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Samplex Module 4 > Module 4 > Flashcards

Module 4 Flashcards

1
Q

The term “ biologic availability” or “bioavailability” refers to the relative amount of drug that
reaches the
a. Small intestine
b. Stomach
c. Systemic circulation
d. Liver

A

Systemic circulation

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2
Q

Which of the following is the first process that must occur before a drug can become available
for absorption from a tablet dosage form?
a. Dissolution of the drug in the GI fluids
b. Dissolution of the drug in the GI epithelium
c. Ionization of the drug
d. Disintegration of the tablet

A

Disintegration of the tablet

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3
Q

The rate of dissolution may be described by which one of the following equations or laws?
a. Fick’s second law
b. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
c. Noyes-Whitney equation
d. Stoke’s law

A

Noyes-Whitney equation

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4
Q

The area under the serum concentration-time curve represents the
a. Biologic half-life of the drug
b. Amount of drug that is cleared by the kidneys
c. Amount of drug in the original dosage forms
d. Amount of drug absorbed

A

Amount of drug absorbed

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5
Q

The “F” value for a drug product is ideally compared to its
a. Absolute bioavailability
b. Dosing rate
c. Relative bioavailability
d. Route of administration

A

Absolute bioavailability

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6
Q

Differences in bioavailability are most frequently observed with drugs administered by which of the following routes?
a. SQ
b. IV
c. PO
d. IM

A

PO

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7
Q

The biologic half-life of a drug
a. Is constant physical property of the drug
b. Is a constant chemical property of the drug
c. Is the time for one half-life of the therapeutic activity to be lost
d. May be decreased by giving the drugs by rapid IV injection

A

Is the time for one half-life of the therapeutic activity to be lost

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7
Q

Gastric emptying is slowed by all of the following except:
a. Fatty foods
b. Hot meals
c. Hunger
d. Emotional stress

A

Hunger

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8
Q

The biologic half-life of many drugs is often prolonged in newborn infants because of
a. A higher degree of protein binding
b. Microsomal enzyme induction
c. More completely absorption of drug
d. Incompletely developed enzyme systems

A

Incompletely developed enzyme systems

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9
Q

A knowledge of Vd for a given drug is useful because it allows us to
a. Estimate elimination rate constant
b. Determine the biologic half-life
c. Calculate a reasonable loading dose
d. Determine the best dosing interval

A

Calculate a reasonable loading dose

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10
Q

Estimate the plasma concentration of a drug when 50 mg is given by IV bolus to a 140-lb patient if her volume of distribution is 1.6L/kg
a. mg/L
b. 0.5 mg/L
c. mg/L
d. 5 mg/L

A

0.5 mg/L

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11
Q

The metabolism of drugs generally result in
a. Less acidic compounds
b. More acidic compounds
c. More polar compounds
d. Compounds with lower aqueous solubility

A

More polar compounds

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12
Q

An adverse effect commonly associated with the use of theophylline products is
a. Crystalluria
b. Skin rash
c. Syncope
d. Insomnia

A

Insomnia

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13
Q

As an antiarrhythmic drug, procainamide is most similar in action to which one of the following
agents?
a. Amiodarone
b. Propranolol
c. Verapamil
d. Quinidine

A

Quinidine

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14
Q

Colestipol HCl is most commonly employes as a/an
a. Antidote for atropine overdose
b. Hypoglycemic agent
c. Bile acid sequesterant
d. Fat substitute

A

Bile acid sequesterant

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15
Q

An agent that would be most likely to cause drug-induced bronchospasm is
a. Nedocromil
b. Enalapril
c. Isoproterenol
d. Pindolol

A

Pindolol

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16
Q

Sulfones such as dapsone are employed commonly in the treatment of
a. UTI
b. Psoriasis
c. Hansen’s disease
d. Cushing’s disease

A

Hansen’s disease

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17
Q

A commonly adverse effect associated with the chronic use of aluminum antacids is
a. Flatulence
b. Diarrhea
c. GI bleeding
d. Constipation

A

Constipation

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18
Q

A disadvantage in the use of cimetidine (Tagamet) is its ability to cause
a. Chelosis
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Gastric hyperparesis
d. Inhibition of hepatic enzyme activity

A

Inhibition of hepatic enzyme activity

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19
Q

Aspirin is believed to inhibit clotting by its action on which of the following endogenous
substances
a. Endorphin A
b. Xanthine oxidase
c. Fibrinogen
d. Thromboxane

A

Thromboxane

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20
Q

Iron is required by the body to maintain normal
a. Digestion
b. Oxygen transport
c. Bone growth
d. Immunologic function

A

Oxygen transport

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21
Q

Gastric intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein that is required for the gastrointestinal absorption of
a. Folic acid
b. Iron
c. Tocopherols
d. Cyanocobalamin

A

Cyanocobalamin

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22
Q

The thiazide diuretics decrease the excretion of
a. Uric acid
b. Urea
c. Sodium
d. Creatinine

A

Uric acid

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23
Q

Beta carotene is considered to be a precursor for
a. Betaseron
b. Beta interferon
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin A

A

Vitamin A

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24
Q

Danazol can best be described as
a. Estrogen
b. Progestin
c. Androgen
d. Antimetabolite

A

Androgen

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25
Q

Which of the listed opioid below is among the recommended drugs for the management of
acute pulmonary edema?
a. Nalbuphine
b. Codeine
c. Morphine
d. Meperidine

A

Morphine

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26
Q

What is the dominant adrenergic receptor in the heart?
a. Alpha-1
b. Alpha-2
c. Beta-1
d. Beta-2

A

Beta-1

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27
Q

Which of the following agents is associated with development of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
a. Aspirin
b. Ticlopidine
c. Tirofiban
d. Eptifibatide

A

Ticlopidine

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28
Q

A given adrenergic agent induces uterine relaxation and bronchial smooth muscle relaxation.
These effects can be attributed to:
a. Alpha-1 stimulation
b. Alpha-2 stimulation
c. Beta-1 stimulation
d. Beta-2 stimulation

A

Beta-2 stimulation

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29
Q

Which of the following is an accepted indication for Epinephrine?
a. Local vasoconstrictor
b. Inotropic for cardiogenic shock
c. Bronchodilator for intermittent bronchial asthma
d. Anti-arrhythmic for supraventricular tachycardia

A

Local vasoconstrictor

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30
Q

Guanfacine and guanabenz are primarily agonists at what receptors?
a. Muscarinic-1
b. Nicotinic-N
c. Presynaptic alpha-2
d. Postsynaptic alpha-2

A

Presynaptic alpha-2

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31
Q

Bethanecol is clinically used for which of the following conditions?
a. Chronic glaucoma
b. Instestinal obstruction
c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. Urinary retention in neurogenic bladder

A

Urinary retention in neurogenic bladder

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32
Q

The effects of muscarinic receptor activation in tissues like the exocrine glands and the
extravascular smooth muscles have been linked with the generation of which second messenger molecule?
a. IP3
b. ATP
c. cAMP
d. cGMP

A

IP3

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33
Q

Which of the following agents exhibits pharmacodynamics interaction with the Thiazide
diuretics leading to a reduced diuretic effect?
a. Digoxin
b. Enalapril
c. Furosemide
d. Indomethacin

A

Enalapril

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34
Q

The action of the drug Eplerenone most closely resembles which of the following agents?
a. Amiloride
b. Triamterene
c. Metolazone
d. Spironolactone

A

Spironolactone

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35
Q

Trimethaphan is expected to produce which of the following effects?
a. Diarrhea
b. Excessive sweating
c. Hypotension
d. Pupillary constriction

A

Hypotension

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36
Q

Which of the following side effects is/are common to the three drugs: Hydralazine, Diazoxide,
and Minoxidil?
a. Dyslipidemia
b. Glucose intolerance
c. Hypertrichosis
d. Reflex tachycardia

A

Reflex tachycardia

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37
Q

What is the primary advantage of Angiotensin II receptor blockers over the ACE-inhibitors?
a. Faster onset of action
b. Lesser incidence of hyperkalemia
c. Lesser incidence of coughs
d. Absence of risk of interstitial nephritis

A

Lesser incidence of coughs

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38
Q

What is the most frequent side effect of methyldopa which can be seen particularly at the onset of treatment?
a. Sedation
b. Depression
c. Extrapyramidal signs
d. (+) Coomb’s test

A

Sedation

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39
Q

Which of the following is an opioid receptor that is responsible for inducing analgesia most
especially among women?
a. Kappa
b. Delta
c. Alpha
d. Epsilon

A

Kappa

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40
Q

Which of the following benzodiazepines is a prodrug that is hydrolyzed to the active metabolite Nordiazepam in the stomach?
a. Alprazolam
b. Chlorazepate
c. Diazepam
d. Lorazepam

A

Chlorazepate

41
Q

What is the primary use of the drug Flumazenil?
a. Antagonizes the action of benzodiazepines
b. Stimulates the GABA-A receptor
c. Inhibits the 5-HT-1A receptor
d. Antagonizes the action of barbiturates

A

Antagonizes the action of benzodiazepines

42
Q

Female patients with pituitary tumor and manifesting with amenorrhea and galactorrhea are
initially managed with Bromocriptine. What is the mechanism of Bromocriptine in these
conditions?
a. It inhibits the action of Dopamine
b. It inhibits the action of Oxytocin
c. It stimulates the release of Estrogen
d. It inhibits the action of Prolactin

A

It inhibits the action of Prolactin

43
Q

What is responsible for the very short duration and very rapid onset of effect of the so-called
“ultra-short-acting barbiturates”
a. The presence of a sulfur group
b. The presence of a methoxy group
c. The presence of substituted barbital structure
d. The high lipid solubility of these agents

A

The high lipid solubility of these agents

44
Q

When large doses of a local anesthetic must be administered, the risk of developing seizures can be significantly reduced with the use of which of the following agents as premedication?
a. Midazolam
b. Thiopental
c. Succinlycholine
d. Propofol

A

Midazolam

45
Q

Poisonings with antipsychotics are rarely fatal. Which of the following agents is associated with
a higher incidence of fatal poisoning?
a. Mesoridazine
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Trifluphenazine
d. Haloperidol

A

Mesoridazine

46
Q

What is the most common side effect associated with the use of tricyclic antidepressants?
a. Sedation
b. Tachycardia
c. Weight gain
d. Orthostatic hypotension

A

Weight gain

47
Q

Which of the following agents is primarily bactericidal in its activity?
a. Clindamycin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Doxycycline

A

Ciprofloxacin

48
Q

Which of the following agents belong to the cephalosporin group called cephamycins
a. Cefamandole
b. Cefprozil
c. Cefoxitin
d. Loracarbef

A

Cefoxitin

49
Q

Which of the following agents is considered as a fourth generation cephalosporin?
a. Cefepime
b. Cefotaxime
c. Cefuroxime
d. Ceftriaxone

A

Cefepime

50
Q

Which of the following tetracyclines is the drug of choice when tetracyclines are needed in
patient with renal insufficiency?
a. Oxytetracycline
b. Chlortetracycline
c. Methacycline
d. Doxycycline

A

Doxycycline

51
Q

What form of erythromycin has the best oral absorption?
a. Erythromycin base
b. Erythromycin succinate
c. Erythromycin estolate
d. Erythromycin lactobionate

A

Erythromycin estolate

52
Q

Which of the following aminoglycosides is considered as the most vestibulotoxic?
a. Neomycin
b. Amikacin
c. Streptomycin
d. Tobramycin

A

Streptomycin

53
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the quinolone antibacterial agents?
a. Inhibit the incorporation of GABA into dihydropteroate
b. Inhibit the bacterial enzyme Topoisomerase II
c. Inhibit the DNA depenedent RNA polymerase of bacteria
d. Inhibit bacterial dihydrofolate reductase

A

Inhibit the bacterial enzyme Topoisomerase II

54
Q

Which of the following aminoglycosides is considered as the most nephrotoxic?
a. Neomycin
b. Amikacin
c. Streptomycin
d. Tobramycin

A

Neomycin

55
Q

Which of the following drugs for TB is given only during the intensive phase of therapy?
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol
d. Pyrazinamide

A

Pyrazinamide

56
Q

Which of the following drugs given for tuberculosis is metabolized by the liver enzyme N -acetyltransferase whose expression is genetically determined and may vary in different populations?
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol
d. Pyrazinamide

A

Isoniazid

57
Q

Which of the following drugs has been historically associated with the development of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, a fatal neurodegenerative disease caused by prions?
a. Pancreas-derived insulin
b. Pituitary-derived growth hormone
c. Thyroid hormone extract
d. Cortisol

A

Pituitary-derived growth hormone

58
Q

A 34-year old female who works in a hospital was admitted for tachycardia, palpitations and weight loss. Her T4 was elevated with suppresses TSH but her thyroid scan showed a normal-sized gland with normal iodine uptake. Which of the following should be suspected?

a. Presence of Grave’s disease
b. Presence of solitary toxic nodule
c. Iodine deficiency goiter
d. Illicit intake of Levothyroxine

A

Illicit intake of Levothyroxine

59
Q

Which of the following drugs is a biguanide?
a. Acetohexamide
b. Rosiglitazone
c. Nateglinide
d. Metformin

A

Metformin

60
Q

Hemodialysis as an intervention for poisoning is indicated for which of the following drugs?
a. Ethylene glycol
b. Digoxin
c. Diazepam
d. Propranolol

A

Ethylene glycol

60
Q

Deferoxamine is primarily indicated for the treatment of poisoning with which of the following
metals?
a. Lead
b. Mercury
c. Iron
d. Copper

A

Iron

61
Q

The use of activated charcoal as a means of eliminating a drug taken in overdose is applicable
for which of the following drugs?
a. Carbamazepine
b. Ethanol
c. Ferrous sulfate
d. Lithium carbonate

A

Carbamazepine

62
Q

The manifestations of oxalate poisoning are best managed with which of the following
antidotes?
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Fomepizole
c. Glucagon
d. Atropine

A

Calcium gluconate

63
Q

A drug that causes a significant delay in the absorption of acetaminophen by reducing the rate
of gastric emptying
a. Anticholinergic
b. Levodopa
c. Digoxin
d. Propantheline

A

Anticholinergic

64
Q

What is considered the most common mode of exposure to poisons?
a. Inhalation
b. Dermal exposure
c. Ingestion
d. Ophthalmic

A

Ingestion

65
Q

Chloramphenicol can cause
a. Diarrhea
b. Emesis
c. Blindness
d. Bone Marrow Depression

A

Bone Marrow Depression

65
Q

In Schizophrenic syndrome there is primarily
a. Decrease cholinergic activity
b. Increase dopaminergic activity
c. Decrease dopaminergic activity
d. Increase cholinergic activity

A

Increase dopaminergic activity

66
Q

A method of inactivating a poison by the formation of complex
a. Precipitation
b. Oxidation
c. Enzyme Induction
d. Chelation

A

Chelation

67
Q

A cobalt containing vitamin for pernicious anemia
a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin K

A

Vitamin B12

67
Q

A substance that potentiates the effect of carcinogens
a. Promoters
b. Tertiary acting carcinogens
c. Direct acting carcinogens
d. Secondary acting carcinogens

A

Promoters

68
Q

The specific antagonist for narcotic poisoning
a. Methylene Blue
b. BAL
c. Nalorphine
d. Starch

A

Nalorphine

69
Q

Spoiled food brings about
a. All of these
b. Tinnitus aureum
c. Botulism
d. Ptomaine

A

Ptomaine

70
Q

Toxic substance used as anti-knock in fuel additive and in the manufacture of electric cable, hose and pipes
a. Magnesium
b. Iron
c. Lead
d. Cobalt

A

Lead

71
Q

Cimetidine is commonly used as
a. Anti-asmathic
b. Mucolytic
c. H2 Blocker
d. Antiemetic

A

H2 Blocker

71
Q

Furosemide is useful for the treatment of all the following EXCEPT
a. Acute pulmonary edema
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hypertensive Crisis
d. CHF

A

Hypoglycemia

72
Q

Antidote for isoniazid poisoning
a. Naloxone
b. Atropine
c. Vitamine B1
d. Pyridoxine

A

Pyridoxine

73
Q

Atropine is an
a. Anti-nicotinic drug
b. Anti-adrenergic drug
c. Anti-cholinergic drug
d. Anti-dopaminergic drug

A

Anti-cholinergic drug

74
Q

An anti-viral agent
a. Amantadine
b. Cytarabine
c. Vinblastine
d. Dapsone

A

Amantadine

75
Q

An illegally manufactured drug which is a narcotic
a. Dionine
b. Heroine
c. Phenobarbital
d. LSD

A

Heroine

76
Q

Most serious drug-induced blood disorder
a. Leukem
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Agranulocytosis
d. Thrombocytopenia

A

Aplastic anemia

77
Q

The following are air pollutant except
a. Malathione
b. Sulfur dioxide
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Ozone

A

Malathione

78
Q

Ethylene diamine-tetra acetic acid is an antidote for
a. Lead
b. All
c. Paris green
d. Phosphorus

A

Lead

79
Q

Aldosterone is
a. An opioid
b. A Mineralcorticoid
c. A Glucocorticoid
d. All of these

A

A Mineralcorticoid

80
Q

Hypertension might be due the following except
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Renal disease
c. Hyperlipidemia
d. Thyroid disease

A

Thyroid disease

81
Q

An antihypertensive agent for hypertensive emergencies
a. Nitroprusside
b. Digoxin
c. Methyldopa
d. All of these

A

Nitroprusside

82
Q

Coffee like grounds in vomitus is a sign of poisoning
a. Nitric acid
b. Sulfuric acid
c. Oxalic acid
d. All of these

A

Sulfuric acid

83
Q

This can decrease gastric emptying time
a. Stress
b. None of these
c. Gastric ulcer
d. Mild exercise

A

Mild exercise

84
Q

A bluish irritant gas
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Ozone
c. Sulfur dioxide
d. All of these

A

Ozone

85
Q

Syrup of ipecac is an/a
a. Laxative
b. Emetic
c. Anorexiant
d. Appetite Stimulant

A

Emetic

86
Q

Which of the following drug inhibit cyclooxygenase
a. Hydrocortisone
b. Ibuprofen
c. Epinephrine
d. Histamine

A

Ibuprofen

87
Q

It is found in fossil fuel combustion
a. Mercury
b. Molybdenum
c. Manganese
d. Nickel

A

Manganese

87
Q

Minamata disease is poisoning due to
a. Cadmium
b. Ozone
c. Mercury
d. Lead

A

Mercury

88
Q

Uses of anti-cholinesterases includes all except
a. Myesthenia gravis
b. Atropine poisoning
c. Diarrhea
d. All of these

A

Diarrhea

88
Q

Peptic ulcer is best managed by
a. Guava decoction
b. Loperamide
c. H2 Blocker
d. Anti-emetic

A

H2 Blocker

89
Q

A useful chelator for clinical purposes
a. EDTA
b. Lithium
c. None of these
d. Atropine

A

EDTA

90
Q

A group of drugs used widely to treat mild hypertension is/are
a. Narcotics
b. Diuretics
c. Ganglionic blocker
d. Sympathetic blocker

A

Diuretics

91
Q

An antidote to theophylline poisoning
a. Analgesics
b. Ethanol
c. Anticonvulsant
d. Fenamates

A

Fenamates

92
Q

The altered actions and uses of a drug when given in toxic doses is termed
a. Toxicodynamics
b. Algorithm
c. Toxicokinetics
d. None of these

A

Toxicodynamics

93
Q

A non-volatile general anesthetic
a. Ether
b. Nitrous oxide
c. Thiopental sodium
d. Halothane

A

Thiopental sodium

Samplex Module 4 (5 decks)

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