Module 4 Flashcards by Janina Joya

The term “ biologic availability” or “bioavailability” refers to the relative amount of drug that
reaches the
a. Small intestine
b. Stomach
c. Systemic circulation
d. Liver

Systemic circulation

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Which of the following is the first process that must occur before a drug can become available
for absorption from a tablet dosage form?
a. Dissolution of the drug in the GI fluids
b. Dissolution of the drug in the GI epithelium
c. Ionization of the drug
d. Disintegration of the tablet

Disintegration of the tablet

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The rate of dissolution may be described by which one of the following equations or laws?
a. Fick’s second law
b. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
c. Noyes-Whitney equation
d. Stoke’s law

Noyes-Whitney equation

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The area under the serum concentration-time curve represents the
a. Biologic half-life of the drug
b. Amount of drug that is cleared by the kidneys
c. Amount of drug in the original dosage forms
d. Amount of drug absorbed

Amount of drug absorbed

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The “F” value for a drug product is ideally compared to its
a. Absolute bioavailability
b. Dosing rate
c. Relative bioavailability
d. Route of administration

Absolute bioavailability

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Differences in bioavailability are most frequently observed with drugs administered by which of the following routes?
a. SQ
b. IV
c. PO
d. IM

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The biologic half-life of a drug
a. Is constant physical property of the drug
b. Is a constant chemical property of the drug
c. Is the time for one half-life of the therapeutic activity to be lost
d. May be decreased by giving the drugs by rapid IV injection

Is the time for one half-life of the therapeutic activity to be lost

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Gastric emptying is slowed by all of the following except:
a. Fatty foods
b. Hot meals
c. Hunger
d. Emotional stress

Hunger

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The biologic half-life of many drugs is often prolonged in newborn infants because of
a. A higher degree of protein binding
b. Microsomal enzyme induction
c. More completely absorption of drug
d. Incompletely developed enzyme systems

Incompletely developed enzyme systems

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A knowledge of Vd for a given drug is useful because it allows us to
a. Estimate elimination rate constant
b. Determine the biologic half-life
c. Calculate a reasonable loading dose
d. Determine the best dosing interval

Calculate a reasonable loading dose

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Estimate the plasma concentration of a drug when 50 mg is given by IV bolus to a 140-lb patient if her volume of distribution is 1.6L/kg
a. mg/L
b. 0.5 mg/L
c. mg/L
d. 5 mg/L

0.5 mg/L

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The metabolism of drugs generally result in
a. Less acidic compounds
b. More acidic compounds
c. More polar compounds
d. Compounds with lower aqueous solubility

More polar compounds

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An adverse effect commonly associated with the use of theophylline products is
a. Crystalluria
b. Skin rash
c. Syncope
d. Insomnia

Insomnia

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As an antiarrhythmic drug, procainamide is most similar in action to which one of the following
agents?
a. Amiodarone
b. Propranolol
c. Verapamil
d. Quinidine

Quinidine

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Colestipol HCl is most commonly employes as a/an
a. Antidote for atropine overdose
b. Hypoglycemic agent
c. Bile acid sequesterant
d. Fat substitute

Bile acid sequesterant

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An agent that would be most likely to cause drug-induced bronchospasm is
a. Nedocromil
b. Enalapril
c. Isoproterenol
d. Pindolol

Pindolol

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Sulfones such as dapsone are employed commonly in the treatment of
a. UTI
b. Psoriasis
c. Hansen’s disease
d. Cushing’s disease

Hansen’s disease

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A commonly adverse effect associated with the chronic use of aluminum antacids is
a. Flatulence
b. Diarrhea
c. GI bleeding
d. Constipation

Constipation

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A disadvantage in the use of cimetidine (Tagamet) is its ability to cause
a. Chelosis
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Gastric hyperparesis
d. Inhibition of hepatic enzyme activity

Inhibition of hepatic enzyme activity

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Aspirin is believed to inhibit clotting by its action on which of the following endogenous
substances
a. Endorphin A
b. Xanthine oxidase
c. Fibrinogen
d. Thromboxane

Thromboxane

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Iron is required by the body to maintain normal
a. Digestion
b. Oxygen transport
c. Bone growth
d. Immunologic function

Oxygen transport

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Gastric intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein that is required for the gastrointestinal absorption of
a. Folic acid
b. Iron
c. Tocopherols
d. Cyanocobalamin

Cyanocobalamin

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The thiazide diuretics decrease the excretion of
a. Uric acid
b. Urea
c. Sodium
d. Creatinine

Uric acid

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Beta carotene is considered to be a precursor for
a. Betaseron
b. Beta interferon
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin A

Vitamin A

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Danazol can best be described as a. Estrogen b. Progestin c. Androgen d. Antimetabolite

Androgen

Which of the listed opioid below is among the recommended drugs for the management of acute pulmonary edema? a. Nalbuphine b. Codeine c. Morphine d. Meperidine

Morphine

What is the dominant adrenergic receptor in the heart? a. Alpha-1 b. Alpha-2 c. Beta-1 d. Beta-2

Beta-1

Which of the following agents is associated with development of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura? a. Aspirin b. Ticlopidine c. Tirofiban d. Eptifibatide

Ticlopidine

A given adrenergic agent induces uterine relaxation and bronchial smooth muscle relaxation. These effects can be attributed to: a. Alpha-1 stimulation b. Alpha-2 stimulation c. Beta-1 stimulation d. Beta-2 stimulation

Beta-2 stimulation

Which of the following is an accepted indication for Epinephrine? a. Local vasoconstrictor b. Inotropic for cardiogenic shock c. Bronchodilator for intermittent bronchial asthma d. Anti-arrhythmic for supraventricular tachycardia

Local vasoconstrictor

Guanfacine and guanabenz are primarily agonists at what receptors? a. Muscarinic-1 b. Nicotinic-N c. Presynaptic alpha-2 d. Postsynaptic alpha-2

Presynaptic alpha-2

Bethanecol is clinically used for which of the following conditions? a. Chronic glaucoma b. Instestinal obstruction c. Supraventricular tachycardia d. Urinary retention in neurogenic bladder

Urinary retention in neurogenic bladder

The effects of muscarinic receptor activation in tissues like the exocrine glands and the extravascular smooth muscles have been linked with the generation of which second messenger molecule? a. IP3 b. ATP c. cAMP d. cGMP

IP3

Which of the following agents exhibits pharmacodynamics interaction with the Thiazide diuretics leading to a reduced diuretic effect? a. Digoxin b. Enalapril c. Furosemide d. Indomethacin

Enalapril

The action of the drug Eplerenone most closely resembles which of the following agents? a. Amiloride b. Triamterene c. Metolazone d. Spironolactone

Spironolactone

Trimethaphan is expected to produce which of the following effects? a. Diarrhea b. Excessive sweating c. Hypotension d. Pupillary constriction

Hypotension

Which of the following side effects is/are common to the three drugs: Hydralazine, Diazoxide, and Minoxidil? a. Dyslipidemia b. Glucose intolerance c. Hypertrichosis d. Reflex tachycardia

Reflex tachycardia

What is the primary advantage of Angiotensin II receptor blockers over the ACE-inhibitors? a. Faster onset of action b. Lesser incidence of hyperkalemia c. Lesser incidence of coughs d. Absence of risk of interstitial nephritis

Lesser incidence of coughs

What is the most frequent side effect of methyldopa which can be seen particularly at the onset of treatment? a. Sedation b. Depression c. Extrapyramidal signs d. (+) Coomb’s test

Sedation

Which of the following is an opioid receptor that is responsible for inducing analgesia most especially among women? a. Kappa b. Delta c. Alpha d. Epsilon

Kappa

Which of the following benzodiazepines is a prodrug that is hydrolyzed to the active metabolite Nordiazepam in the stomach? a. Alprazolam b. Chlorazepate c. Diazepam d. Lorazepam

Chlorazepate

What is the primary use of the drug Flumazenil? a. Antagonizes the action of benzodiazepines b. Stimulates the GABA-A receptor c. Inhibits the 5-HT-1A receptor d. Antagonizes the action of barbiturates

Antagonizes the action of benzodiazepines

Female patients with pituitary tumor and manifesting with amenorrhea and galactorrhea are initially managed with Bromocriptine. What is the mechanism of Bromocriptine in these conditions? a. It inhibits the action of Dopamine b. It inhibits the action of Oxytocin c. It stimulates the release of Estrogen d. It inhibits the action of Prolactin

It inhibits the action of Prolactin

What is responsible for the very short duration and very rapid onset of effect of the so-called “ultra-short-acting barbiturates” a. The presence of a sulfur group b. The presence of a methoxy group c. The presence of substituted barbital structure d. The high lipid solubility of these agents

The high lipid solubility of these agents

When large doses of a local anesthetic must be administered, the risk of developing seizures can be significantly reduced with the use of which of the following agents as premedication? a. Midazolam b. Thiopental c. Succinlycholine d. Propofol

Midazolam

Poisonings with antipsychotics are rarely fatal. Which of the following agents is associated with a higher incidence of fatal poisoning? a. Mesoridazine b. Chlorpromazine c. Trifluphenazine d. Haloperidol

Mesoridazine

What is the most common side effect associated with the use of tricyclic antidepressants? a. Sedation b. Tachycardia c. Weight gain d. Orthostatic hypotension

Weight gain

Which of the following agents is primarily bactericidal in its activity? a. Clindamycin b. Ciprofloxacin c. Chloramphenicol d. Doxycycline

Ciprofloxacin

Which of the following agents belong to the cephalosporin group called cephamycins a. Cefamandole b. Cefprozil c. Cefoxitin d. Loracarbef

Cefoxitin

Which of the following agents is considered as a fourth generation cephalosporin? a. Cefepime b. Cefotaxime c. Cefuroxime d. Ceftriaxone

Cefepime

Which of the following tetracyclines is the drug of choice when tetracyclines are needed in patient with renal insufficiency? a. Oxytetracycline b. Chlortetracycline c. Methacycline d. Doxycycline

Doxycycline

What form of erythromycin has the best oral absorption? a. Erythromycin base b. Erythromycin succinate c. Erythromycin estolate d. Erythromycin lactobionate

Erythromycin estolate

Which of the following aminoglycosides is considered as the most vestibulotoxic? a. Neomycin b. Amikacin c. Streptomycin d. Tobramycin

Streptomycin

What is the mechanism of action of the quinolone antibacterial agents? a. Inhibit the incorporation of GABA into dihydropteroate b. Inhibit the bacterial enzyme Topoisomerase II c. Inhibit the DNA depenedent RNA polymerase of bacteria d. Inhibit bacterial dihydrofolate reductase

Inhibit the bacterial enzyme Topoisomerase II

Which of the following aminoglycosides is considered as the most nephrotoxic? a. Neomycin b. Amikacin c. Streptomycin d. Tobramycin

Neomycin

Which of the following drugs for TB is given only during the intensive phase of therapy? a. Isoniazid b. Rifampicin c. Ethambutol d. Pyrazinamide

Pyrazinamide

Which of the following drugs given for tuberculosis is metabolized by the liver enzyme N -acetyltransferase whose expression is genetically determined and may vary in different populations? a. Isoniazid b. Rifampicin c. Ethambutol d. Pyrazinamide

Isoniazid

Which of the following drugs has been historically associated with the development of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, a fatal neurodegenerative disease caused by prions? a. Pancreas-derived insulin b. Pituitary-derived growth hormone c. Thyroid hormone extract d. Cortisol

Pituitary-derived growth hormone

A 34-year old female who works in a hospital was admitted for tachycardia, palpitations and weight loss. Her T4 was elevated with suppresses TSH but her thyroid scan showed a normal-sized gland with normal iodine uptake. Which of the following should be suspected? a. Presence of Grave’s disease b. Presence of solitary toxic nodule c. Iodine deficiency goiter d. Illicit intake of Levothyroxine

Illicit intake of Levothyroxine

Which of the following drugs is a biguanide? a. Acetohexamide b. Rosiglitazone c. Nateglinide d. Metformin

Metformin

Hemodialysis as an intervention for poisoning is indicated for which of the following drugs? a. Ethylene glycol b. Digoxin c. Diazepam d. Propranolol

Ethylene glycol

Deferoxamine is primarily indicated for the treatment of poisoning with which of the following metals? a. Lead b. Mercury c. Iron d. Copper

Iron

The use of activated charcoal as a means of eliminating a drug taken in overdose is applicable for which of the following drugs? a. Carbamazepine b. Ethanol c. Ferrous sulfate d. Lithium carbonate

Carbamazepine

The manifestations of oxalate poisoning are best managed with which of the following antidotes? a. Calcium gluconate b. Fomepizole c. Glucagon d. Atropine

Calcium gluconate

A drug that causes a significant delay in the absorption of acetaminophen by reducing the rate of gastric emptying a. Anticholinergic b. Levodopa c. Digoxin d. Propantheline

Anticholinergic

What is considered the most common mode of exposure to poisons? a. Inhalation b. Dermal exposure c. Ingestion d. Ophthalmic

Ingestion

Chloramphenicol can cause a. Diarrhea b. Emesis c. Blindness d. Bone Marrow Depression

Bone Marrow Depression

In Schizophrenic syndrome there is primarily a. Decrease cholinergic activity b. Increase dopaminergic activity c. Decrease dopaminergic activity d. Increase cholinergic activity

Increase dopaminergic activity

A method of inactivating a poison by the formation of complex a. Precipitation b. Oxidation c. Enzyme Induction d. Chelation

Chelation

A cobalt containing vitamin for pernicious anemia a. Vitamin E b. Vitamin B12 c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin K

Vitamin B12

A substance that potentiates the effect of carcinogens a. Promoters b. Tertiary acting carcinogens c. Direct acting carcinogens d. Secondary acting carcinogens

Promoters

The specific antagonist for narcotic poisoning a. Methylene Blue b. BAL c. Nalorphine d. Starch

Nalorphine

Spoiled food brings about a. All of these b. Tinnitus aureum c. Botulism d. Ptomaine

Ptomaine

Toxic substance used as anti-knock in fuel additive and in the manufacture of electric cable, hose and pipes a. Magnesium b. Iron c. Lead d. Cobalt

Lead

Cimetidine is commonly used as a. Anti-asmathic b. Mucolytic c. H2 Blocker d. Antiemetic

H2 Blocker

Furosemide is useful for the treatment of all the following EXCEPT a. Acute pulmonary edema b. Hypoglycemia c. Hypertensive Crisis d. CHF

Hypoglycemia

Antidote for isoniazid poisoning a. Naloxone b. Atropine c. Vitamine B1 d. Pyridoxine

Pyridoxine

Atropine is an a. Anti-nicotinic drug b. Anti-adrenergic drug c. Anti-cholinergic drug d. Anti-dopaminergic drug

Anti-cholinergic drug

An anti-viral agent a. Amantadine b. Cytarabine c. Vinblastine d. Dapsone

Amantadine

An illegally manufactured drug which is a narcotic a. Dionine b. Heroine c. Phenobarbital d. LSD

Heroine

Most serious drug-induced blood disorder a. Leukem b. Aplastic anemia c. Agranulocytosis d. Thrombocytopenia

Aplastic anemia

The following are air pollutant except a. Malathione b. Sulfur dioxide c. Carbon monoxide d. Ozone

Malathione

Ethylene diamine-tetra acetic acid is an antidote for a. Lead b. All c. Paris green d. Phosphorus

Lead

Aldosterone is a. An opioid b. A Mineralcorticoid c. A Glucocorticoid d. All of these

A Mineralcorticoid

Hypertension might be due the following except a. Diabetes mellitus b. Renal disease c. Hyperlipidemia d. Thyroid disease

Thyroid disease

An antihypertensive agent for hypertensive emergencies a. Nitroprusside b. Digoxin c. Methyldopa d. All of these

Nitroprusside

Coffee like grounds in vomitus is a sign of poisoning a. Nitric acid b. Sulfuric acid c. Oxalic acid d. All of these

Sulfuric acid

This can decrease gastric emptying time a. Stress b. None of these c. Gastric ulcer d. Mild exercise

Mild exercise

A bluish irritant gas a. Carbon monoxide b. Ozone c. Sulfur dioxide d. All of these

Ozone

Syrup of ipecac is an/a a. Laxative b. Emetic c. Anorexiant d. Appetite Stimulant

Emetic

Which of the following drug inhibit cyclooxygenase a. Hydrocortisone b. Ibuprofen c. Epinephrine d. Histamine

Ibuprofen

It is found in fossil fuel combustion a. Mercury b. Molybdenum c. Manganese d. Nickel

Manganese

Minamata disease is poisoning due to a. Cadmium b. Ozone c. Mercury d. Lead

Mercury

Uses of anti-cholinesterases includes all except a. Myesthenia gravis b. Atropine poisoning c. Diarrhea d. All of these

Diarrhea

Peptic ulcer is best managed by a. Guava decoction b. Loperamide c. H2 Blocker d. Anti-emetic

H2 Blocker

A useful chelator for clinical purposes a. EDTA b. Lithium c. None of these d. Atropine

EDTA

A group of drugs used widely to treat mild hypertension is/are a. Narcotics b. Diuretics c. Ganglionic blocker d. Sympathetic blocker

Diuretics

An antidote to theophylline poisoning a. Analgesics b. Ethanol c. Anticonvulsant d. Fenamates

Fenamates

The altered actions and uses of a drug when given in toxic doses is termed a. Toxicodynamics b. Algorithm c. Toxicokinetics d. None of these

Toxicodynamics

A non-volatile general anesthetic a. Ether b. Nitrous oxide c. Thiopental sodium d. Halothane

Thiopental sodium