Module 3 Chp. 7,8,9 Quiz Flashcards
How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using self-myofascial release? Select one: a. 25 seconds minimum b. 20 seconds minimum c. 30 seconds minimum d. 15 seconds minimum
c. 30 seconds minimum
Which of the following exercises is also a dynamic stretch? Select one: a. Active latissimus dorsi ball stretch b. Static 90/90 hamstring stretch c. Single-leg squat touchdown d. Step-up to balance
c. Single-leg squat touchdown
What is the phenomenon called when prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Neural inhibition c. Autogenic inhibition d. Override mechanism
c. Autogenic inhibition
In which of the following cases should a static stretch be performed?
Select one:
a. When high blood pressure has been identified
b. When peripheral arterial disease has been identified
c. When overactive muscles have been identified
d. When underactive muscles have been identified
c. When overactive muscles have been identified
Which muscle do clients need proper extensibility of before performing the ball medicine ball (MB) pullover throw exercise, in order to decrease stress to the low back and shoulders? Select one: a. Longus colli b. Latissimus dorsi c. Quadratus lomborum d. Gluteus maximus
b. Latissimus dorsi
A client has been performing cardiorespiratory exercise for four weeks. Which of the following physiologic adaptations should the personal trainer expect to observe in the client?
Select one:
a. Decreased cardiac output
b. Improved ability of muscles to use oxygen
c. Increased resting heart rate
d. Decreased stroke volume
b. Improved ability of muscles to use oxygen
Ryan is performing static stretching on a client’s calves after an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is most likely to have prompted him to perform this procedure?
Select one:
a. The client’s knees bowed out.
b. The client’s feet had turned out.
c. The client had an anterior pelvic tilt.
d. The client had a posterior pelvic tilt.
b. The client’s feet had turned out.
Which of the following training types involves little motion through the spine and pelvis? Select one: a. Core-reactive b. Core-power c. Core-stabilization d. Core-strength
c. Core-stabilization
Which term refers to the capability of soft tissues to be elongated or stretched? Select one: a. Plasticity b. Septicity c. Miscibility d. Extensibility
d. Extensibility
Which of the following describes the tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns? Select one: a. Corrective flexibility b. Active flexibility c. Dynamic flexibility d. Relative flexibility
d. Relative flexibility
During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the work for a weakened gluteus maximus. Which of the following best describes this action? Select one: a. Force-couple relationships b. Length-tension relationships c. Synergistic dominance d. Arthrokinematic dysfunction
c. Synergistic dominance
Dynamic stretching uses which of the following concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility? Select one: a. Myotatic stretch-reflex b. Relative flexibility c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Synergistic dominance
c. Reciprocal inhibition
At what angle should the knees be when performing a ball crunch exercise? Select one: a. 45-degree b. 90-degree c. 60-degree d. 120-degree
b. 90-degree
Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation? Select one: a. Group exercise classes b. Elliptical trainers c. Bicycles d. Treadmills
c. Bicycles
What should a client foam roll to effectively target the piriformis when performing SMR? Select one: a. axillary region b. Lateral Thigh c. Posterior Hip d. Inner thigh
c. Posterior Hip
