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C.M. > Module 3 Airport Operations, Security and Maintenance > Flashcards

Module 3 Airport Operations, Security and Maintenance Flashcards

1
Q

Airport Management

A

Operate the airport in a safe and efficient manner in accordance with industry standards and procedures

CFRs and ACM, NFPA, A/Cs

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2
Q

Title 14 CFR Part 119

“Certification: Air Carriers and Commercial Operators”

A

Identifies the requirements for aircraft operators engaged in commercial carriage in passenger carrying and cargo operations

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3
Q

Parts 121 and 135

A

Commuter/Air charter or taxi

Identify the conditions under which an aircraft operator or pilot can conduct a general domestic, flag, supplemental, all cargo, foreign, commuter, on demand, or agricultural operation

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4
Q

Part 91

A

Commonly associated with GA operations and airports. Addresses the general operating and flight rules applicable to aircraft operating in the US airspace, whether they’re GA or commercial flight operations

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5
Q

Scheduled “Air Carrier Operation”

A

Conducted under part 121 and provides a schedule containing the departure location, time and arrival location offered. Certain carriers must operate exclusively to part 139 airports except where part 139 specifically provides an exception

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6
Q

Part 121 operating requirements: Domestic, flag and supplemental operations

A

Can only operate in airports that meet the certification classifications of part 139. Airport manager can only allow the type of aircraft and air carrier operation for which the airport has been approved under its certificate

Exception: airport has been approved as an alternate for a particular air carrier, the airport doesn’t routinely receive air service or in case of an emergency

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7
Q

Special exceptions Part 139

A
  • Operations conducted outside the US
  • Operations in Alaska with more than 9, but less than 31 seats
  • Emergencies
  • Flight training
  • Operations at airports is designated as an alternate in the air carrier’s certificate
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8
Q

Part 135

A

Non-scheduled commercial operations

Also have different training, safety and maintenance standards

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9
Q

Part 139 Compliance:

“Air Carrier Operation”

A

Covers the time period from 15 minutes before take off until 15 minutes after landing. Not only applies to when ARFF must be available but also to inspections, wildlife hazard mgmt, snow removal, and lighting system operation

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10
Q

Public charter operations

A
  • Part 380
  • Required to operate from part 139 airports

Public charter= 1 way or round trip flight. Performed by 1 or more direct air carriers and sponsored by a charter operator

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11
Q

Direct air carrier

A

Certificated domestic/foreign air carrier, air taxi, or commuter air carrier that directly engages in the operation of aircraft under a certificate, permit, or exemption issued by DOT. Has control over the operational functions performed in providing transportation

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12
Q

Indirect air carrier

A

Any person (individual or corporation) such as a tourist or athletic organization that engages in the services of a direct air carrier in the transportation or passengers, baggage or cargo

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13
Q

“Safety is everybody’s business”

A

Each person must be aware of the consequences of his/her decisions, including safety and risky behaviors

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14
Q

What does a safety conscious organization utilize?

A
  1. Internal reporting system
  2. Set of standards
  3. Investigations and resolution of incidents/hazards
  4. Individuals trained to recognize unsafe conditions
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15
Q

“Chain of events”

A

A series of events that lead to an end result i.e. accidents

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16
Q

3 things that help prevent links in the chain of events from forming

A
  1. Proper design of a component or system
  2. Safeguards put into place
  3. Correct safety decisions and actions
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17
Q

Safety Mgmt System

A

Helps to manage safety risk through systematic procedures, practices, and policies

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18
Q

SMS affects:

A

Any certificated airport which:

  1. Classified as small/medium/large hub airport in NPIAS
  2. Identified by CBP as a port of entry, designated international airport, landing rights airport or user fee airport
  3. Identified as having more than 100,000 total annual operations
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19
Q

4 distinct elements of SMS

A
  1. Safety policy
  2. Safety risk mgmt
  3. Safety assurance
  4. Safety promotion
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20
Q

Safety policy

A

Addresses how the organization is structured to achieve safety goals and lays out the processes and procedures to identify and mitigate safety risks

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21
Q

Safety Risk Mgmt

A

Techniques in risk identification, assessment, mitigation, and tracking are the principal methods for enhancing or increasing a safety record

Determines the need for, and adequacy of new revised risk controls

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22
Q

Safety Assurance

A
  • Internal and external audits and corrective actions providing feedback on implemented risk mitigation strategies
  • Evaluates continued effectiveness and supports identification of new hazards
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23
Q

Safety Promotion

A

Create a “safety culture.” Reinforces that everyone is responsible for safety

Includes training, communication, and other actions

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24
Q

Accountable Executive (AE)

A

Designated individual responsible for the implementation and oversight of the SMS processes but more from the policy perspective

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25
Q

14CFR Part 139

A
  • Certification of Airports
  • Baseline regulation and certification standard for commercial service airports. Evolved from the Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970
  • Primary objective is to ensure safety in air transportation by regulating the operation and maintenance of airports serving scheduled air carriers
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26
Q

The FAA issues certificates to airports that:

A
  1. Serve scheduled and unscheduled air carrier aircraft with more than 30 seats
  2. Serve scheduled air carrier operations in aircraft with more than 9 seats but less than 31 seats
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27
Q

Airport Operating Certificate (AOC)

A

Identifies the airport as being certified under 1 of 4 classes of operation

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28
Q

AOC 4 classes of operations

A

Airport Operating Certificate

  • Scheduled large air carrier aircraft (30+ seats)=Class 1
  • Unscheduled large air carrier aircraft (30+ seats) = Class 1, 2, 4
  • Scheduled small air carrier aircraft (10-30 seats)= Class 1, 2, 3
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29
Q

Class 1 Airport

A

Serves all types of scheduled air carrier aircraft designed for at least 31 passenger seats and any other type of air carrier operations, and must comply with all part 139 requirements

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30
Q

Class 2 Airport

A

Serves scheduled operations of small air carrier aircraft and unscheduled operations of large air carrier aircraft. Not permitted to serve scheduled large air carrier operations

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31
Q

Class 3 Airport

A

Serves only scheduled operations of small air carrier aircraft

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32
Q

Class 4 Airport

A

Serves only unscheduled operations of large air carrier aircraft

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33
Q

What is the purpose of the ACM

A

To be a reference document for airport personnel on maintaining a safe airport and complying with federal regulations

This places responsibility for compliance on the airport operator

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34
Q

Advisory circular associated with the ACM

A

A/C 150/5210-22

Provides guidance on developing an ACM

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35
Q

Emphasis on ACM

A

WHO will perform the task
WHAT the task will consist of
HOW the task is performed
WHEN it will be accomplished

excessive levels of detail can restrict flexibility during unforeseen events

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36
Q

Part 139

Subpart A

A

General applicability, definitions and procedures

For compliance with the certification and operation requirements of the part

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37
Q

Part 139

Subpart B

A

Airport Certification

Identifies the general certification requirements and the issuance and duration of certificates

Provisions for limitations, exemptions and deviations

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38
Q

Part 139

Subpart C

A

ACM

  • General requirements
  • Contents of ACM
  • Amendments of ACM

Outlines how the ACM should be developed, maintained and amended. Refers extensively to the use of procedures to ensure compliance with the regulations, use of plans for safe operations, and descriptions of facilities/equipment. Assigns responsibility

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39
Q

Part 139

Subpart D

A

Regulatory operational requirements

All the parts of the ACM from records to noncomplying conditions

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40
Q

Limitations

A

Identify unusual operational characteristics.
-Limited to specific runways or load bearing weights due to pavement strength

Not typically encountered or imposed upon

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41
Q

Exemption

A

A legal document granting an airport relief from a regulatory requirement of part 139

This becomes a rulemaking action and this requires FAA legal. It changes the manner in which an airport complies with its AOC. Few are issued

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42
Q

Deviation

A

Whether or not a deviation results in a violation depends on the circumstances

A deviation requires notification to the FAA within 14 days of the occurence

Primarily result from an aircraft emergency

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43
Q

139.301

A

Records

12 CCM=

  • Airfield inspection records
  • NOTAMs
  • Fueling inspections
  • Accident/Incident reports

24 CCM=

  • Training of personnel for movement area
  • Trained inspectors for self inspection
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44
Q

139.303

A

Personnel

“Sufficiently qualified personnel” =exist if all requirements in ACM are properly performed

Recurrent training every 12 calendar months

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45
Q

139.305

A

Paved Areas

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46
Q

139.307

A

Unpaved Areas

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47
Q

139.309

A

Safety Areas

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48
Q

139.311

A

Markings, Signs, Lighting

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49
Q

139.313

A

SICP

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50
Q

139.315

A

ARFF: Index determination

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51
Q

139.317

A

ARFF: Equipment and agents

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52
Q

139.319

A

ARFF: Operational requirements

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53
Q

139.321

A

Handling and Storage of Hazmat

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54
Q

139.323

A

Traffic and wind direction indicators

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55
Q

139.325

A

AEP

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56
Q

139.327

A

Self Inspection Program

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57
Q

139.329

A

Pedestrians and Ground Vehicles

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58
Q

139.331

A

Obstructions

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59
Q

139.333

A

Protection of Navaids

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60
Q

139.335

A

Public Protection

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61
Q

139.337

A

WHMP

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62
Q

139.339

A

Airport Condition Reporting

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63
Q

139.341

A

Iedntifying, marking and lighting construction and serviceable areas

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64
Q

139.343

A

Noncomplying conditions

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65
Q

Self inspection program

A

Monitors airport conditions

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66
Q

Regular Inspection

A

Daily inspection

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67
Q

Continuous surveillance inspection

A

Fueling, construction, pedestrian and ground vehicles, snow and ice, public protection, wildlife, and FOD

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68
Q

Periodic inspection

A

Weekly, Monthly, Quarterly

Rubber build up, approach slopes, trees, faded signs, fueling facilities, response times for ARFF

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69
Q

Special inspection

A

After a complaint or unusual event occurs

  • Meteorological event
  • Aircraft accident/incident
  • End of construction
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70
Q

Areas of training

A
  1. Airport familiarization
  2. AEP
  3. NOTAM procedures
  4. Procedures for handling pedestrians and ground vehicles in the movement area
  5. Airport inspection procedures, techniques and discrepancy reporting
  6. Knowledge of correct radio communication phraseology procedures and techniques
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71
Q

How long must an airport keep DAIRs on record for?

A

12 CCM

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72
Q

NPIAS

A

National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems

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73
Q

How long must and airport retain records for training, inspection, condition and incident/accident data?

A

12 CCM

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74
Q

How long must an airport retain movement area training records for?

A

24 CCM

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75
Q

FAA’s goal for pavement

A

The goal of any maintenance program is to provide a safe and operable pavement system at the least feasible cost

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76
Q

Airfield Pavement Mgmt System

A

Ensures that issues are addressed ASAP and that there is a long term strategic plan for ongoing maintenance and replacement of paved surfaces.

For every $1 in preventative mx=$4-5 in repairs later on

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77
Q

Goal of APMS

A

Airfield Pavement Mgmt System

Maintain pavement in excellent condition with the least amount of expenditure and to determine the optimum frequency to effectively use funds for maintenance

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78
Q

Asphalt

A
  • Can be laid without expansion joints
  • Generally less expensive
  • Quicker to install
  • Requires more maintenance
  • Susceptible to oxidation from the sun and fuel products (its a petroleum product)
  • Compresses under load
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79
Q

Flexible Pavement

A
  • Asphalt, grass, dirt, gravel
  • Compresses under load

-These types of surfaces for commercial traffic, typically only found in Alaska

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80
Q

Rigid Pavement

A
  • Resists compressibility

- Usually concrete

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81
Q

Concrete

A
  • A rigid form of pavement
  • Poured into slabs that require seams or joints to allow for expansion and contraction, contributing to its higher cost
  • Can withstand much higher aircraft loads
  • Resists weathering and oil/fuel spillage
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82
Q

Preventative Mx

A

Includes any regular or recurring work necessary to sustaining airport pavement in good condition

examples: routine cleaning, crack sealing, patches, seal coating, pavement edge grading, and restoring pavement markings

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83
Q

FAA requirements for pavement

A
  • Pavement inventory
  • Annual and periodic inspections
  • A record keeping and retrieval system
  • Identification of mx program funding
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84
Q

Daily pavement inspection includes:

A
  • Pavement edges exceeding 3”
  • Holes: 5” diameter, 45 degree angle,
  • Cracks that create directional control issues
  • Loose aggregate (repair immediately)
  • Surface deterioration: spalling, raveling, debris, FOD, alligatoring
  • Rubber
  • Edge obstructions that prevents draining, soil erosion, vegetation
  • Pavement markings
  • Loose joint seal
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85
Q

Pavement Condition Index

A
  • Determined by procedures contained in ASTM 5340
  • Gives pavement condition an index (rating)
  • Provides indication of function capability of surface
  • Gives a metric for APMS
  • Periodic checks determine changes and performance levels which help with optimal rehabilitation
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86
Q

Pavement deterioration

A
  • Environmental= weather and aging
  • Structural= Repeated traffic loads

They often work together to create things such as potholes

Affected by amount/weight of load/traffic, original construction, maintenance and weather

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87
Q

Asphalt related deterioration

A
  • Cracking (Longitudinal is most severe)
  • Disintegration (raveling, potholes)
  • Distortion (ruts, depression, swelling)
  • Loss of skid resistance (polished aggregate, fuel)
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88
Q

Concrete related deterioration

A
  • Cracking
  • Disintegration (scaling, map cracking, crazing)
  • Alkali-Silica reaction (scaling, map cracking, crazing)
  • Spalling (scaling, map cracking, crazing)
  • Distortion (pumping, settling, shoving)
  • Loss of skid resistance (polished aggregate, fueling)
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89
Q

Alkali-Silica Reaction

A

A reaction between the hydroxyl ions in the alkaline cement pore solution in the concrete and reactive forms of silica in the aggregate (Chert, Quartzite, opal, strained quartz crystals). A gel is produced which increases volume by taking up water, thereby exerting an expansive pressure which results in failure of the concrete

(Can be accelerated by potassium acetate, sodium acetate and sodium formate)

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90
Q

ACN-PCN

A

Aircraft Classification #/Pavement classification #

  • PCN reports the relative bearing strength of pavement and the ACN expresses the relative effect of an aircraft on pavement. Only applies to pavement with bearing strength of 12,500 lbs or higher. Anything lower, letter system still applies (S=single, D=dual, T=tandem, DT=dual tandem)
  • Aircraft having an ACN = to or < the PCN can operate unrestricted. Therefore, the PCN is the maximum pavement bearing strength
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91
Q

CFME

A
  • Provide continuous graphic record of pavement surface friction characteristics
  • Eligible for federal funding under AIP program
  • Use at speeds of 40-60 mph
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92
Q

Decelerometers

A

FAA prefers electrical over mechanical

electrical eliminates human error

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93
Q

TALPA

A

Take Off and Landing Performance Assessment

Improves the way the aviation community assesses runway conditions, based on contaminant type and depth, which provides an aircraft operator with the correct information to anticipate airplane braking performance

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94
Q

RCAM

A

More comprehensive and standardized method of assessing and reporting surface conditions

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95
Q

Unpaved Areas

A
  • Slopes may be steeper than 2:1
  • Full strength surfaces must have an adequate crown or grade for sufficient drainage
  • No holes or depressions
  • Compacted so no ruts form
  • FOD must be removed
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96
Q

Safety area inspection standards

A
  • No objects except those required due to function necessary: Signs, lights, navaids
    • Not: personnel, equipment, vehicles
  • SA inspection is considered a regular inspection
  • Necessary equipment must have frangible points no higher than 3” above grade
  • Cleared, drained and compacted, graded so it can support an aircraft
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97
Q

Things to check for when inspecting the safety area

A
  1. Storm sewer system to verify not clogged, covers and to grade
  2. Special inspection before reopening after maintenance or construction
  3. Check anytime an aircraft has left the pavement’no ruts, or holes have been made
  4. Checking construction and maintenance to ensure safe conditions= no equipment
  5. Inspecting EMAS for damage or deterioration
  6. Drive or walk SA to check for discrepancies
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98
Q

Movement area training

A
  • Receive training every year

- Training must include: how to read airfield signs, markings, lighting (configuration, patterns, colors)

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99
Q

Runway lighting systems

A

HIRL and MIRL have different intensity levels or steps

LIRL systems only have 1 intensity

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100
Q

Pilot Controlled Lighting

A

Keying the microphone a # of times at certain intervals will get you different steps

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101
Q

Runway Edgelights

A
  • White
  • On Instruments: Yellow replaces white in direction of landing for last 2,000 ft or for 1/2 runway length, whichever is less
  • Provides visual safety information
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102
Q

Runway centerline lights

A
  • White in direction of landing
  • On precision instrument runway: lights change to alternating red and white at the beginning at the last 3,000 ft of the runway for 2,000 ft then change to all red for the last 1,000 ft
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103
Q

Taxiway Edgelights

A

-Solid blue lenses or if lights are unavailable, blue reflectors

Taxiway centerline lights are green

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104
Q

Taxiway lead-on, lead-off lights

A
  • In pavement lights that alternate green and yellow
  • Some airports have green taxiway center lights marking the complete route between the terminal and the active runway
  • Exact specifications vary depending on type of instrument approach the runway is certified for
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105
Q

Threshold Lights

A
  • Marks the end of the runway
  • Split lens: landing aircraft see green, departing aircraft see red
  • Runway lights are directional in focus through a fresnal lens. lens requires light bases to be properly aligned and angled towards the runway
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106
Q

Lighting outages

A
  • Tolerances listed in ACM

- NOTAM required when standards aren’t met

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107
Q

RVR and SMGCS

A

Surface movement guidance control systems

  • Allows airports to conduct operations when visibility is <1,200 ft
  • System of guidance, control and regulation of all aircraft, ground vehicles, and personnel on the movement area
  • To prevent collisions and ensure safety, traffic flows smoothly and freely
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108
Q

Rotating Beacon

A

-Angle from 2-10 degrees above horizon
-Civil=White/Green
-If 1 bulb is out, another should activate. Also provides indicator if burnt out
-If on during the day= IFR
Ceiling is below 1000 ft or visibility is < 3 SM
-Any changes to airfield lighting must be changed in the A F/D

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109
Q

ALS generally consists of what 5 components

A
  • Sequenced Flashers
  • Approach Lights
  • Crossbar lights
  • REILs
  • VASI/PAPI
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110
Q

Sequence Flashers

A

Series of 5 lights that extend past the 1,000 ft mark of the approach lights. Flashing in sequence in 1 direction in order to guide the pilot to the runway

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111
Q

Cross bar

A

Series of lights positioned perpendicularly to both sides of the approach lights. Used as a pilots aid in leveling an aircraft’s wings

They also provide distance information to the runway since they’re positioned at fixed distances from the threshold. They uniformly extend from the threshold out to a point where the pilot can make timely transition from instrumental to visual

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112
Q

VASI

A
  • Indicates the pilots angle of approach to prevent under or over shooting
  • 2 or 3 bar system that have 2, 4, 6, 12, 24 lights each
  • Locates 250 ft parallel to RWY centerline
  • 1 unit is approximately 800ft from the threshold whereas the other is at 1200 ft
  • Positioned to provide a 3 degree slope
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113
Q

PAPI

A
  • Either 2 or 4 lights with split red/white lenses

- Installed in a row perpendicular to the RWY and each light is at a slightly different angle

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114
Q

PVASI/PLASI

A

Pulsed-Light Visual Approach Slope Indicator

  • A bright light that emits a flashing strove if an aircraft is above or below glidepath and a steady white light if on glidepath
  • Not used for air carrier operations
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115
Q

TRCV

A

Tri-colored VASI

Emits a steady light from a single source. The pilot sees red when the approach is below the glideslope angle and green when on the correct angle

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116
Q

APAP

A

Approach Path Alignment Panels

Placed adjacent to the touchdown point of a runway with the middle panel raised and staggered from the 2 on the ends. From the the air, if on glideslope, the panels will appear even

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117
Q

MALS-F

A

Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System with Sequence Flashers

  • 1,400ft long
  • RAILs= Runway Alignment Indicator Lights (Sequenced flashers installed in combination with other lighting systems
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118
Q

REIL’s

A

Runway End Identifier Lights

Located on both corners of a runway threshold. They provide synchronized flashing to identify the runway end

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119
Q

ODALs

A

Omni directional approach lights

  • Flashing lights installed off the approach end of the RWY and are visible from any direction
  • 7 flashing lights
  • Non precision approach RWY
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120
Q

LDIN

A

Lead-In Lights

  • ODALs that are located away from the RWY to help define a VFR path through congested or noise sensitive airspace
  • Designed to overcome problems associated with hazardous terrain obstructions or noise sensitive areas
  • Placed at 3,000ft intervals to highlight path to RWY
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121
Q

Mandatory signs

A
  • White inscription on a red background
  • Requires permission before proceeding
  • Only used with RWYs with the exception of a “No Entry” sign
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122
Q

Location Sign

A
  • Identify the TWY/RWY upon which someone is located

- Yellow inscription on a black background

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123
Q

Location signs with black inscription on yellow background

A
  • Identify the boundaries of the RSA, OFZ, and ILS critical areas
  • Only installed at airports with ATC and where pilots or vehicles are often asked to report that they’re clear of a runway or critical area
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124
Q

Directional Signs

A
  • Provide information on locations and orientation of other taxiways for pilots. They always contain an arrow
  • Black inscription on yellow background
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125
Q

Destination Sign

A

-Point towards a general location on the airport rather than a specific route

Examples: Apron, fuel, terminal, civil, military, passengers, cargo, international, FBO, customs

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126
Q

Special information signs

A
  • Such as noise abatement
  • Black inscription on yellow background
  • RDR (White inscription, black background)
  • Generally locasted outside the RSA, where there’s a need for additional information, directional guidance or location indicators can be painted on pavement
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127
Q

Non-Precision Instrument Runway

A
  • Threshold

- Aiming point markers

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128
Q

Precision Instrument Runway

A
  • Threshold
  • Aiming points
  • Touchdown stripes
  • RWY side stripes
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129
Q

Aiming Points

A
  • Required on RWYs with visual approached that are 4,200ft or longer on instrument RWYs, serving approach categories C+D, and on RWYs 4,200ft or longer
  • Aiming points are located 1,000ft past the approach end of the RWY where a jet aircraft on a normal gliadepath will touchdown
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130
Q

Touchdown Zone Markings

A

Used for landing operations and are spaced at 500ft intervals and provide distance information according to the # of rectangular bars

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131
Q

RWY Threshold bars

A
  • Longitudinal line (# depends on RWY length) that identify the beginning of a RWY
  • Visual approach RWYs don’t have them
  • In the event of construction, mx, or other activity causing a partial closure, the threshold is relocated and the airport must file a notam. Depending on the duration of the activity, the threshold may need to be relocated
  • A solid 10ft wide white bar across the RWY identifies a relocated threshold
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132
Q

Number of RWY threshold bars based on width

A 
60ft= 4 stripes
75ft= 6 stripes
100ft= 8 stripes
150ft= 12 stripes
200ft= 16 stripes
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133
Q

Displaced Threshold

A
  • Necessary when siting a threshold other than at the RWY end
  • White bar 10ft wide across the RWY. Arrows and arrow heads help identify it
  • Relocation can be for obstacle clearance, obstructions in the RWY approach path, noise abatement, construction, or other reasons
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134
Q

Demarcation Bar

A
  • Distinguishes a displaced threshold from a stopway, blast pad or taxiway that precedes the RWY
  • Yellow, 3ft wide
  • A series of yellow chevrons precede up to the demarcation bar to indicate unusable area for landing, take off or taxi
135
Q

Shoulder stripe markings

A
  • Used on RWYs/TWYs to provide a visual contrast between usable and adjacent unusable pavement surface
  • On RWY, 1 continuous solid white stripe. Required on precision instrument RWYs and when the full RWY pavement width may not be available for use as a RWY
136
Q

Taxiway edgelines

A
  • 2 parallel continuous yellow lines
  • Exception: taxi lane defined next to apron area
  • Dashed edgeline used to define the edge of a TWY on or contiguous to a sizable paved area that permits pilots to cross over the marking
137
Q

RWY hold position marking

A
  • “Stop Bar” or “Hold short line”
  • 4 yellow parallel lines, 2 solid, 2 dashed
  • Aircraft or vehicles approaching the RWY will encounter 2 solid line which require ATC clearance to cross when ATC is in operation
138
Q

VOR ground checkpoint markings

A
  • Allows pilots to calibrate VOR receivers on the ground
  • Circle with arrow directed toward the navaid and is located within 1/2 mile of VOR
  • Marking is 2 concentric circles- outside is white and inside is yellow. with black background and yellow arrow
  • A sign with pertinent information must also be present
139
Q

Closed RWY/TWY

A
  • Marked by yellow X’s on the pavement to obscure each RWY # or at the beginning/end of a TWY. Raised lighted X’s can also be used
  • Permanent closure requires disconnecting light circuits and obliterating markings
140
Q

What to inspect on Markings

A
  • Correct color coding
  • Peeling
  • Blistering
  • Chipping
  • Fading
  • Obscured location
  • Positioning
141
Q

What to inspect on signs

A
  • Readable
  • Color standards
  • No missing panels
  • No damage or fading
  • Properly illuminated at night
142
Q

What to inspect with lighting

A
  • Operable
  • No vegetation or FOD interfering with illumination
  • Proper color and orientation
143
Q

Vehicle roadway markings

A
  • Reduce risk of an aircraft/vehicle accident on AMA
  • Markings that of a regular roadway, SMGCS requires a zipper
  • Outside AMA, markings should conform to those of DOT
144
Q

Things to inspect with the SMGCS system

A
  • Stop bar lights
  • RWY guard lights
  • Taxiway centerline lighting
  • Geographic position markings
  • Clearance bar lights
145
Q

Components of SMGCS

A
  • Elevated or in-pavement RWY guard lights
  • Green centerline and lead-on lights for preferred taxi routes
  • TWY and clearance bar lights
  • Gate designator and geographic hold position markings (spot)
  • Yellow elevated RWY guard lights at hold position (Wig wags)
  • In pavement lights
146
Q

Compass Rose

A
  • Typically a surface painted marking
  • Used to help calibrate the aircraft magenetic compass, which periodically needs to be adjusted to account for the earth’s magnetic fluctuation
147
Q

Segmented circle

A
  • Visually assists pilots in determining the airport traffic pattern while in flight
  • A series of highly visible, white or yellow markers arranged in a circle around the wind indicator
  • Required at airports serving air carriers with no ATC
  • Right hand patterns
148
Q

Wind Indicators

A
  • Can be tetrahedron, wind cone or wind tee
  • Depending on mode, have to have a minimum diameter of 18” which provides indication of wind from 5-50 mph
  • White, yellow or orange
  • All require lighting for air carriers after dark
  • Visual supplment at a point visible from the final approach
149
Q

Protection/inspection of navaids

A
  • Determine REILS are in sequence, mounted frangible couplings
  • VASI/PAPI lights working and mounted on frangible couplings
  • ALS functioning properly
  • Report and monitor any navaid that’s malfunctioning, inop, misaligned, damaged or missing

-Report to FAA and issue NOTAM

150
Q

Public Protection

A
  • Verify gates, fencing, locks and other safeguards are in place and functioning properly
  • Report unauthorized personnel
151
Q

Obstructions

A
  • Visual check of construction activities on/off the airport
  • Cranes/vegetation
  • Obstruction properly marked and lighted
  • Part 77
  • Report obstruction lights not lighted, missing damaged
  • Unauthorized use of lasers or UAVs
152
Q

NOTAMs

A

-Notices containing information that’s not known sufficiently in advance to publicize by other means

153
Q

Civil NOTAMs

A

Any NOTAM that’s part of the civil NOTAM system which is anything not part of the military system

154
Q

FDC NOTAMs

A

Flight Data Center

-Regulatory in nature such as changes to IAPs or airways, changes that effect ATC system, changes to IFR charts, procedures airspace usage, TFRs

155
Q

Military NOTAMs

A

Pertains to USAF, Army, marines, and Navy navaids

156
Q

Center area NOTAMs

A

An FDC NOTAM is issued for a condition that is not limited to 1 airport; therefore, its filed under the air route traffice control center (ARTCC) which controls the airspace involved. TFRs, airway changes and laser light activities are examples

157
Q

NOTAM (D)

A
  • Is issued locally and/or beyond the area of responsibility of the FSS. Now includes (U) and (O) NOTAMs
  • (U)- are unverified NOTAMs which are thise that are received from a source other than airport mgmt and have yet to be confirmed. Only allowed where airport mgmt has LOA
  • (O)- other aeronautical information which doesn’t meet NOTAM criteria but may be beneficial to airport operations
158
Q

FICON NOTAMs

A
  • Subset of NOTAM (D)
  • Type and depth of contaminant
  • Full/partial coverage
  • Snow banks exceeding height standards
  • BA reports
  • Treatments
159
Q

Other (D) NOTAMs

A
  • Outages of lighting/navaids especially obstruction lights
  • Limitations of ARFF
  • Not intended to be used to impose restrictions on airport access for the purpose of controlling noise
160
Q

Alternative means of notification

A
  • Phone, computer, fax, hand carried, written system

- Directly notifies air carriers and are permitted under 139.339, provided procedures and identified and approved in ACM

161
Q

FAA issued NOTAMs

A

Tower can issue a NOTAM if they can’t reach operations and there’s an unsafe condition. ATC must inform operations ASAP

162
Q

Information contained in a NOTAM

A
  • Afld identification and component
  • Description of affected component condition that prompted the NOTAM
  • Who will receive copies

Movement areas, lighting aids, air navaids, communications, services, special data, FDC NOTAMs

163
Q

Part 139 requirements for NOTAMs

A
  1. List of authorized personnel in ACM

2. Log of issued NOTAMs

164
Q

SICP

A
  • “No worse than wet” condition
  • 2 phases:
    • addresses pre/ppost winter subjects
    • Instruction and procedures
165
Q

SICP phase #1

A

Pre and post winter subjects that prepare the airport for a new season. May include revising existing SICP after the season ends

166
Q

SICP phase #2

A

-Instruction and procedures that should be taken by the airport when dealing with storms and notifying airport users in a timely manner when less than satisfactory conditions exist

Elements: preseason prep, snow committee composition, snow desk, location, equipment, training, weather reports, FCR, clearance criteria, priorities, communications

167
Q

SICP is required to include the following:

A
  1. Prompt removal or control of contaminants on MA
  2. Positioning of snow off MA, so aircraft clear of banks/drifts
  3. Selection/application of approved materials for SIC
  4. Timely commencement of snow operations
  5. Prompt notification of air carriers
168
Q

Priority 1

A
  1. Primary RWYs with TWY turnoffs
  2. Access TWYs leading to terminal
  3. Terminals and cargo aprons
  4. ARFF stations and emergency service roads
  5. navaids
  6. Other essential areas
    • fuel
    • airport security
169
Q

Priority 2

A
  1. Crosswind/secondary RWY
  2. Remaining aircraft movement areas
  3. Commercial ramp areas
  4. Access roads to secondary facilities
  5. Airfield facilities not essential to flight operations
170
Q

Is landside in the SICP?

A

No

171
Q

Sizing SRE fleet

A

Based on total priority 1 paved area that is cleared of contaminants within a recommended clearance time

172
Q

Mechanical vs. Chemical removal

A
  • Mechanical
    • Rotary blowers/throwers, plows, broom sweepers, and loaders
  • Chemical
    • Material spreaders that disperse de/anti-ice granules or liquid
173
Q

Displacement Plow

A

Consist of a cutting edge that shears snow from pavement and a moldboard that lifts and casts the dislodged snow to the side of a cleared path

174
Q

Rotary snow plow (Blower)

A

Primary device for removal of hazardous snow accumulations such as windrows and snow banks. Used to cast heavy concentrations of snow away from AOA’s such as RWY/TWY. If snow accumulations are too great for the snow to be displaced into grassy areas, or snow dumps then they can be carried to another location or use snow melters

175
Q

Snow Melters

A

Have the capability of melting upwards of 75 cu. yards or 56 tons of snow per hour (depending on equipment)

Provide another option for the transformation of snow back into water and have the added advantage of sifting out sand, dirt, heavy metals and other large objects from SN.

176
Q

Snow sweepers or brooms

A

Primarily to clean up the residue left on the pavement surface by a plow or for sweeping and cleaning debris from the AOA

177
Q

Material spreader

A

Provide a continuous accurately-metered flow of granular or liquid material to a pavement surface over a predetermined spread area. A spreader unit consists of a material storage compartment, a feed mechanism to carry the material to the discharge opening, a metering device to control the discharge rate, and a distribution mechanism

178
Q

MFE

A

Provide the ability to plow snow with a front end blade, broom residue with a center mounted broom, and then air blast the residue and apply sand or a de-icing solution with a rear mounted cartridge. Can cut down snow removal times by as much as 50%

179
Q

ARFF

A
  • Is focused on responding to emergencies on aircraft at the airport, not the airport. The airport must still have structural fire response per the AEP
  • Part 139 doesn’t require minimum personnel, equipment and materials for structure fires
180
Q

Index

A
  • #
  • Equipment
  • Fire fighting agents
  • Operational requirements

-Determination of equipment and agents needs is based on index

181
Q

Index determination

A

Calculated on the length of the most demanding air carrier aircraft that serves the airport and the # of average daily departures. The seating capacity of the aircraft indicates the level of casualty-handling facility. (If there are fewer than 5 average daily departures, then the next lower index applies)

182
Q

Part 139

ARFF index

A
  • Minimum index is A
  • Index also defines the minimum amount of water, foam, dry chemical or halotron-extinguishing agent that an airport is required to have
183
Q

Index A

A

Aircraft length= <90 ft

Aircraft type= CRJ, embraer

184
Q

Index B

A

Aircraft length= 90-126 ft

Aircraft type- 737, DC9, BAE100

185
Q

Index C

A

Aircraft length= 126-159 ft

Aircraft type= 727, 757

186
Q

Index D

A

Aircraft length= 159-200 ft

Aircraft type= DC10, L1011, 767

187
Q

Index E

A

Aircraft length= > 200 ft

Aircraft type= 747, C5

188
Q

Primary responsibility of ARFF

A
  • Create a path for the evacuation and/or rescue of aircraft passengers and crew
  • 2nd responsibility is to extinguish or neutralize he fire and explosion. Once that’s done, primary responsibility is to assist survivors
189
Q

Different ways to organize ARFF

A
  1. Airport to staff, train and operate their own ARFF
  2. Contractual provider or local firefighting unit
  3. Public safety department
190
Q

Performance requirements for ARFF

A
  1. From its assigned post, the first responding truck must reach the midpoint of the farthest air carrier RWY and begin to apply agents within 3 minutes from the alarm with all gear on
  2. All other vehicles must respond to the same point within 4 minutes
191
Q

Part 139 requirement for ARFF staffing

A

-Equipment is required to be available 15 minutes prior to the arrival of an air carrier and remain for 15 minutes after it departs

If requirement can’t be met due to equipment repair or breakdown or nonavailability of personnel, a NOTAM is required and air carrier activity is restricted

192
Q

Reason for ARFF requirements

A
  • Survivability window for passengers and crew caught in a fuselage fire that remains intact after an accident is roughly 3 minutes
  • It takes 90 seconds for a fire to burn through a fuselage. Once temperatures reach 400F that cabin is no longer considered survivable
193
Q

Training requirements for ARFF

A
  • Initial and recurrent training
  • At least 1 of ARFF personnel on duty during air carrier operations is required to be trained and current on certification in basic life care
  • Undergo continuous training and keep records for 24 months
  • Participate in initial then recurrent live fire training every 12 months size of fire must replciate size of potential fire at airport
194
Q

Triennial exercise

A
  • A mock full scale emergency exercise using support agencies listed in AEP
  • Every year (not triennial) a table top exercise must be completed
  • Exercises must follow guidance in homeland security exercise and evaluation program (HSEEP) and FEMA
195
Q

Daily inspection of ARFF

A
  • Must ensure that ARFF capabilities comply with ACM
  • ARFF index is still appropriate
  • Alarm/emergency notification communications are operable and fire extinguishing agent is adequate

Periodic- Response times, recurrent training current

196
Q

Hazmat

A

-Protect against fire and explosion from the storing, dispensing, and handling of fuel, lubricants, and oxygen on the airport

2 defintions:

  1. Material that’s shipped as cargo (hazmat)
  2. Fuels, lubricants, etc used for the operation of the aircraft (fuel)
197
Q

Daily inspection of hazmat

A
  • Guidelines adopted from NFPA
  • Standards based on level of liability willing to accept

-Airport mgmt exercises control over tenant fueling practices and requires mgmt to establish standards that address facilities, procedures and training of fueling personnel

198
Q

Fire

A
  • When a combustible/flammable material is exposed to ignition or heat source
  • Tetrahedron= combustible material, presence of oxygen, heat/ignition source, chemical chain reaction

1 element needs to be eliminated to put a fire out

199
Q

Flashpoint

A
  • Degree or ease of ignition
  • Reached when vapors given off from an ignitable mixture

more vapor= more probability

Ignition sources: lightning, open flame, electrical spark, static discharge, chemical reaction, any heat source

200
Q

Combustible vs. flammable

A 
Combustible= flashpoint over 100F (Jet A)
Flammable= flashpoint below 100F, vapor pressure not exceeding 40 PSI (Avgas)
201
Q

Vehicle requirements

A
  • Vehicle markings
  • Key or code access
  • 2 way radio communications
  • Signal lights
  • Traffic signs
  • Flagmen
  • Escorts
202
Q

Vehicular to aircraft collisions have 1 of 4 principle causes

A
  1. Increased traffic volume
  2. Non-standard vehicle traffic patterns
  3. Vehicles without radio communication and markings
  4. Operators untrained in airport procedures
203
Q

Surface incident

A

An unauthorized or unapproved movement within the movement area (excluding incursion) or an occurrence in the same area associated with the operation of an aircraft that affects or could affect the safety of flight

204
Q

RWY incursion

A

An occurrence at an airport with an ATCT involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft vehicle, or person on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing or take off of aircraft

205
Q

4 categories of RWY incursions

A

Category A: a serious incident in which a collision was narrowly avoided

Category B: Separation decreases and there’s significant potential for collision, which may result in a time critical response to avoid collision

Category C: Incident characterized by ample time/distance to avoid collision

Category D: Meets definition of RWY incursion with no immediate safety consequences

206
Q

Operational error

A

ATC

Less than required minimum separation between 2 or more aircraft, aircraft and obstacles, or clearing aircraft to land or take off on a closed runway

207
Q

Pilot deviations

A

action of a pilot that violates any FAR

208
Q

Vehicle/Pedestrian Deviation (VPD)

A

When pedestrians or vehicles enter any portion of the movement area without authorization from ATC

209
Q

How to reduce incursions

A
  • Provide good airfield signage and markings
  • Promote extra vigilance during construction operations
  • Identify hot spots; they’re notified on A/FD
  • Ensure vehicle are properly lit with high beams, flashers, beacons, strobes, and are operational before use
  • Use vehicle service roads when possible
210
Q

FAR Part 139 WHMP

A

-Established instructions and procedures for the prevention or removal of factors on the airport that attract wildlife

Attractant= any man-made structure, land use practices, or geomorphic feature that might attract or sustain wildlife

211
Q

Daily inspection of wildlife

A
  • Check for evidence of wildlife or wildlife problems that may have developed
  • Hazards should be documented
  • Dead wildlife should be reported to the FAA
  • Check fencing and gate accessibility
212
Q

When you need to conduct a wildlife hazard assessment

A
  1. Air carrier aircraft experiences multiple bird strikes
  2. An air carrier aircraft experiences an engine ingestion
  3. An air carrier experiences substantial damage from striking wildlife
  4. Wildlife of a large enough size, or in # that are capable of causing an accident, is observed to having access to the flight pattern or AMA
213
Q

Parts of a wildlife hazard assessment

A
  1. Analyzing the events/circumstances that prompted the research
  2. Identifying the species, #s, locations, local movements, daily/seasonal movements
  3. Identifying/location features on/near the airport that attracts wildlife
  4. Describing the wildlife hazard to air carriers
  5. Recommending actions for reducing the identified hazards
214
Q

3 types of entries in ACM for wildlife

A
  1. Statement of negative activity
  2. Brief statement of the no-hazard findings of a WHA
  3. A WHMP
215
Q

2 requirements if a WHMP is mandated

A
  1. A qualified wildlife damage mgmt biologist must conduct a training program for personnel who will be involved in WM to teach knowledge/skills to do job
  2. WHMP must be reviewed and evaluated annually by the biologist who helped prepare the plan
216
Q

Habitat mgmt or modification

A
  • Planned activity, which begins with the identification of habitat, considerations of alternatives for modification or elimination of habitat and then incorporate changes into a long term, land use mgmt practice
  • Removing trees, ponds, building ledges, perches
  • Cutting grass at a certain length
217
Q

Active Control

A
  • Scaring, dispersing, trapping, and controlling through lethal methods
  • Secondary strategies= bird distress call tapes, pyros, propane cannons, whistles, decoys, high pressure water

-Depredation permit

218
Q

Hazards due to construction

A
  • Numerous personnel not familiar with airport environment
  • Temporary fencing
  • Relocation of fencing
  • Change to nature and location of construction
  • Delays due to weather and operational issues
  • Temporary security
  • Large vehicles that can become an obstruction or interfere with navaids
219
Q

Construction and unservicable areas

A

You must mark, and if appropriate, light each construction and unservicable area that’s on or adjacent to any movement area or part of an airport on which an air carrier may be operating

Must also mark the same near a navaid that, if traversed, could cause derogation of the signal or failure

Review all utility plans

220
Q

Daily construction inspection

A
  • Stockpiled/cnstruction material properly stored
  • Check areas near movement for proper marking
  • Construction equipment are marked, lit, clear of surfaces
  • Barricades are poperly positioned and check lights
  • Debris and FOD are continuously picked up
  • Check for open trenches in S.A. or adjacent to movement area
  • Check lighting before crew leaves
  • Check notams
  • Verify closed TWY/RWY properly marked and lit
  • Report and monitor dangerous conditions
221
Q

Continuous construction inspection

A
  • Unatuhorized use of driving by personnel
  • Conditions that may result in an incursion
  • Equpment in ILS area without ATC coordination
  • Gates left open and unattended, inproper escorting procedures
  • Vehicles not properly marked
  • Detection and removal of FOD
  • Confusing or missing signs, markings, lighting
  • Barricades and lighting not in place or inop
222
Q

AEP

A

Designed to minimize personal injury and property damage on the airport in case of emergency

223
Q

The AEP must include:

A
  • Procedures for prompt response to all emergencies as listed in 139.325 including a communication network
  • Contain sufficient detail to provide adequate guidance to each person who must implement these procedures
  • To the extent possible, provide for an emergency response for the largest air carrier aircraft in the index group required under 139.315
224
Q

The AEP should address emergencies that:

A
  • Is within the authority/responsibility of the airport to respond
  • May present a threat to the airport because of proximity to the airport
  • The airport has responsibilities under local EPs and mutual aid agreements
225
Q

Primary purpose of the AEP

A

Provides for:

  1. delegation of authority
  2. Assignment of efforts by responding personnel
  3. Coordination of efforts by responding personnel
  4. An orderly transition between normal and emergency operations
226
Q

4 elements of comprehensive emergency mgmt:

A
  • Mitigation
  • Preparedness
  • Response
  • Recovery
227
Q

Mitigation

A
  • Public education
  • Hazard and vulnerability assessment
  • Improved infrastructure
228
Q

Preparedness

A
  • Emergency response plans
  • Training and exercises
  • Sirens
229
Q

Response

A
  • Life safety
  • Incident stabilization
  • Property preservation
  • Evacuation and shelter
  • Mass care
230
Q

Recovery

A
  • Economic recovery
  • Debris mgmt
  • Housing
  • Health aid and social services
231
Q

AEP needs to provide for:

A
  1. Delegation of authority
  2. Assignment of responsibilities
  3. Coordination of efforts by responding personnel
  4. Orderly transition between normal and emergency operations

Also provides for alternative actions to be substituted whenever the first options are unavailable

232
Q

4 sections of AEP

A
  1. Basic plan
  2. Functional annexes
  3. Hazard specific sections
  4. SOP’s
233
Q

Basic Plan

A

Overview of airports emergency response organization and it’s policies including legal authority for emergency response organization, a summary of the incidents addressed by the AEP, an explanation of the general concept of operations, and assigned responsibilities for emergency planning and operations

234
Q

Functional annexes

A

Plans organized around performance of broad tasks

A. Command and control
B. Communications
C. Alert and warning
D. Emergency public information
E. Protective actions
F. Law enforcement
G. Fire and rescue
H. Health and medical
I. Resource mgmt
J. Operations and mx
235
Q

NIMS

A

National Incident Command System

Outlines requirements for processes, procedures and systems designed to improve interoperability between jurisdictions and disciplines in various areas including: training, resource mgmt, personnel qualifications, equipment certification, communications, and information mgmt, tech support and continuous system mgmt

236
Q

Effectiveness of emergency plan depends on:

A
  1. Command
  2. Control
  3. Communication
237
Q

Command

A

Ability to act with clearly defined authority and to dominate the actions of the many elements involved so that the objective is accomplished. Defines who will assume authority and accept responsibility at the scene of an incident

238
Q

Control

A

Procedures have been established that coordinates the activities of many participants so that the emergency is effectively resolved without duplication of limited resources

239
Q

Communication

A

Transmitting and receiving information without delay or confusion. All personnel at emergency must be proficient in use of equipment

240
Q

ICS structure

A

Incident commander oversees:

  • Operations
  • Planning
  • Logistics
  • Finance/administration
241
Q

Incident Commander

A

Manages equipment and personnel of all responding units, including mutual aid companies. For minor incidents, the handle: scene safety, liaison with outside agencies, and dissemination of information (at a large incident, these will be given to someone else)

242
Q

Operations

A

Responsible for tactical operations at incident site. Carry out necessary functions to respond to an emergency. Often includes police, fire, EMS, airport maintenance and airport operations

243
Q

Planning

A

Typically for incidents lasting longer than 1 operational cycle. Responsible for coordination of collection, evaluation, dissemination, and the use of information regarding the incident as well as the status of resources used/needed at incident site

Also responsible for development of the incident action plan (IAP)

244
Q

Logistics

A

Responsible for facilities, services, personnel, equipment, and material in support of the incident. Have procurement cards, purchasing contracts, and the authority to spend money in order to acquire the needed materials to support the incident

245
Q

Finance/Administration

A

Responsible for tracking all incident costs, evaluate financial considerations of the incident, completing cost analysis and assuring appropriate reimbursement processes are initiated

246
Q

3 phases of an emergency

A
  1. Response
  2. Investigation
  3. Recovery
247
Q

Response Phase

A

Activities are focused on the dispatch and arrival of emergency first responders, initial fire suppression, rescue operations, and dealing with any hazmat issues

248
Q

Investigatory phase

A

Some type of activity specific to the gathering and analysis of information and the drawing of conclusions, including the determination of cause. Usually the responsibility of NTSB. However, in AC 150/5200-12C, ARFF responsibility in protecting evidence at the scene of an aircraft accident

249
Q

Recovery phase

A

Activities focused on returning the airport to normal operational condition ASAP. Whenever possible, wreckage should be left undisturbed until the NTSB arrives. Until then, NTSB or authorized representative takes custody of the wreck, mail or cargo except necessary to 1. remove people injured or trapped 2. Protect wreckage from further damage 3. Protect public from injury. If things need to be moved, take photos, sketches and descriptions

250
Q

Airport remained closed until:

A
  1. AOA is secure
  2. Movement area is properly inspected
  3. Adequate ARFF protection is available for aircraft operations
  4. Public safety is assured
251
Q

Information needed during an emergency

A
  1. Aircraft identification
  2. Nature of the emergency
  3. Quantity of fuel
  4. Intended RWY of use
  5. SOB
  6. Presence of hazmat
  7. Location (if aircraft is on the ground)
252
Q

Alert 1 (Local stand by)

A

Aircraft is known to or suspected to have an operational defect that should not normally cause serious difficulty in achieving a safe landing. No response is required. Response units involved

253
Q

Alert 2 (full emergency)

A

Aircraft is known to have, or suspected to have, an operational defect that affects normal flight operations, if there’s danger of an accident. All units respond to pre-designated positions

254
Q

Alert 3 (Aircraft accident)

A

Aircraft incident/accident has occurred on or near the airport. All designated emergency response units proceed to the scene according to established plans and procedures

255
Q

Class I airports must practice 3 major categories of emergency drills:

A
  1. Tabletop exercise
  2. Partial exercise
  3. Full scale exercise
256
Q

Full scale exercise

A
  1. Done once every 36 calendar months
  2. Intended to evaluate the operational capability of the emergency mgmt system in a stressful environment with actual mobilization and deployment of personnel and resources
257
Q

Irregular Operations

A

IROPs

Exceptional events that require and/or capabilities beyond those considered usual by an airport operator

258
Q

IROPs

A
  • Mostly related to passenger delays of a longer than normal duration at the airport
  • Surge: high level of aircraft and passenger flow into the airport
  • Capacity: Terminal hits its full capacity and all gates become full with aircraft
  • After hours: Aircraft lands with passengers that need to deplane at irregular hours
  • Extended stay: When passengers and aircraft may be stuck for an extended period of time
259
Q

Resource availability for IROPs

A

-Food and water: concessionaires and vendors, some FBOs have on site eating facilities
-Ground transportation: rental cars, taxis, local mass transit, and bus companies
Temporary shelter: Hotels, churches, red cross, or military installations
-ARFF, police, EMS can provide essential life saving services and common first aid, medical supplies and crowd control

260
Q

Contingency plan for lengthy tarmac delays

A
  • Passenger delays aren’t allowed to sit on the ramp for more than 3 hours for domestic and 4 for international unless 1 of following exist:
    1. PIC determines that deplaning passengers would pose unacceptable safety/security risk
    2. ATC advises PIC that returning to the gate or deplaning elsewhere would significantly disrupt airport operations
261
Q

Airports must submit a plan to DOT that specifies:

A
  1. Provide for the deplanement of passengers
  2. Provide for the sharing of facilities and make gates available at the airport
  3. Provide facility constraints
  4. Provide a sterile area following excessive delays for passengers who haven’t yet cleared customs
262
Q

Emergency Operations Center

A

Provide support to IC personnel and coordinate other necessary support functions, which may also include assistance to the airport operator in keeping the airport open

263
Q

Airport communications dispatcher (ACD)

A

Receives and processes emergency/non-emergency calls from the public requesting assistance and transmits/coordinates the dispatching of appropriate service providers

264
Q

6 basic components of emergency telecomms

A
  1. Telephone interrogation (determine nature of call)
  2. Dispatch/resource allocation
  3. Coordination of logistics (Know status of other responders and resources)
  4. Call prioritization (evaluate urgency of request)
  5. Impacting lives via telephone (and radio)
  6. Resource networking
265
Q

5 essential customer touch points to influence passenger experience

A
  1. Physical= Layout/design of terminal, ease of use, design of restrooms (ie odor, way doors swing)
  2. Subliminal= Relates to the overall atmosphere and “feel” of the airport
  3. Human= Interactions passengers have with airport, airline and tenant staff
  4. Procedural= Touch points relate to the processes encountered by the passengers including screening checkpoint, ticketing, and baggage handling, lost and found, other
  5. Communications= Websites, brochures, signage
266
Q

External customer

A

passengers arriving/departing, visitors such as “meet and greeters,” airport employees who buy goods/food/beverages from the airport and other businesses that do business with the airport

267
Q

Internal customer

A

Employees or business departments who receive services from other employees or business departments of the same organization

268
Q

UAV vs. UAS

A

UAV= actual vehicle that flies

UAS= all components that are required to operate the UAV, such as a ground control station, payload, a datalink and the vehicle itself

269
Q

Drone

A

Something that flies in a dull, monotonous, and indifferent manner

270
Q

3 types of UAVs

A
  1. Public= Operated by the US government or another entity authorized to operate on the government’s behlaf
  2. Civil= Don’t qualify under public and may be used to perform commercial or other operations that aren’t considered non-hobby or non-recreational in a low risk environment
  3. Model: Drones 55 lbs. or less and used by a hobbyist
271
Q

Model aircraft flight requirements

A
  1. Fly below 400ft and remain clear of surrounding obstacles
  2. Keep aircraft in line of sight at all times
  3. Remain clear of dont interfere with manned aircraft
  4. No fly within 5NM of an airport unless permission ATC
  5. No flying near people or stadium
  6. No more than 55 lbs
  7. No careless or wreckless flight

Part 107

272
Q

Part 107 requirements of those without a certificate or waiver

A
  1. Remote pilot airman certificate (must pass exam)
  2. Operated within the line of sight
  3. Fly only in daylight/twilight (30 minutes before to 30 minutes after) with appropriate anti-collision light
  4. Weather visibility 3 miles or greater
  5. Max height is 400 ft AGL
  6. Max speed is 100 MPH
273
Q

UAVs over 55 lbs requirements

A
  1. Certificate of authorization/waiver
  2. Must have N number and no commercial use
  3. Must prove ownership airworthiness based on 1 of 4 military standards
  4. Most operations restricted to class D, E, G
  5. COA will list authorized operators. 3 person operations: PIC, visual observer, and ground control operator
  6. Must communicate with ATC
274
Q

Gerardo Hernandez Airport Security Act

A

Requires airports to have an active shooter response plan

Also have an effective mitigation, response, and recovery plan for hijackings, bombings, and other attacks

275
Q

Aviation Security and Transportation Security Act of 2001 (ATSA)

A

Passed on November 19, 2001

Transferred authority for all civil aviation security functions from the FAA to TSA. Charged TSA with the responsibility to screen passengers and their bags

276
Q

Federal Security Director

A

Each airport has an FSD assigned to it. Assisted by AFSDs who oversee screening, inspection, and regulatory functions and other duties

277
Q

FSD’s duties

A

Service: screening of passengers, carry-ons, and checked bags
Regulatory: including airport/aircraft operator compliance inspections and approval of ASPs, oversight of k9 programs, internal investigations
Administration: Staffing, budget and finance personnel, HR, engineering, procurement, PR, and stakeholder managers

278
Q

Responsibilities of FSD

A
  1. Organizes and implements the federal security crisis mgmt response plan
  2. Oversees all screening functions at the airport
  3. Directs personnel to conduct SRAs
  4. Oversees implementation of security technology and mx
  5. Ensures employee security awareness training
  6. Supervises FLEO activities
  7. Coordinates federal, state, and local emergency services and LEOs
279
Q

Other things the ATSA did:

A

Aviation Security and Transportation Security Act

  1. Brought back the federal air marshal
  2. Addressed airport perimeter security
  3. Created the screening partnership program
  4. Required 100% bag screening
  5. Created the trusted traveler program (precheck)
  6. Added requirement for aircraft operator standard security program (AOSSP)
280
Q

Screening partnership program “Opt Out”

A

Airports that desire to, can apply to opt out of their TSA screening personnel. Most common model is for private contractors to conduct screening under airport or government oversight. Airports that opt out do not have a direct say in who the contractor is, and the contractor must adhere to the same or higher training and performance standards as TSA personnel and conduct the same procedures. Screeners are replaced but TSA mgmt to monitor. TSA screeners given hiring priority

281
Q

Aircraft Operator Standard Security Program (AOSSP)

A

The airline’s ASP. For aircraft weighing over 12,500

282
Q

Transportation Security Officers (TSO)

A

Conduct screening of passenges, carry-ons, checked bags. They also conduct the travel document check and some serve as behavior detection officers (specifically trained to identify suspicious people)

283
Q

Transportation Security Inspectors (TSIs)

A

Regulatory enforcement personnel. Conduct inspections of ASP and related processes, inspect the AOSSP (Aicraft operator standard security program), and audits. Can issue LOIs. Allowed to test security systems, methods and procedures

284
Q

Transportation Security Expert-Explosives (TSSE)

A

Formerly known as bomb appraisal officers

Provide guidance to FSD and screening personnel on issues involving explosives, IEDs, and chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) threats

285
Q

Explosives detection K9 program (EDCP)

A

Detect and deter the introduction of explosives into the system. Used to search aircraft, terminal, bags, and deter terrorist activity

286
Q

Playbook

A

Originally aviation direct access screening program (ADASP)

Using random anti-terrorism measures such as random checks of personnel in cargo areas or other locations and putting on a display of force with FAM, TSOs, and K9

287
Q

Airport Security Coordinator

A

Required by regulation. Primary contact for the federal government for security issues at the airport. Ensures the airport complies with federal regulations and develops and gets approval of the ASP and enforces it. In charge of access control, perimeter, credentialing, and mgmt of tenant security programs.
-Must receive training. No retraining unless it’s been 2+ years since duties

288
Q

Duties of ASC

A
  1. Primary and immediate contact with TSA. Available 24/7
  2. Reviews all security functions and effective per 1542
  3. Immediately corrects conditions that don’t comply with 1542 and implement SDs
  4. Review and control CHRCs and STAs
  5. Process applications for SIDA badges
  6. Serve as liaison between carriers and foreign carriers to share information regarding security issues
289
Q

Trusted Agent

A
  • Required by TSA
  • Directly responsible for collection and processing of personally identifiable information, sensitive personal information, and fingerprints
290
Q

Airport Police

A
  • Must be employed at volume that supports ASP enough to respond to contingencies and incidents and checkpoints
  • Arrest authority
  • Identifiable by uniform and badge
  • Armed and authorized to use
  • Completed training at the airport
  • Trained to use firearms, detention, search, arrest
  • Trained in ASP duties
291
Q

Security officers

A

Unarmed security guards provide perimeter security, staff vehicle entry gates and patrol airfield. Assist in evacuations such as when there are security breaches

292
Q

Aircraft operator safety coordinator

A

Primary POC for the TSA in all security issues and compliance with the AOSSP (Aircraft Operator Standard Security Program). All receive SDs

293
Q

Ground Security Coordinator

A

Airline employees assigned to manage security functions.

  1. Resolve conflicts between gate agents and passengers
  2. Intervene in situations with disruptive passengers
  3. POC for bomb threats and hijackings until relieved by a higher authority
  4. Oversee cargo and baggage acceptance procedures
294
Q

In-Flight Security Coordinator (IFSC)

A

PIC. Has final authority related to the safety and security of the flight operations

295
Q

Joint Terrorism Task Force (JTTF)

A

Operated by the FBI. Consists of FBI personnel, state and local LEOs, and intelligence who are focused on preventing terrorist acts and identifying and arresting terrorists

296
Q

Airport Liaison Agent (ALA)

A

Responsible for disseminating relevant threat information to airport executives, aircraft operators, and LEOs. Also contacted when there is an aircraft accident. Notified whenever there’s an act or potential act of terrorism

297
Q

8 signs of terrorism

A
  1. Surveillance= photos, video, drawings of security areas, personnel or facilities, acquiring blueprints
  2. Elicitation= information gathering about operations, capabilities or people via email, mail telephone conversations with staff
  3. Testing security= Attempting to access areas, penetrate barriers
  4. Funding= Large transactions involving cash/gift cards, sale of counterfeit or stolen goods
  5. Acquiring supplies= weapons, explosives, badges, uniforms
  6. Impersonation= Pretending to be police, fire EMS
  7. Rehearsal= multiple alarms in 1 area in short amount of time
  8. Deployment= Moving into position or equipment
298
Q

CBP and Immigrations and Customs Enforcement (ICE)

A
  • Protect port of entry
  • CBP= focuses on goods coming into the country
  • ICE= Focuses on individuals and their immigration/citizen status
299
Q

Human trafficking

A
  • Air travel is the most common way of transportation
  • Promises of legitimate jobs
  • Many are children
300
Q

7 indicators of human trafficking

A
  1. Traveler isn’t dressed appropriately for route of travel
  2. Have a tattoo with a bar code and/or word “daddy”
  3. Can’t provide details of departure, destination or flight information
  4. Communications seem scripted or there’s inconsistencies with their story
  5. Can’t move freely in an airport or on a plane or are being controlled, followed or closely watched
  6. Afraid to discuss themselves around others, deferring attempts at conversation to won’s controlling them
  7. If a child, signs of abuse and neglect
301
Q

Federal Protective Service (FPS)

A

Protect federal facilities. Some are armed and wear armor. Some located at airports since federal funding and should be included into incident mgmt systems

302
Q

Title 14 CFR Part 1500:

A

Civil Aviation Security

general definitions and applicability

303
Q

Title 49 CFR Part 1503

A

Investigation and enforcement

(addresses TSA method of investigating enforcement violations of the airport executive, aircraft operator, or cargo SP or individuals who violate aviation security regulations)

304
Q

Title 49 CFR Part 1520:

A

Protection of SSI

  • Ensures individuals without “need to know” aren’t allowed access to information marked SSI
  • Need to know: information needed to do the job
  • Can’t release information to foreign carriers
305
Q

Title 49 CFR Part 1540:

A

Security responsibilities of individuals

Includes general rules, definitions, screening responsibilities and prohibition of weapons

306
Q

Title 49 CFR Part 1544

A

Domestic aircraft operator security, primarily scheduled service under part 121, part 135 and cargo under part 125

307
Q

Title 49 CFR Part 1542

A

Airport security

308
Q

Title 49 CFR Part 1546

A

Foreign aircraft operator security

309
Q

Title 49 CFR Part 1548

A

Indirect aircraft operator security

310
Q

Title 49 CFR Part 1550

A

Aircraft operator security under general operating rules, specifically any commercial flight not covered under part 1544

311
Q

Title 49 CFR Part 1552

A

Commercial flight training security requirements

312
Q

Requirements of part 1542

A
  1. Roles and responsibilities of the ASC
  2. Access control systems
  3. Personal identifications systems (CHRC, LEO, response required)
  4. Contingency planning
  5. incident response
313
Q

ASP

A

Meant to address unique design of airport. Provides security of people and property on an aircraft against criminal violence and aircraft piracy, must prevent unauthorized weapons, explosives, or incendiaries from being carried on board

314
Q

3 types of security programs

A
  1. Complete
  2. Supporting
  3. Partial
315
Q

TSA classification of airports

A 
Category X: Largest, busiest
Category I: Medium hub size
Category II: Small hub size
Category III: Small/non-hub size
Category IV: Seasonably operated commercial
316
Q

Complete security program

A

Required for most category X through III airports. Require the fulfillment off all items listed in the table of contents

317
Q

Supporting/partial security programs

A

For category IV airports

  • Typically don’t include defined security areas (No badging or CHRC required)
  • Supporting= adherence to sections in ASC, LEO requirements, record keeping, contingency plan, SSI and incident mgmt
  • Partial= Same as above, except for contingency plans which aren’t required to have
318
Q

TSA can change airport categorization based on:

A
  1. Threat conditions at the airport
  2. Scope of operation (Size and extent of operations)
  3. Type of operations (co-location of military, cargo, mail, etc)
  4. Geo-political circumstances
319
Q

4 types of security areas

A
  1. Secured
  2. SIDA
  3. AOA
  4. Sterile
320
Q

Sterile area

A

begins at the screening checkpoint and extends to the doors leading outside to the aircraft. Controlled by 3 entities: TSA, airport operator, and the aircraft operator

321
Q

Secured area

A

Established around scheduled air carrier operations where passengers unload/load, baggage sorting and screening area. Highest level of access control (requiring a system that can validate access, distinguish the individuals access authority and deny/allow access immediately)

322
Q

SIDA area

A

Is part of a secured area and can also be attached to an AOA. A stand alone SIDA doesn’t have access control requirements unless its combined with an AOA or secured area in which case it incorporates the access control requirements of a secured area or AOA. Stand alone usually found inside cargo facilities with a painted line

323
Q

AOA

A

Established wherever aircraft operate including ramps, TWYs, and RWYs. Visually identified (signs on perimeter fence) and access must be controlled through a lock and key method. Entire airfield is AOA except secured area. AOA has lowest level of security requirements

324
Q

Exclusive Area Agreements

A

Apply to regulated parties (1544+1546). TSA may approve an amendment to ASP under which an aircraft operator or foreign carrier that has a SP under 1544 or 1546 assume security responsiblity for all/portion of secured, AOA, or SIDA including access control points

325
Q

Airport Tenant Security Program (ATSP)

A

Similar to EAA but it applies to non-regulated parties such as FBOs, corporate operators and specialized aviation service operators

326
Q

Physical access control system (PACS) requirements

A
  1. Monitor access to secured/sterile areas, annunciate any security violations and record/log attempts at access
  2. Verify badge holder is entitled to pass through the portal and allows/denies access (local audible alarm)
  3. For AOA access, the airport operator must explain how the access control measures will deter, detect, or allow the airport to respond to an unlawful breach attempt
327
Q

Point of denial/controlled access point

A
  • Doors that access security areas
  • Usually equipped with CCTV that communicates with security operations center
  • Airport operator must respond to all door/gate alarms on access points that access security areas
328
Q

Aviation Transportation and Security Act of 2001

A

Requires that all airport, aircraft operator, or foreign carrier personnel with access to he SIDA undergo a fingerprint based CHRC and STA check. Periodic re-checks, signatory authority

-28 disqualifying criminal offenses (All felonies)

329
Q

All badges must have:

A
  1. Full face image, full name of the individual, the employer. and an identification # to whom the badge was issued.
  2. Indicate through badge color schemes, the scope of the individual’s access and movement privileges
  3. Be of sufficient size and appearance as to be readily observable for challenge purposes
330
Q

TSA approved identification media issued by other agents

A
  1. Military identification during military flight operations on AOA
  2. FAA PPL combined with another government ID on GA airport
  3. Airline identification for pilots conducting pre-flight or proceeding from building to aircraft
  4. FAA safety inspector forms and FAA 110A
  5. TSA compliance inspector badge and ID card or other federal agency creds (DEA, SS, FBI)
  6. Emergency worker identification during emergencies
331
Q

Contingency plans

A
  • Airports must review and exercise annually

- All who are a part of ASP must attend so they know their responsibilities

332
Q

Immediately upon receipt of a threat, airport operators must:

A
  1. Evaluate the threat according to the ASP
  2. Initiate appropriate actions, as specified in the AEP and the appropriate sections of the ASP
  3. Immediately notify the TSA of acts or suspectd acts of unlawful interference to civil aviation operations, including specific bomb threats to aircraft and airport facilities
333
Q

GA hotline for GA security

A

1-866-GA-SECURE

C.M. (4 decks)

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