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Samplex Module 4 > Modulars for Module 4 > Flashcards

Modulars for Module 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following groups of drugs inhibit platelet aggregation by
interfering with GPIIB/IIIA binding to fibrinogen?
a. Abciximab, Eptifibatide, Tirofiban
b. Clopidogrel, Ticlopidine, Prasugrel
c. Aspirin, Salsalate, Prasugrel
d. Cilostazol, Dipyridamole

A

Abciximab, Eptifibatide, Tirofiban

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2
Q

A 65 year old woman received an antithrombotic prophylaxis of enoxaparin, a low molecular weight heprain (LMWH). What is the MOA of the action of the drug used
a. Impairs post-translational modification of Vitamin-K idependent clotting
factors
b. Activates antithrombin III
c. Inhibits Factors Xa in the final common pathway
d. Inhibits Vitamin K epoxide reductase

A

Activates antithrombin III

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3
Q

Which of the ff. drugs accelerates the conversion of plasminogen to
plasmin
a. aminocaproic acid
b. Heparin
c. Argatroban
d. Reteplase

A

Reteplase

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4
Q

A patient complains of severe nosebleed after being treated with
warfarin. To prevent severe hemmorhage, the warfarin should be
discontinued, and the patient should be treated with which of the ff?
a. Aminocaproic acid
b. desmopressin
c.Factor 3
d. Vitamin K

A

Vitamin K

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5
Q

Injecting botulinum toxin causes flaccid paralysis of the facial muscles
via which mechanism on acetylcholine?
a. inhibiting its degradation
b. blockade of vesicular storage
c. acting on the rate-limiting step
d. Preventing its release

A

Preventing its release

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6
Q

A patient with suspected mushroom poisoning presents with blurring of
vision, small pupils, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, excessive sweating and
salivation, and a heart rate of 50. What treatment will you give?
a. Atropine
b. Diazepam
c. Loperamide
d. Salbutamol

A

Atropine

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7
Q

Dobutamine is used for cardiogenic shock because of its effect on
which receptor?
a. a1
b. a2
c. b1
d. b2

A

b1

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8
Q

The first dose phenomenon that manifest as orthostatic hypotension
may occur when a patient takes which medication?
a. Propanolol
b. Terazosin
c. Nitroglycerin
D. Diltiazem

A

Terazosin

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9
Q

A hypertensive patient was prescribed with Metoprolol to be taken
once a day. What is the principal contraindication when giving this drug?
a. Pre-Existing AV Block
b. Arrhythmia
c. Angina
d. Migraine

A

Pre-Existing AV Block

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10
Q

A medication that can be utilized for both asthma and premature labor
is likely to be acting on which receptor?
a. Muscarinic-2
b. Muscarinic-3
c. B1
d. B2

A

B2

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11
Q

Ethacrynic acid being given for pulmonary edema acts by inhibiting
which transporter?
A. Na/Cl transporter
B. Na/K/2Cl transporter
C. Na-glucose transporter
D. Aquaporin-2 channels

A

Na/K/2Cl transporter

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12
Q

Verapamil may be useful in patients with angina or hypertension, but
a usual undesirable effect is that it may cause:
A. Cyanide toxicity
B. Hirsutism
C. Gingival hyperplasia
D. Lupus

A

Gingival hyperplasia

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13
Q

Which of the ff. drugs do we avoid giving to pregnant hypertensive
patients due to the risk of renal agenesis and neonatal morbidity
a. nifedipine
b. propranolol
c. Losartan
d. Nitroglycerin

A

Losartan

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14
Q

This drug, when given to a patient with pesticide poisoning, will NOT
BE EFFECTIVE in reversing its central effects:
a. Atropine
b. Pralidoxime
c. Edrophonium
d.Physostigmine

A

Physostigmine

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14
Q

Which of the following BP Lowering agents has been discontinued
due to its psychiatric effects such as predisposition for severe depression
and suicidal ideations?
a. Reserpine
b. metolazone
c. Fenoldepam
d. Diazoxide

A

Fenoldepam

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14
Q

We must be cautious in combining atorvastatin with gemfibrozil because of an increased risk for which of the ff?
a. Cholelithiasis
B. Hypercholesterolemia
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Hepatotoxicity

A

Rhabdomyolysis

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15
Q

A 20 year old student was prescribed with a beta blocker that blocks
b1>b2. The most likely drug prescribed is
A. propanolol
B. Carvedilol
C. Nadolol
D. Metoprolol

A

Metoprolol

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16
Q

A 15 year old teen developed bronchoconstriction, mucous membrane congestion, angioedema, and severe hypotension following
intake of a drug which he is allergic to. This is a case of anaphylaxis. The
first line of drug is
A. Dobutamine
B. Prednisone
C. Epinephrine
D. Terbutaline

A

Epinephrine

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17
Q

An 18 year old was given atropine 0.5 mg tablet two times a day for
the reversal of hyperhidrosis. However, she took 20 tablets in single dose
because of several problems. Which of the ff. do you expect to see?
A. Increased salivation
B. Cyclopegia
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypothermia

A

Cyclopegia

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18
Q

Release inhibitor that reduces degranulation of mast cells from
immunologic triggering by antigen-IgE interaction.
A. Epinephrine
B. Cromolyn Na
C. Loratadine
D. Montelukast

A

Cromolyn Na

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19
Q

A 17-year old on flight to USA has history of motion sickness. The
most appropriate drug to give 30 minutes before departure to prevent this
symptom is
A. Scopolamine
B. Hydroxyzine
C. Chlorpheniramine
D. Cetirizine

A

Scopolamine

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20
Q

KC , a 65 y/o hypertensive female presents with bipedal edema and
low eGFR. The most effective drug for producing diuresis is
A. Amlodipine
B. Losartan
C. Furosemide
D. Hydrochlorothiazide

A

Furosemide

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21
Q

A 60 y/o hypertensive male who had myocardial infarction a few years ago is now showing signs of congestive heart failure.
Spironolactone was added to his drug regimen. Which of the following adverse effect/s may be anticipated from this drug?
a. Hyperuricemia
b. Gynecomastia
c. Lupus-like syndrome
d. Ototoxicity

A

Gynecomastia

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22
Q

This diuretic binds to mineralocorticoid receptors and blocks
aldosterone
a. Amiloride
b. Ethacrynic acid
c. Eplerenone
d. Traimterene

A

Eplerenone

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23
Q

A 35 y/o male who has been taking an unrecalled diuretic developed alkalosis and ototoxicity. The most likely drug is:
a. Acetazolamide
b. Chlorothiazide
c. Furosemide
d. Spironolactone

A

Furosemide

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24
Q

A pregnant mother recently had a BP of 150/190. What anti-
hypertensive agent may be most likely prescribed to her?

a. Irbesartan
b. Reserpine
c. Methyldopa
d. Captopril

A

Methyldopa

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25
Q

This anti-hypertensive agent inhibits vesicular catecholamine transport and storage:
a. Methyldopa
b. Guanabenz
c. Reserpine
d. Clonidine

A

Reserpine

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26
Q

Irbesartan was substituted for Lisinopril after the patient developed a bothersome dry cough. What is the culprit for the cough of the patient?
a. Overproduction of renin
b. Sulfhydryl group
c. Bradykinin
d. Chymas

A

Bradykinin

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27
Q

Nifedipine acts to:
a. Decrease the sensitivity of the ryanodine receptors
b. Prevent the activation of the L-type calcium channels on the T-tubules
c. Increase intracellular calcium by inhibiting the Na-K ATPase pump
d. Blocks the active site of actin

A

Prevent the activation of the L-type calcium channels on the T-tubules

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28
Q

Which stage of anesthesia is present if the patient is hyperactive and has irregular vital signs
a. Stage I - Analgesia
b. Stage II - Excitation and Delirium
c. Stage III - Surgical Anesthesia
d. Stage IV - Respiratory Depression

A

Stage II - Excitation and Delirium

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29
Q

The following are inhaled anesthetics, EXCEPT:
a. Nitrous Oxide
b. Halothane
c. Methoxyflurane
d. Midazolam

A

Midazolam

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30
Q

TRUE regarding ESTER vs AMIDE anesthetics:
a. Amides are usually short-acting compared to ester-based anesthetics.
b. Esters are degraded by hepatic esterases
c. Mepivacaine and Bupivacaine are examples of amide anesthetic agents
d. Ropivacaine has the shortes half-life among all local anesthetics

A

Mepivacaine and Bupivacaine are examples of amide anesthetic agents

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31
Q

A 28-year old pregnant woman in her 1st trimester comes to you with exophthalmos, heat intolerance, palpitations, and unintentional weight
loss which are signs of Grave’s Disease (under hyperthyroidism). What is the preferred treatment?
a. Propranolol
b. Methimazole
c. Propylthiouracil
d. Lugol’s solution

A

Propylthiouracil

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32
Q

Finasteride may be used in managing benign prostatic hyperplasia
because of its ability to inhibit:
a. Aromatase
b. GnRH receptors
c. 5-alpha reducatse
d. Androgen receptors

A

5-alpha reducatse

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33
Q

An example of a long-acting insulin.
a. Lispro
b. Aspart
c. Humulin R
d. Degludec

A

Degludec

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34
Q

The first line treatment for a diabetic patient with a BMI of 29 (Obese)
is a:
a. GLP-1 agonist
b. Biguanide
c. DPP-4 Inhibitor
d. SGLT-2 Inhibitor

A

Biguanide

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35
Q

This drug used for hyperthyroidism acts via the mechanism of Wolff-
Chaikoff effect:

a. Propranolol
b. Methimazole
c. Propylthiouracil
d. Lugol’s solution

A

Lugol’s solution

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36
Q

Which of the following is a common direct or reflex effect of
nitroglycerin?
a. Decreased heart rate
b. Decreased venous capitance
c. Increased afterload
d. Increased cardiac force

A

Increased cardiac force

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37
Q

A 23-year old woman is using albuterol inhaler for frequent acute
episodes of asthma and complains of symptoms that she ascribed to the
albuterol. Which of the following is not a recognized action of albuterol?
(Note: Albuterol is also known as Salbutamol)
a. Diuretic effect
b. Positive inotropic effect
c. Skeletal muscle tremor
d. Smooth muscle relaxation

A

Diuretic effect

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38
Q

A 19-year old college student has well-controlled asthma, but on reporting to the college health clinic, complains of a sore throat. On examination, he has typical signs of thrust, a fungal infection with Candida albicans. The asthma controller medication most likely to be associated with Candida infection is:
a. Salbutamol by aerosol
b. Beclomethasone by aerosol
c. Ipratropium inhaler
d. Predinsone by mouth

A

Beclomethasone by aerosol

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39
Q

Oral medications are popular for the treatment of asthma in children because young children may have difficulty with proper use of aerosol inhalers. Which of the following is an orally active inhibitor of leukotriene
receptors?
a. Zileuton
b. Aminophylline
c. Ipratropium
d. Zafirlukast

A

Zafirlukast

40
Q

Which of the following drugs has been shown to reduce mortality in
chronic heart failure?
a. Atenolol
b. Digoxin
c. Furosemide
d. Spironolactone

A

Spironolactone

40
Q

Which of the following drugs can be used by nebulizer for a prompt
direct bronchodilatior effects in severe, actue asthma attacks?
a. Salbutamol
b. Ipratropium
c. Predisone
d. Salmeterol

A

Salbutamol

41
Q

Which of the following drugs in high doses can cause bradycardia?
a. Amlodipine
b. Isosorbide dinitrate
c. Nitroglycerin
d. Verapamil

A

Verapamil

42
Q

The following are examples of mucolytics/mucoregulators, EXCEPT:
a. Carbocisteine
b. Erdosteine
c. Bromhexine
d. Butamirate citrate

A

Butamirate citrate

43
Q

This drug classification used for cough acts by reducing disulfide
bridges that bind glycoproteins to other proteins such as albumin.
a. Mucolytic
b. Expectorant
c. Centrally-acting antitussive
d. Peripherally-acting antitussive

A

Mucolytic

44
Q

This condition can occur if topical decongestatns are used for more
than 5 days.
a. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
b. Rhinitis medicamentosa
c. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
d. Cushing’s Syndrome

A

Rhinitis medicamentosa

45
Q

The study of a drugs absorption, distribution, metabolism, and
excretion.
a. Biopharmaceutics
b. Bioavailability
c. Pharmacodynamics
d. Pharmacokinetics

A

Pharmacokinetics

46
Q

The following are drugs with narrow therapeutic index, EXCEPT:
a. Warfarin
b. Theophylline
c. Digoxin
d. Paracetamol

A

Paracetamol

47
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding crystalline properties of
drugs?
a. Crystals are less rigid & less thermodynamically stable than
amorphous form
b. Generally, they have a faster dissolution rate compared to amorphouse
forms
c. Hydrates are also called amorphous compounds
d. Erythromycin dihydrate has a faster dissolution than its monohydrate
or anhydrous counterparts in phosphate buffer

A

Erythromycin dihydrate has a faster dissolution than its monohydrate
or anhydrous counterparts in phosphate buffer

48
Q

Supposed that the drugs below were administered at the same
dosages, which of the following has the highest fraction/concentration in
the central compartment?
a. Drug A - 40% peripheral tissues, 60% - systemic circulation (20%
protein bound, 40% unbound)
b. Drug B - 40% peripheral tissues, 60% systemic circulation (45%
protein bound, 15% unbound)
c. Drug C - 70% peripheral tissues, 30% systemic circulation (10%
protein bound, 20% unbound)
d. Drug D - 20% peripheral tissues, 80% systemic circulation (30%
protein bound, 50% unbound)

A

Drug D - 20% peripheral tissues, 80% systemic circulation (30%
protein bound, 50% unbound)

49
Q

Which of the following drugs will be most active?
a. Drug A - 40% peripheral tissues, 60% - systemic circulation (20%
protein bound, 40% unbound)
b. Drug B - 40% peripheral tissues, 60% systemic circulation (45%
protein bound, 15% unbound)
c. Drug C - 70% peripheral tissues, 30% systemic circulation (10%
protein bound, 20% unbound)
d. Drug D - 20% peripheral tissues, 80% systemic circulation (30%
protein bound, 50% unbound)

A

Drug D - 20% peripheral tissues, 80% systemic circulation (30%
protein bound, 50% unbound)

50
Q

What type of reaction order/elimination order is being portrayed:
2.5 units/h, 2.5 unit/h, 2.5 unit/h
a. First-Order Elimination
b. Zero-Order Elimination
c. Pseudo-Order Elimination
d. Second-Order Elimination

A

Zero-Order Elimination

51
Q

The time required for one-half of the drug concentration to disappear
a. Half-life
b. t50
c. t1/2
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

52
Q

The following statements describe First-Order Kinetics, EXCEPT:
A. Fixed percentage or fraction of drug is removed per unit of time.
B. To compute for the half-life of a drug in first-order kinetics we use the
formula, t50= 0.693/k1.
C. The rate is dependent upon the concentration of the drug.
D. Fixed amount or concentration of drug is removed per unit of time.

A

Fixed amount or concentration of drug is removed per unit of time.

53
Q

Drugs with long elimination half-lives will have a ________ clearance.
A. fast
B. slow
C. intermediate
D. instantaneous

A

slow

54
Q

The removal of the “intact” drug from the body is __________.
A. Drug elimination
B. Biotransformation
C. Drug excretion
D. Absorption

A

Drug excretion

55
Q

The rate at which a drug reaches the systemic circulation can be
determined by the slowest step of the sequence of a kinetic process
which we call ________________.
A. Irreversible step
B. Reversible step
C. Steady-state concentration
D. Rate-limiting step

A

Rate-limiting step

56
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding Fick’s Law of Diffusion?
A. Increasing the concentration gradient will also increase the rate of absorption.
B. Increasing the thickness of the membrane will increase the rate of
absorption.
C. Decreasing the lipid/water partition coefficient will increase the lipid
solubility of the substance, thus increasing its rate of absorption.
D. Increasing the surface area for absorption will decrease the rate of
diffusion.

A

Increasing the concentration gradient will also increase the rate of absorption.

57
Q

TRUE regarding passive diffusion vs carrier-mediated system:
A. In carrier-mediated transport, the initial rise in the curve is governed by first-order kinetics, while the saturation point or plateau phase of the slide is governed by zero-order kinetics.
B. Passive Diffusion has a curvilinear graph.
C. Passive Diffusion is governed by zero-order kinetics.
D. In carrier-mediated transport, once the saturation point is reached,
increasing the drug’s concentration can increase the rate of drug
absorption.

A

In carrier-mediated transport, the initial rise in the curve is governed by first-order kinetics, while the saturation point or plateau phase of the slide is governed by zero-order kinetics.

58
Q

The movement of drugs across biologic membranes is influenced by:
A. Mechanism of transport
B. Binding affinity for tissue or plasma proteins
C. Degree of ionization as influenced by the pKa of the drug and the pH
of the medium
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above

A

All of the above.

59
Q

A patient who took excessive amounts of Aspirin had ABG findings
revealing high-anion gap metabolic acidosis. One way to aid in the
elimination of this drug from the body is by:
A. Acidification of urine with ammonium chloride
B. Alkalinization of urine with sodium bicarbonate
C. Administration of tranexamic acid
D. Administration of prostaglandin analog

A

Alkalinization of urine with sodium bicarbonate

60
Q

Characteristics of a drug that allows it to undergo extensive
distribution include the following, EXCEPT:
A. Charged
B. Non-polar
C. Water-insoluble
D. Unionized

A

Charged

61
Q

What is the possible reason why a patient taking Warfarin may have
increased risk of hemorrhage when he/she is also taking grapefruit juice?
A. The juice is a cytochrome p450 inhibitor.
B. The juice also has anticoagulant effects.
C. Warfarin increases the amount of the juice.
D. The two severely damage the mucosal lining.

A

The juice is a cytochrome p450 inhibitor

62
Q

A drug administered via which route would be able to completely
reach the systemic circulation?
A. Intramuscular
B. Intravenous
C. Oral
D. Subcutaneous

A

Intravenous

63
Q

The following are functions of gastric/stomach motility:
A. To allow the stomach to serve as a reservoir for the large volume of
food
that may be ingested at a single meal.
B. To fragment food into smaller particles via the process of antral milling,
and mixing these food particles with gastric secretions to form chyme.
C. Emptying gastric context into the duodenum at a controlled rate.
D. All of the above.

A

All of the above.

64
Q

The following factors will cause an increase in the gastric emptying,
EXCEPT:
A. Increase in food temperature
B. Metoclopramide
C. Anxiety, stress, aggressiveness
D. GIT with high osmolality

A

GIT with high osmolality

65
Q

The following drugs will have increased absorption with food,
EXCEPT:
A. Penicillin G
B. Phenytoin
C. Dicoumarol
D. Griseofulvin

A

Penicillin G

66
Q

This is the best site for GIT absorption. It has a large surface area
(due to villi and microvilli) and is highly perfused, thus drug absorption is
highly effective in this segment.
A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Colon

A

Duodenum

67
Q

How does bile affect GI drug absorption?
A. Bile increases the absorption of polar drugs through the process of
micelle formation.
B. Bile increases the absorption of fat-soluble drug through the process of pinocytosis.
C. Bile increases the absorption of pola drugs through the process of
pinocytosis.
D. Bile increases the absorption of non-polar drugs through the process of micelle formation.

A

Bile increases the absorption of non-polar drugs through the process of micelle formation.

68
Q

These are any foreign substances not normally found in the human
body.
A. Toxins
B. Poisons
C. Xenobiotics
D. Antibiotics

A

Xenobiotics

69
Q

The ability of a substance to cause biological change, leading to
adverse effects.
A. Risk
B. Hazard
C. Toxicity
D. Intoxication

A

Toxicity

70
Q

This is the smallest dose that kills 50% of the populations and is
usually measured in poisons administered at any route except inhalation:
A. LD50
B. LC50
C. ED50
D. Therapeutic Index

A

LD50

71
Q

TRUE regarding local effects of acids and bases:
A. Alkalis are corrosives which lead to coagulative type of necrosis
(solidification)
B. Acids are caustics which lead to liquefactive type of necrosis
(perforation)
C. Acid are corrosives which lead to coagulative type of necrosis
(solidification)
D. Alkalis are caustics which lead to coagulative type of necrosis
(solidification)

A

Acid are corrosives which lead to coagulative type of necrosis
(solidification)

72
Q

Sternutators are substances which stimulate __________. Examples
of which are strychnine and veratrine.
A. Excessive flow of tears from lacrimal glands
B. Excessive sneezing
C. Produce muscular weakness; exhaustives
D. Produce mental weakness, depression, stupor, coma, and respiratory
depression

A

Excessive sneezing

73
Q

Exposure to a toxic substance for 2 months will be classified under:
A. Acute
B. Sub-acute
C. Sub-chronic
D. Chronic

A

Sub-chronic

74
Q

Which organ system is usually the first one involved during systemic
toxicity?
A. CNS
B. Circulatory System
C. Blood and hematopoietic system
D. Visceral organs (liver, kidneys, lungs, skin)

A

CNS

75
Q

This type of reaction/molecular binding is practically irreversible
(permanent). It is common with electrophilic toxicants and to a lesser
degree with neutral free radicals.
A. Covalent Binding
B. Noncovalent Binding
C. Hydrogen Abstraction
D. Electron Transfer

A

Covalent Binding

76
Q

A classic hepatotoxin, but kidney injury is often more severe in
humans. It also plays a significant role in atmospheric ozone depletion.
A. Tetrachloroethylene
B. Methylene chloride
C. Carbon Tetrachloride
D. Chloroform

A

Carbon Tetrachloride

77
Q

It is used primarily in the production of the refrigerant
chlorodifluoromethane (Freon 22). Is it hepatotoxic and nephrotoxic. It
can invoke CNS symptoms at subanesthetic concentrations (similar to
alcohol intoxication).
A. Tetrachloroethylene
B. Methylene chloride
C. Carbon Tetrachloride
D. Chloroform

A

Chloroform

78
Q

It is derived primarily from petroleum and is used in the synthesis of
other chemicals and is used as an antiknock agent in unleaded gasoline.
Inhalation is the primary route of exposure. It can cause hematopoietic
toxicity on chronic exposure manifesting initially as anemia, leukopenia,
thrombocytopenia, or a combination of these.
A. Benzene
B. Toluene
C. Xylene
D. Ethylbenzene

A

Benzene

79
Q

This poison identification test is used to detect the presence of acetone. A positive result yields an indigotin, blue ppt).
A. Beilstein Test
B. Benzoldt Gunning Test
C. Marquis Test
D. Nessler Test

A

Benzoldt Gunning Test

80
Q

Penicillamine acts as a chelator and is given to patients with toxicity
to which metal?
A. Mercury
B. Lead
C. Copper
D. Arsenic

A

Copper

81
Q

In the management of a poisoned patient, a commonly used agent
which acts via adsorption is:
A. Normal saline solution
B. EDTA
C. Petroleum jelly
D. Activated charcoal

A

Activated charcoal

82
Q

Which of the “sampung halamang gamot” approved by the DOH is
said to be useful in patients with gout or rheumatic pains?
A. Ampalaya
B. Ulasimang bato
C. Sambong
D. Yerba buena

A

Ulasimang bato

83
Q

A 30 y/o male with dilated pupils, tachycardia, muscle
twitching, and urinary retention.
A. Naloxone
B. Deferoxamine
C. Physostigmine
D. IV Sodium Bicarbonate

A

Physostigmine

84
Q

Salicylate poisoning
A. Naloxone
B. Deferoxamine
C. Physostigmine
D. IV Sodium Bicarbonate

A

IV Sodium Bicarbonate

85
Q

Newborn baby developed respiratory depression due
to IV meperidine (an opioid) given to her mother
A. Naloxone
B. Deferoxamine
C. Physostigmine
D. IV Sodium Bicarbonate

A

Naloxone

86
Q

A 53 y/o accidentally ingests 10 tablets of a certain
medication and is currently experiencing vomiting,
abdominal pain, black-tarry stools, with frequent passage of
bloody diarrhea.
A. Naloxone
B. Deferoxamine
C. Physostigmine
D. IV Sodium Bicarbonate

A

Deferoxamine

87
Q

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification.

  1. Bumetanide

A. Loop Diuretic
B. Thiazide Diuretic
C. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Aldosterone Antagonism)
D. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Sodium Channel Inhibition)
E. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

A

Loop Diuretic

88
Q

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification.

  1. Amiloride

A. Loop Diuretic
B. Thiazide Diuretic
C. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Aldosterone Antagonism)
D. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Sodium Channel Inhibition)
E. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

A

Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Sodium Channel Inhibition)

89
Q

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification.

  1. Brinzolamide

A. Loop Diuretic
B. Thiazide Diuretic
C. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Aldosterone Antagonism)
D. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Sodium Channel Inhibition)
E. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

A

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

90
Q

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification.

  1. Metolazone

A. Loop Diuretic
B. Thiazide Diuretic
C. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Aldosterone Antagonism)
D. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Sodium Channel Inhibition)
E. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

A

Thiazide Diuretic

91
Q

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification.

  1. Ethacrynic Acid

A. Loop Diuretic
B. Thiazide Diuretic
C. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Aldosterone Antagonism)
D. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Sodium Channel Inhibition)
E. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

A

Loop Diuretic

92
Q

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification.

  1. Eplerenone

A. Loop Diuretic
B. Thiazide Diuretic
C. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Aldosterone Antagonism)
D. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Sodium Channel Inhibition)
E. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

A

Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Aldosterone Antagonism)

93
Q

Match the given drug with their mechanism of action.

  1. Metformin

A. Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral
tissue response to insulin
B. Blocks ATP-sensitive K+ channels leading to depolarization, Ca+2
influx, and insulin release
C. Inhibits reabsorption of glucose by inhibiting sodium-glucose-2
transporters
D. Prevents deactivation/degradation of GLP-1
E. Inhibits alpha glucosidase located in the intestinal brush border

A

Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral
tissue response to insulin

94
Q

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification.

  1. Acarbose

A. Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral
tissue response to insulin
B. Blocks ATP-sensitive K+
channels leading to depolarization, Ca+2
influx, and insulin release
C. Inhibits reabsorption of glucose by inhibiting sodium-glucose-2
transporters
D. Prevents deactivation/degradation of GLP-1
E. Inhibits alpha glucosidase located in the intestinal brush border

A

Inhibits alpha glucosidase located in the intestinal brush border

95
Q

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification.

  1. Vildagliptin

A. Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral
tissue response to insulin
B. Blocks ATP-sensitive K+ channels leading to depolarization, Ca+2
influx, and insulin release
C. Inhibits reabsorption of glucose by inhibiting sodium-glucose-2
transporters
D. Prevents deactivation/degradation of GLP-1
E. Inhibits alpha glucosidase located in the intestinal brush border

A

Prevents deactivation/degradation of GLP-1

96
Q

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification.

  1. Gliclazide

A. Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral
tissue response to insulin
B. Blocks ATP-sensitive K+ channels leading to depolarization, Ca+2
influx, and insulin release
C. Inhibits reabsorption of glucose by inhibiting sodium-glucose-2
transporters
D. Prevents deactivation/degradation of GLP-1
E. Inhibits alpha glucosidase located in the intestinal brush border

A

Blocks ATP-sensitive K+ channels leading to depolarization, Ca+2
influx, and insulin release

96
Q

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification.

  1. Dapagliflozin

A. Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral
tissue response to insulin
B. Blocks ATP-sensitive K+
channels leading to depolarization, Ca+2
influx, and insulin release
C. Inhibits reabsorption of glucose by inhibiting sodium-glucose-2
transporters
D. Prevents deactivation/degradation of GLP-1
E. Inhibits alpha glucosidase located in the intestinal brush border

A

Inhibits reabsorption of glucose by inhibiting sodium-glucose-2
transporters

Samplex Module 4 (5 decks)

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