hepatic enzyme activity
Aspirin is believed to inhibit clotting by its action on which of the following endogenous
substances
a. Endorphin A
b. Xanthine oxidase
c. Fibrinogen
d. Thromboxane
Thromboxane
Iron is required by the body to maintain normal
a. Digestion
b. Oxygen transport
c. Bone growth
d. Immunologic function
Oxygen transport
Gastric intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein that is required for the gastrointestinal absorption of
a. Folic acid
b. Iron
c. Tocopherols
d. Cyanocobalamin
Cyanocobalamin
The thiazide diuretics decrease the excretion of
a. Uric acid
b. Urea
c. Sodium
d. Creatinine
Uric acid
Beta carotene is considered to be a precursor for
a. Betaseron
b. Beta interferon
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin A
Vitamin A
Danazol can best be described as
a. Estrogen
b. Progestin
c. Androgen
d. Antimetabolite
Androgen
Which of the listed opioid below is among the recommended drugs for the management of
acute pulmonary edema?
a. Nalbuphine
b. Codeine
c. Morphine
d. Meperidine
Morphine
What is the dominant adrenergic receptor in the heart?
a. Alpha-1
b. Alpha-2
c. Beta-1
d. Beta-2
Beta-1
Which of the following agents is associated with development of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
a. Aspirin
b. Ticlopidine
c. Tirofiban
d. Eptifibatide
Ticlopidine
A given adrenergic agent induces uterine relaxation and bronchial smooth muscle relaxation.
These effects can be attributed to:
a. Alpha-1 stimulation
b. Alpha-2 stimulation
c. Beta-1 stimulation
d. Beta-2 stimulation
Beta-2 stimulation
Which of the following is an accepted indication for Epinephrine?
a. Local vasoconstrictor
b. Inotropic for cardiogenic shock
c. Bronchodilator for intermittent bronchial asthma
d. Anti-arrhythmic for supraventricular tachycardia
Local vasoconstrictor
Guanfacine and guanabenz are primarily agonists at what receptors?
a. Muscarinic-1
b. Nicotinic-N
c. Presynaptic alpha-2
d. Postsynaptic alpha-2
Presynaptic alpha-2
Bethanecol is clinically used for which of the following conditions?
a. Chronic glaucoma
b. Instestinal obstruction
c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. Urinary retention in neurogenic bladder
Urinary retention in neurogenic bladder
The effects of muscarinic receptor activation in tissues like the exocrine glands and the
extravascular smooth muscles have been linked with the generation of which second messenger molecule?
a. IP3
b. ATP
c. cAMP
d. cGMP
IP3
Which of the following agents exhibits pharmacodynamics interaction with the Thiazide
diuretics leading to a reduced diuretic effect?
a. Digoxin
b. Enalapril
c. Furosemide
d. Indomethacin
Enalapril
The action of the drug Eplerenone most closely resembles which of the following agents?
a. Amiloride
b. Triamterene
c. Metolazone
d. Spironolactone
Spironolactone
Trimethaphan is expected to produce which of the following effects?
a. Diarrhea
b. Excessive sweating
c. Hypotension
d. Pupillary constriction
Hypotension
Which of the following side effects is/are common to the three drugs: Hydralazine, Diazoxide,
and Minoxidil?
a. Dyslipidemia
b. Glucose intolerance
c. Hypertrichosis
d. Reflex tachycardia
Reflex tachycardia
What is the primary advantage of Angiotensin II receptor blockers over the ACE-inhibitors?
a. Faster onset of action
b. Lesser incidence of hyperkalemia
c. Lesser incidence of coughs
d. Absence of risk of interstitial nephritis
Lesser incidence of coughs
What is the most frequent side effect of methyldopa which can be seen particularly at the onset of treatment?
a. Sedation
b. Depression
c. Extrapyramidal signs
d. (+) Coomb’s test
Sedation
Which of the following is an opioid receptor that is responsible for inducing analgesia most
especially among women?
a. Kappa
b. Delta
c. Alpha
d. Epsilon
Kappa
Which of the following benzodiazepines is a prodrug that is hydrolyzed to the active metabolite Nordiazepam in the stomach?
a. Alprazolam
b. Chlorazepate
c. Diazepam
d. Lorazepam
Chlorazepate
What is the primary use of the drug Flumazenil?
a. Antagonizes the action of benzodiazepines
b. Stimulates the GABA-A receptor
c. Inhibits the 5-HT-1A receptor
d. Antagonizes the action of barbiturates
Antagonizes the action of benzodiazepines
Female patients with pituitary tumor and manifesting with amenorrhea and galactorrhea are
initially managed with Bromocriptine. What is the mechanism of Bromocriptine in these
conditions?
a. It inhibits the action of Dopamine
b. It inhibits the action of Oxytocin
c. It stimulates the release of Estrogen
d. It inhibits the action of Prolactin
It inhibits the action of Prolactin
What is responsible for the very short duration and very rapid onset of effect of the so-called
“ultra-short-acting barbiturates”
a. The presence of a sulfur group
b. The presence of a methoxy group
c. The presence of substituted barbital structure
d. The high lipid solubility of these agents
The high lipid solubility of these agents
When large doses of a local anesthetic must be administered, the risk of developing seizures can be significantly reduced with the use of which of the following agents as premedication?
a. Midazolam
b. Thiopental
c. Succinlycholine
d. Propofol
Midazolam
Poisonings with antipsychotics are rarely fatal. Which of the following agents is associated with
a higher incidence of fatal poisoning?
a. Mesoridazine
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Trifluphenazine
d. Haloperidol
Mesoridazine
What is the most common side effect associated with the use of tricyclic antidepressants?
a. Sedation
b. Tachycardia
c. Weight gain
d. Orthostatic hypotension
Weight gain
Which of the following agents is primarily bactericidal in its activity?
a. Clindamycin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Doxycycline
Ciprofloxacin
Which of the following agents belong to the cephalosporin group called cephamycins
a. Cefamandole
b. Cefprozil
c. Cefoxitin
d. Loracarbef
Cefoxitin
Which of the following agents is considered as a fourth generation cephalosporin?
a. Cefepime
b. Cefotaxime
c. Cefuroxime
d. Ceftriaxone
Cefepime
Which of the following tetracyclines is the drug of choice when tetracyclines are needed in
patient with renal insufficiency?
a. Oxytetracycline
b. Chlortetracycline
c. Methacycline
d. Doxycycline
Doxycycline
What form of erythromycin has the best oral absorption?
a. Erythromycin base
b. Erythromycin succinate
c. Erythromycin estolate
d. Erythromycin lactobionate
Erythromycin estolate
Which of the following aminoglycosides is considered as the most vestibulotoxic?
a. Neomycin
b. Amikacin
c. Streptomycin
d. Tobramycin
Streptomycin
What is the mechanism of action of the quinolone antibacterial agents?
a. Inhibit the incorporation of GABA into dihydropteroate
b. Inhibit the bacterial enzyme Topoisomerase II
c. Inhibit the DNA depenedent RNA polymerase of bacteria
d. Inhibit bacterial dihydrofolate reductase
Inhibit the bacterial enzyme Topoisomerase II
Which of the following aminoglycosides is considered as the most nephrotoxic?
a. Neomycin
b. Amikacin
c. Streptomycin
d. Tobramycin
Neomycin
Which of the following drugs for TB is given only during the intensive phase of therapy?
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol
d. Pyrazinamide
Pyrazinamide
Which of the following drugs given for tuberculosis is metabolized by the liver enzyme N -acetyltransferase whose expression is genetically determined and may vary in different populations?
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol
d. Pyrazinamide
Isoniazid
Which of the following drugs has been historically associated with the development of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, a fatal neurodegenerative disease caused by prions?
a. Pancreas-derived insulin
b. Pituitary-derived growth hormone
c. Thyroid hormone extract
d. Cortisol
Pituitary-derived growth hormone
A 34-year old female who works in a hospital was admitted for tachycardia, palpitations and weight loss. Her T4 was elevated with suppresses TSH but her thyroid scan showed a normal-sized gland with normal iodine uptake. Which of the following should be suspected?
a. Presence of Grave’s disease
b. Presence of solitary toxic nodule
c. Iodine deficiency goiter
d. Illicit intake of Levothyroxine
Illicit intake of Levothyroxine
Which of the following drugs is a biguanide?
a. Acetohexamide
b. Rosiglitazone
c. Nateglinide
d. Metformin
Metformin
Hemodialysis as an intervention for poisoning is indicated for which of the following drugs?
a. Ethylene glycol
b. Digoxin
c. Diazepam
d. Propranolol
Ethylene glycol
Deferoxamine is primarily indicated for the treatment of poisoning with which of the following
metals?
a. Lead
b. Mercury
c. Iron
d. Copper
Iron
The use of activated charcoal as a means of eliminating a drug taken in overdose is applicable
for which of the following drugs?
a. Carbamazepine
b. Ethanol
c. Ferrous sulfate
d. Lithium carbonate
Carbamazepine
The manifestations of oxalate poisoning are best managed with which of the following
antidotes?
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Fomepizole
c. Glucagon
d. Atropine
Calcium gluconate
A drug that causes a significant delay in the absorption of acetaminophen by reducing the rate
of gastric emptying
a. Anticholinergic
b. Levodopa
c. Digoxin
d. Propantheline
Anticholinergic
What is considered the most common mode of exposure to poisons?
a. Inhalation
b. Dermal exposure
c. Ingestion
d. Ophthalmic
Ingestion
Chloramphenicol can cause
a. Diarrhea
b. Emesis
c. Blindness
d. Bone Marrow Depression
Bone Marrow Depression
In Schizophrenic syndrome there is primarily
a. Decrease cholinergic activity
b. Increase dopaminergic activity
c. Decrease dopaminergic activity
d. Increase cholinergic activity
Increase dopaminergic activity
A method of inactivating a poison by the formation of complex
a. Precipitation
b. Oxidation
c. Enzyme Induction
d. Chelation
Chelation
A cobalt containing vitamin for pernicious anemia
a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin K
Vitamin B12
A substance that potentiates the effect of carcinogens
a. Promoters
b. Tertiary acting carcinogens
c. Direct acting carcinogens
d. Secondary acting carcinogens
Promoters
The specific antagonist for narcotic poisoning
a. Methylene Blue
b. BAL
c. Nalorphine
d. Starch
Nalorphine
Spoiled food brings about
a. All of these
b. Tinnitus aureum
c. Botulism
d. Ptomaine
Ptomaine
Toxic substance used as anti-knock in fuel additive and in the manufacture of electric cable, hose and pipes
a. Magnesium
b. Iron
c. Lead
d. Cobalt
Lead
Cimetidine is commonly used as
a. Anti-asmathic
b. Mucolytic
c. H2 Blocker
d. Antiemetic
H2 Blocker
Furosemide is useful for the treatment of all the following EXCEPT
a. Acute pulmonary edema
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hypertensive Crisis
d. CHF
Hypoglycemia
Antidote for isoniazid poisoning
a. Naloxone
b. Atropine
c. Vitamine B1
d. Pyridoxine
Pyridoxine
Atropine is an
a. Anti-nicotinic drug
b. Anti-adrenergic drug
c. Anti-cholinergic drug
d. Anti-dopaminergic drug
Anti-cholinergic drug
An anti-viral agent
a. Amantadine
b. Cytarabine
c. Vinblastine
d. Dapsone
Amantadine
An illegally manufactured drug which is a narcotic
a. Dionine
b. Heroine
c. Phenobarbital
d. LSD
Heroine
Most serious drug-induced blood disorder
a. Leukem
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Agranulocytosis
d. Thrombocytopenia
Aplastic anemia
The following are air pollutant except
a. Malathione
b. Sulfur dioxide
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Ozone
Malathione
Ethylene diamine-tetra acetic acid is an antidote for
a. Lead
b. All
c. Paris green
d. Phosphorus
Lead
Aldosterone is
a. An opioid
b. A Mineralcorticoid
c. A Glucocorticoid
d. All of these
A Mineralcorticoid
Hypertension might be due the following except
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Renal disease
c. Hyperlipidemia
d. Thyroid disease
Thyroid disease
An antihypertensive agent for hypertensive emergencies
a. Nitroprusside
b. Digoxin
c. Methyldopa
d. All of these
Nitroprusside
Coffee like grounds in vomitus is a sign of poisoning
a. Nitric acid
b. Sulfuric acid
c. Oxalic acid
d. All of these
Sulfuric acid
This can decrease gastric emptying time
a. Stress
b. None of these
c. Gastric ulcer
d. Mild exercise
Mild exercise
A bluish irritant gas
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Ozone
c. Sulfur dioxide
d. All of these
Ozone
Syrup of ipecac is an/a
a. Laxative
b. Emetic
c. Anorexiant
d. Appetite Stimulant
Emetic
Which of the following drug inhibit cyclooxygenase
a. Hydrocortisone
b. Ibuprofen
c. Epinephrine
d. Histamine
Ibuprofen
It is found in fossil fuel combustion
a. Mercury
b. Molybdenum
c. Manganese
d. Nickel
Manganese
Minamata disease is poisoning due to
a. Cadmium
b. Ozone
c. Mercury
d. Lead
Mercury
Uses of anti-cholinesterases includes all except
a. Myesthenia gravis
b. Atropine poisoning
c. Diarrhea
d. All of these
Diarrhea
Peptic ulcer is best managed by
a. Guava decoction
b. Loperamide
c. H2 Blocker
d. Anti-emetic
H2 Blocker
A useful chelator for clinical purposes
a. EDTA
b. Lithium
c. None of these
d. Atropine
EDTA
A group of drugs used widely to treat mild hypertension is/are
a. Narcotics
b. Diuretics
c. Ganglionic blocker
d. Sympathetic blocker
Diuretics
An antidote to theophylline poisoning
a. Analgesics
b. Ethanol
c. Anticonvulsant
d. Fenamates
Fenamates
The altered actions and uses of a drug when given in toxic doses is termed
a. Toxicodynamics
b. Algorithm
c. Toxicokinetics
d. None of these
Toxicodynamics
A non-volatile general anesthetic
a. Ether
b. Nitrous oxide
c. Thiopental sodium
d. Halothane
Thiopental sodium
