Module 3 Chp. 7,8,9 Quiz Flashcards
How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using self-myofascial release? Select one: a. 25 seconds minimum b. 20 seconds minimum c. 30 seconds minimum d. 15 seconds minimum
c. 30 seconds minimum
Which of the following exercises is also a dynamic stretch? Select one: a. Active latissimus dorsi ball stretch b. Static 90/90 hamstring stretch c. Single-leg squat touchdown d. Step-up to balance
c. Single-leg squat touchdown
What is the phenomenon called when prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Neural inhibition c. Autogenic inhibition d. Override mechanism
c. Autogenic inhibition
In which of the following cases should a static stretch be performed?
Select one:
a. When high blood pressure has been identified
b. When peripheral arterial disease has been identified
c. When overactive muscles have been identified
d. When underactive muscles have been identified
c. When overactive muscles have been identified
Which muscle do clients need proper extensibility of before performing the ball medicine ball (MB) pullover throw exercise, in order to decrease stress to the low back and shoulders? Select one: a. Longus colli b. Latissimus dorsi c. Quadratus lomborum d. Gluteus maximus
b. Latissimus dorsi
A client has been performing cardiorespiratory exercise for four weeks. Which of the following physiologic adaptations should the personal trainer expect to observe in the client?
Select one:
a. Decreased cardiac output
b. Improved ability of muscles to use oxygen
c. Increased resting heart rate
d. Decreased stroke volume
b. Improved ability of muscles to use oxygen
Ryan is performing static stretching on a client’s calves after an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is most likely to have prompted him to perform this procedure?
Select one:
a. The client’s knees bowed out.
b. The client’s feet had turned out.
c. The client had an anterior pelvic tilt.
d. The client had a posterior pelvic tilt.
b. The client’s feet had turned out.
Which of the following training types involves little motion through the spine and pelvis? Select one: a. Core-reactive b. Core-power c. Core-stabilization d. Core-strength
c. Core-stabilization
Which term refers to the capability of soft tissues to be elongated or stretched? Select one: a. Plasticity b. Septicity c. Miscibility d. Extensibility
d. Extensibility
Which of the following describes the tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns? Select one: a. Corrective flexibility b. Active flexibility c. Dynamic flexibility d. Relative flexibility
d. Relative flexibility
During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the work for a weakened gluteus maximus. Which of the following best describes this action? Select one: a. Force-couple relationships b. Length-tension relationships c. Synergistic dominance d. Arthrokinematic dysfunction
c. Synergistic dominance
Dynamic stretching uses which of the following concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility? Select one: a. Myotatic stretch-reflex b. Relative flexibility c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Synergistic dominance
c. Reciprocal inhibition
At what angle should the knees be when performing a ball crunch exercise? Select one: a. 45-degree b. 90-degree c. 60-degree d. 120-degree
b. 90-degree
Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation? Select one: a. Group exercise classes b. Elliptical trainers c. Bicycles d. Treadmills
c. Bicycles
What should a client foam roll to effectively target the piriformis when performing SMR? Select one: a. axillary region b. Lateral Thigh c. Posterior Hip d. Inner thigh
c. Posterior Hip
Which of the following is true about dynamic stretching?
Select one:
a. It is performed in rapid, repetitive bouncing movements.
b. It can be performed in the presence of movement compensations.
c. It can be performed in the presence of muscle imbalances.
d. It should be performed at a controlled speed.
d. It should be performed at a controlled speed.
How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last? Select one: a. 3-5 minutes b. 10-15 minutes c. 5-10 minutes d. 0-3 minutes
c. 5-10 minutes
Which of the following is an example of a core-power exercise? Select one: a. Back extension b. Ball medicine ball pullover throw c. Reverse crunch d. Marching
b. Ball medicine ball pullover throw
Increased force output of the synergists for hip extension to compensate for the weakened gluteus maximus is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Davis’s law c. Synergistic dominance d. Wolff's law
c. Synergistic dominance
Which of the following requires a client to perform cardiorespiratory exericse at maximal effort while monitoring ventilation response? Select one: a. Karvonen method b. VO2rest method c. Peak VO2 method d. Straight percentage method
c. Peak VO2 method
When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?
Select one:
a. The entire inner thigh region
b. The groin region inside the upper thigh
c. The quadriceps along the vastus medialis
d. The short head of the biceps femoris
b. The groin region inside the upper thigh
What term refers to simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist? Select one: a. autogenic inhibition b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction d. Postural distortion
b. Reciprocal inhibition
Performing the drawing-in maneuver or bracing can do what?
Select one:
a. Affect posture and muscle balance
b. Result in lower endurance
c. Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems
d. cause narrowing of openings vertebrae
c. Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems
Which of the following have a linear relationship during dynamic exercise?
Select one:
a. heart rate and oxygen uptake
b. blood pressure and carbon dioxide release
c. blood pressure and oxygen release
d. heart rate and carbon dioxide uptake
a. heart rate and oxygen uptake
Bracing occurs when a person contracts the abdoominal and buttock muscles at the same time as which of the following? Select one: a. forearm b. Neck c. Lower back d. Left shoulder
c. Lower back
Which of the following are core stabilization exercises designed to improve?
Select one:
a. anaerobic capacity of movement system muscles
b. maximal strength of the rectus abdominis and external obliques
c. Rate of force production of the core musculature
d. Neuromuscular efficiency and intervertebral stability
d. Neuromuscular efficiency and intervertebral stability
Which term refers to the capability of soft tissues to be elongated or stretched? Select one: a. Miscibility b. Septicity c. Extensibility d. Plasticity
c. Extensibility
During functional movement patterns, a client demonstrates excessive spinal motion. Which of the following core exercises should the trainer recognize as being most appropriate for this individual? Select one: a. Back extension b. Two-leg floor bridge c. Ball Medicine pullover throw d. reverse crunch
b. Two-leg floor bridge
In order to most effectively target the tensor fascia latae (TFL) while standing, a client's back leg should be in which of the following positions? Select one: a. Internally rotated b. Adducted 90° c. Externally rotated d. Abducted 90°
c. Externally rotated
Which of the following is a core-stabilization exercise? Select one: a. Floor prone cobra b. Ball crunch c. Cable rotation d. Rotation chest pass
a. Floor prone cobra
In order to properly stretch the hamstring during the active supine biceps femoris stretch, a client will need to contract which of the following during knee extension? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Quadriceps c. Adductors d. Gastrocnemius
b. Quadriceps
Which of the following core exercises is appropriate for a client in Phase 1 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Cable rotation b. Floor prone cobra c. Ball crunch d. Reverse crunch
b. Floor prone cobra
Performing the drawing-in maneuver or bracing can do what?
Select one:
a. Affect posture and muscle balance
b. Result in lower endurance for stabilization
c. Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems
d. Cause narrowing of openings in the vertebrae
c. Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems
Which form of stretching should be used to inhibit muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity? Select one: a. Ballistic stretching b. Dynamic stretching c. Static stretching d. Active-isolated stretching
c. Static stretching
What technique uses a co-contraction of global muscles to enhance global trunk stability? Select one: a. Bracing b. Extension c. Horizontal adduction d. Flexion
a. Bracing
Which form of stretching should be used to inhibit muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity? Select one: a. Ballistic stretching b. Dynamic stretching c. Static stretching d. Active-isolated stretching
c. Static stretching
Which of the following would be appropriate at the Power Level (Phase 5) of the OPT model or before athletic competition? Select one: a. Relative flexibility b. Corrective flexibility c. Active flexibility d. Functional flexibility
d. Functional flexibility
