Module 2 Planning, Construction and Environmental Flashcards

1
Q

National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS)

A

Provides the federal government perspective on the role of each public-use airport in the national air transportation system. However, NPIAS only addresses the development and planning projects that are eligible for federal funding through AIP

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2
Q

State aviation system plans

A

Provide more detailed guidance on how the airports within the state can be developed to better meet the aviation needs of the state. State system plans allow planners to better determine how to maximize the return on the investment of public and airport funds and identify which capital development needs would best meet the state’s aviation needs

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3
Q

Metropolitan (regional) aviation system plans

A

More specific in detail and narrower in focus than a state or regional plan and often take into account airport capacity, inter modal access and the type of traveler within the community. Metro plans can better address areas with more unique needs to provide better options for the community

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4
Q

Landside

A

Inter modal and ground access areas, such as ingress and egress route to the terminal, parking garages, rental car facilities, public transportation, and other airport support areas

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5
Q

Functional areas within a commercial service airport

A
  • Passenger terminal ticketing counters
  • Baggage claim areas
  • Concessions
  • Restrooms
  • Public assembly areas
  • Airline clubs
  • Mechanical space
  • Ground transportation
  • Security screening
  • Administrative areas
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6
Q

Terminal

A
  • Inter modal transportation
  • Vendor storage
  • Pet areas
  • Business centers
  • Fitness facilities
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7
Q

Airside

A
  • Runways
  • Taxiways
  • Aircraft parking areas within perimeter fence
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8
Q

Grant Assurance #29

“ALP”

A
  • Requires the airport sponsor keep the ALP up to date at all times
  • ALP: are drawings used to graphically depict current and future airport facilities
  • ALP standards can be found in A/C 150/5070-6B: Airport master plans and FAA’s SOP 2.0 standard procedure for FAA review and approval of ALP’s
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9
Q

ALP

A

Graphical representation of the existing and proposed airport land, terminal and other facilities and structures owned by the airport, protection zones, and approach areas. It also features a narrative that includes basic aeronautical forecasts, the basis for proposed items of development, rationale for unusual design features or modifications to FAA airport design standards, environmental features that might influence airport operations and those features necessary for future development and a summary of the various stages of development and layout sketches of the major elements

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10
Q

A standard ALP typically includes a narrative and the following sketches:

A
  1. Cover sheet
  2. Airport layout and drawing (aka ALP sheet)
  3. Airport airspace drawing
  4. Inner portion of the approach surface drawing
  5. Terminal area drawing
  6. Land use drawing
  7. Runway departure surface drawing
  8. Airport property map (aka exhibit a)
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11
Q

Additional elements of an ALP

A
  • Data sheet
  • Facilities layout plan
  • Utility drawing
  • Airport access plans

-Also identifies facilities that are no longer needed and includes a plan for their removal

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12
Q

Approved and signed by the FAA:

A

ALP becomes a legal document. All development carried out on federally obligated airports must be accomplished in accordance with an FAA approved ALP. The FAA’s approval of the ALP signifies FAA concurrence in the conformity of the plan to all applicable airport design standards and criteria. Also reflects agreement between FAA and airport sponsor regarding proposed allocation of airport areas to specific operational and support functions. Doesn’t represent FAA release of any federal obligations attached to land/property in question. Doesn’t approve land use for non-aeronautical purposes

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13
Q

FAA order 5100.38 AIP handbook

A

Provides supplemental guidance for the preparation of an ALP

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14
Q

If an airport makes a change not reflected in the ALP:

A

If the FAA determines that the change will adversely affect the safety, utility or efficiency of any federally owned/leased or funded property on/off the airport, the FAA may require the airport to eliminate the adverse effect or bear the cost of rectifying the situation

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15
Q

5 primary functions of the ALP

A
  1. It’s an FAA approved plan necessary for the airport to receive AIP funding and to continue to receive PFC funding
  2. It’s a blueprint for airport development
  3. It’s a public document that serves as a record of aeronautical requirements and is available for community reference
  4. It enables the FAA and airport sponsor to plan for improvements
  5. Working took for staff including operations and maintenance
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16
Q

FAA Part 157: Notice of construction, alteration, activation/de-activation of airports

A

Requires airport owners and operators to notify the FAA 30 days in advance of any construction, alteration, deactivation or changes in use of any airport

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17
Q

FAA standard form SF-7460-1

A

Notice of proposed construction or alteration

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18
Q

FAA standard form SF-7480-1

A

Notice of landing area proposal

  • Notice of the activation or alteration of a landing area
  • For a new airport site or location, the initial investigation is the responsibility of the airport sponsor, not the FAA
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19
Q

ALP updates

A
  • Reviewed and validated every 2-7 years
  • May be necessary if existing projects or facilities at the airport cannot accommodate forecast aeronautical needs or don’t meet airport design standards
  • Also considered when numerous changes have been made
  • Numerous “pen and ink” changes exist
  • Or when ACIP is in need of an update
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20
Q

ALP should reflect:

A

Any changes that may affect the navigable airspace or the ability of the airport to expand including the physical features on the airport and the critical land uses in and around the vicinity of the airport

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21
Q

Grant assurances specifically require airport mgmt to keep the following items up to date:

A
  1. Property lines
  2. Location and nature of all existing/proposed facilities and structures (navaids, obstructions, roads)
  3. Location of all existing and proposed non-aviation areas and improvements (parking lots, ground access roads, and water retention ponds)
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22
Q

ALP contents

A
  1. Cover sheet
  2. ALP sheet
  3. Data sheet
  4. Facilities layout plan
  5. Terminal area plan
  6. Airport airspace drawings
  7. Inner portions of the approach surface drawing
  8. On/off airport land use drawings
  9. Airport property maps
  10. RWY departure surface drawing
  11. Utility drawings
  12. Airport access plans
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23
Q

Cover Sheet

A

Includes approval signature blocks, airport location maps and other date required by the FAA

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24
Q

ALP sheet

A

Includes data such as existing /future airfield layout (RW, TWY, taxi lanes, ramp areas), facilities, lines depicting RSAs, OFAs, OFZs, RPZs, airport property lines, the building restrictions line, the RWY visibility line and the locations of the ATCT and other facilities (ARFF)

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25
Q

Data sheet

A

Contains airport and runway data tables and wind rose. Wind rose is a diagram showing the percentage of time the wind blows from a particular direction and a particular speed. RWYs are normally aligned with the prevailing winds. Crosswind RWY are built to accommodate smaller aircraft that are more susceptible to crosswind effects than larger ones

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26
Q

Facilities layout plan

A

Depicts existing/future facilities and for larger airports, can go on for several pages. Essentially a closer look at the facilities located at the airport

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27
Q

Terminal Area Plan

A

Depicts the airport terminal and its surrounding facilities. A structure’s height is usually noted along with obstructions, marking or lighting. For small GA airports, a separate terminal drawing may not be necessary adequate detail is available on the airport layout drawing. The terminal drawing further shows the ground access to the airport terminal area, along with the major highway routes from the airport towards a central business district, other points of destination, or key arterial systems. If applicable, other modes of access, such as rail or water, are also shown

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28
Q

Airport Airspace Drawings

A

Intended to show all imaginary surfaces identified in FAR part 77, safe, efficient use and preservation of the navigable airspace

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29
Q

Inner portions of the approach surface drawings

A

Include a profile view that presents all RWY approaches and the location of objects as they affect the approach. The profiles show the existing and planned RWY length. Obstruction data tables and charts are also included on the airspace drawing that provide information about the disposition of the obstruction proposed removal, lighting, marking, etc. May also depict other approach surfaces including the threshold-siting surface and those surfaces associated with the US standard for TERPs

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30
Q

On/off airport land use drawings

A

Depict existing/recommended uses of all land within the ultimate airport property line and withing the vicinity of the airport, at lease to the 65DNL noise contour. The purpose is to provide airport mgmt with a plan for leasing revenue-producing areas on the airport and for providing guidance on determining allowable compatible uses such as ones for farming, recreational, commercial or industrial. Also provide guidance to local planning commissions for the establishment of appropriate airport area zoning

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31
Q

Airport Property Map

A

Depicts how various tracts of land were acquired. It includes easements outside the airport property line. The purpose of the map (aka exhibit a) on AIP grant applications, is to identify the legal interest and ownership of land that makes up the airport. The maps assist the FAA in determining/analyzing the current/future use of land acquired with federal funds. Required to be current at all times and area submitted as part of any AIP grant application

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32
Q

RWY departure surface drawing

A

Depicts applicable departure surfaces

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33
Q

Utility Drawing

A

Depicts the location and capacity of all utilities on and around the airport

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34
Q

Airport Access Plans

A

Depicts major routes and modes of transportation that serve the airport. These plans are normally used if access to the airport is a significant issue

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35
Q

ALP approval

A
  • Submitted to ADO to ensure that all existing and proposed developments will be:
    1. Safe= meets design standards or modified design standards and provides for safe operation of aircraft
    2. Useful= In relation to airport purposes (Make the best use of airport land while minimum impact of off airport structures)
    3. Efficient= Planned capacity is sufficient for the forecast demand (efficient flow of traffic with minimal delays, adequate RWY spacing to allow for simultaneous approaches)
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36
Q

FAA has 3 levels of ALP approvals

A
  • Unconditional
  • Conditional
  • Mixed
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37
Q

Unconditional Approaval

A

All items of proposed development requiring environmental processing have received environmental approval

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38
Q

Conditional approval

A

Environmental processing hasn’t been completed for all of the items of proposed development requiring it

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39
Q

Mixed Approval

A

Some near term projects depicted in the ALP have completed the required (NEPA) reviews while long term projects have not. Elements that are unconditionally approved can be implemented but elements not covered by the NEPA document are conditionally approved and cannot more forward until the required NEPA processes are complete

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40
Q

Airport data and information program

A

Guides airport sponsors on the collection, submission and mgmt of airport data and information, which ensures airport users have the most current information available on the status of the airport and national airspace system. The program ensures other airport operators, aircraft operators and ATC are also provided with this information. This is achieved through the airport master record

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41
Q

NPIAS

A

5 year plan updated and published by the FAA every 2 years. The NPIAS lists public use airports and identifies needs that are eligible for federal financial planning and development assistance (Development projects, certain equipment, planning projects) on airports that are considered to be in the national interest

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42
Q

Airport Master Record

A

Describes the basic operational and services data odf the airport. The regulatory responsibility to keep the FAA abreast of such changes is embodied in title 14 CFR Part 157 notification of construction, alteration, activation, and deactivation of airports

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43
Q

Airport Data Record

A
  • Must be completed on an annual basis
  • Form 5010
  • FAA uses this information to update the A F/D
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44
Q

Form 5010 Information

A
  • Airfield=RWY length, width, strength
  • Approach lighting and airfield lighting configuration
  • Enplanements
  • Aircraft operations including type (Charter, military, GA)
  • Owner/operator of facility
  • Obstructions
  • Other critical information
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45
Q

Airport planning is performed at several levels:

A
  1. NPIAS
  2. Statewide integrated airport systems
  3. Regional/metro integrated airport systems
  4. Airport master plans
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46
Q

Statewide integrated airport systems

A

Identifies the general location and characteristics of new airports and the general expansion needs of the the existing facilities to meet statewide air transportation goals. This planning is performed or sponsored by state transportation or aviation planning agencies

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47
Q

Regional/metro integrated airport systems

A

Identifies airport needs for large regional/metro areas. Needs are stated in general terms and are incorporated into statewide system plans. Planning is done by regional/metro planning agencies

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48
Q

Airport Master Plans

A

Prepared by the owner/operator of individual airports, usually with the assistance of consultants. They detail the specific, long range plans of the individual airport within the framework of statewide and regional/metro system plans. These plans identify the development needs at the individual airports on the basis of forecasts of aviation activity, the potential environmental effects, community compatibility and financial feasibility

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49
Q

Title 14 CFR Part 151

“Federal Aid to Airports”

A

Addresses the requirements of NPIAS as well as the processes to apply for, receive and implement the funds from an FAA grant

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50
Q

Title 14 CFR Part 152

“Airport Aid Program”

A

Developed after the Airport/Airway Development Act of 1970 and further expanded the requirements of Part 151

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51
Q

To meet demand for air transportation, the airport system should adhere to the following guidelines:

A
  1. The airport should be safe/efficient located at optimum sites, and developed and maintained to appropriate standards
  2. Should be affordable to users, government, relying on user fees and place minimum burden on general revenue of local/state/federal government
  3. Should be flexible, expandable and meet increasing demand and accommodate new aircraft
  4. Be permanent with assurance they will remain open for aeronautical use
  5. Should be compatible with surrounding communities. Needs of aviation and neighborhoods
  6. Developed in concert with improvements to ATC system
  7. Support national objectives for defense, emergency ready and postal delivery
  8. Extensive and provide convenient access (no more than 20 miles to an airport)
  9. Help air transportation contribute to productive national economy and international competitiveness
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52
Q

Deciding what projects go into the NPIAS is a function of:

A

Individual airport master plans, ACIP, ALPs, aviation forecasts , existing RWY capacity and annual airport capacities, airport dimensional standards, as related to each airport’s critical aircraft and other factors such as land acquisition, navaids, and ramp space, certain landside projects, such as projects at air carrier airports that are included as part of the master plan can be included

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53
Q

3 general categories of work are:

A
  1. Purpose
  2. Physical
  3. Type of work
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54
Q

Purpose

A
  • Safety
  • Rehab
  • Capacity
  • Standards
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55
Q

Physical component

A
  • RWY
  • TWY
  • Apron
  • Equipment acquisition
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56
Q

Type of work

A
  • Construct
  • Expand
  • Improve
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57
Q

System Plans

A

Designed to provide a viable, balanced, and integrated air transportation system. Provide local policy makers with detailed information to guide planning for comprehensive land use, ground transportation and other metro development activities

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58
Q

Airport system planning has 4 main elements

A
  1. System needs identification
  2. System wide development cost estimate
  3. Studies surveys and other planning actions to decide which aeronautical needs should be met by a system of airports
  4. Standards prescribed by a state (except standards for safety of approaches), for airport development at non-primary public-use airports
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59
Q

Airport system planning process should be consistent with state/regional goals for transportation, land use and the environment, and generally includes:

A
  1. Exploration of issues that impact aviation in the stufdy area
  2. Inventory of the current system
  3. Identification of air transportation needs
  4. Forecast of system demand
  5. Consideration of alternative airport systems
  6. Definition of airport rules and policy strategies
  7. Recommendations of system changes, funding strategies, and airport development
  8. preparation of implementation plan
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60
Q

Final product should result in:

A

The identification, preservation and enhancement of the aviation system to meet the current/future demands of a state, regional or metro area, which results in the establishment of a viable, balanced, and integrated system of airports

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61
Q

Airport Master Plan

A

Used for long range planning. Represents the vision of the airport operator stakeholders, local community, government agencies, planners, and airport sponsors for the development of the airport for up to 20 years. The goal is to provide framework to guide future development that is cost effective and satisfies the needs of the airport, the market and the community, while also balancing the environment and socioeconomic impacts

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62
Q

Master plan includes and provides:

A
  • Comprehensive study of an airport that considers the airport’s current capabilities, projects future activity and suggest development projects to enable the airport to accommodate the additional demand.
  • Graphical representation of the airport and anticipated land uses in its vicinity and establishes a realistic implementation schedule along with an achievable financial plan
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63
Q

Master plans should provide documentation that supports:

A

Proposed developments, sets realistic schedules for project implementation, includes an achievable financial plan and includes enough project detail for subsequent environmental evaluations which may be required before a project is approved. Should also be flexible enough to permit changes in plan recommendations

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64
Q

AMP includes the following phases:

A
  1. Pre planning
  2. Public involvement
  3. Environmental considerations
  4. Existing conditions
  5. Aviation forecasts
  6. Facility requirements
  7. Alternative to development and evaluation
  8. ALP
  9. Facilities implementation plan
  10. Financial feasibility analysis
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65
Q

Each master process is intended to produce:

A
  1. A technical report containing the analyses conducted in the development of the plan
  2. Summary report that brings together facts, conclusions and recommendations for public review
  3. Updated ALP drawing set
  4. A webpage with information about the airport and key elements of the master plan
  5. A public information kit that can include visual aid models, brochures, or computer presentations to support the airport development program
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66
Q

Acceptance vs. Approval of a master plan

A

Accepting= means the FAA has reviewed the elements of the MP to ensure sound planning techniques have been applied

Approval= Forecast and the ALP. Demand forecasts must resolve any inconsistency between forecasted levels and the TAF produced by the FAA

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67
Q

Pre-planning

A

Planners/airport sponsors need to make 2 major decisions:

  1. What type of study to conduct
  2. What level of detail to develop for the individual elements of the study

-Usually based on existing shortcomings in the plan or the introduction of a new type of aircraft, critical environment problem or change in the strategic vision of the airport. The airlines, tenants, federal/state/regional planning agencies or the airport operator, may all identify the need for a master plan update. The type of study (MP vs. ALP update) is determined by the elements that need to be included

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68
Q

Consultant Selection

A

AC 150/5100-14, architectural, engineering and planning consultant services for airport grant projects, provides important guidance on consultant selection. Another reference is, “Guidelines to selecting airport consultants” published by the airport consultants council

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69
Q

Brooks Act

A

Requires that selections be based on qualifications and that award be made according to a fair and open selection process. The GA addressing “Engineering and design services” specification states that the airport sponsor must award each contract or sub-contract for program mgmt, construction mgmt, planning studies, feasibility studies, architectural services, preliminary engineering, design, survey, mapping or related services under title 9 of the federal Property and Administration Services Act of 1949 (Brooks Act)

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70
Q

Before soliciting statements of qualifications (SOQs), request for qualifications (RFGs), or RFPs, the airport should:

A

Have a clear understanding of the issues that have defined the need for the study. The requests can be distributed by a number of methods, including public announcements, direct requests, and personal discussions

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71
Q

Selection process begins with an invite and the invite should include:

A
  • Project title
  • General scope of work
  • Submission deadline
  • Submitted content requirements
  • Airport contact
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72
Q

Interested consultants/engineers normally respond with a submittal that includes:

A
  • Information demonstrating their understanding of the project
  • Evidence of the firm’s ability to perform the work
  • Profile’s of the firm’s principals
  • Staff facilities
  • References

-(if requested) statements regarding the firm’s fiscal stability may also be provided

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73
Q

Consultant selection process includes:

A
  1. Project identification and advertisement
  2. Pre-qualification of firms (optional)
  3. Request of preliminary proposals
  4. Preliminary short list selection
  5. Formal proposals requested (and qualifications)
  6. Final selection and ranking
  7. Negotiation and contract agreement
  8. Obtainment of FAA concurrence
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74
Q

A selection panel should:

A

Evaluate responses according to criteria outlined in the airport’s invite. An unbiased and technical qualified panel should accomplish the consultant selection. The firm’s qualifications should be judged on the basis of experience in similar work, professional credentials, and conformance with the RFQ documentation. Subject to local law and policy, a review of the technical qualifications of numerous firms is appropriate, but actual solicitation of technical proposals should be limited to a few firms

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75
Q

Selection panel assessments:

A

Shouldn’t be expected to make a thorough assessment of the technical proposals or to conduct effective interviews when a multitude of consultants are involved. They should develop a short list of 3-4 qualified firms but also identify the most qualified firm. Firms are then invited to submit or make further presentations to the selection panel

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76
Q

Fixed Price Contract

A

The normal agreement
-advisable whenever the level of effort can be fairly well predicted and where reasonable prices can be established. It imposes a minimum administrative burden but also provides an incentive for effective cost control and contract performance

If level of effort or duration of project is uncertain, then a cost and fixed fee contract or a time and materials contract may be necessary

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77
Q

Cost and fixed fee contract

A
  • Time and materials contract

- Used when the level of effort or duration of the project is uncertain

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78
Q

Specific topics to be addressed during the planning phase, are:

A
  1. Goals and objectives
  2. Data availability
  3. Forecast horizons
  4. Environment considerations
  5. Schedules
  6. Deliverable
  7. Coordination and public involvement program
  8. Budget
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79
Q

Goals and objectives

A

Should answer key questions such as, “why is this master plan study being conducted?” and, “What are the key issues that need to be addressed in the future development of the airport”

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80
Q

Data availability

A

Available forecasts produced by state/regional plans, the FAA TAF, and current inventory data should be identified, as should data to be collected and developed by the consultant

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81
Q

Forecast Horizons

A

Although 5/10/20 year time frames are typical for the short, medium and long term forecasts, some studies may want to use different time frames. Planning activity levels that specify greater future levels of aviation activity are increasingly used as an alternate to forecast years

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82
Q

Environmental Considerations

A

Airport operators should identify whether an EA or EIS will be required and whether or not categorical exclusions should apply. They should consult with the FAA to determine the appropriate time to conclude the environment consultant in the process. Some states may have environmental documentation requirements that are separate but comparable to federal requirements

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83
Q

Schedules

A

Should indicate decision points where continued work would require FAA or airport sponsor approval to proceed

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84
Q

Deliverables

A

The specific work products, along with the level of detail required in each should be identified

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85
Q

Coordination and public involvement program

A

Less complex studies usually require less public involvement whereas complex studies, particularly those with contentious development issues requires much larger public involvement or “outreach” programs

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86
Q

Budget

A

The scope of work and associated fees are determined concurrently, but there are often scope items that may require fees that exceed the sponsors budget. Th sponsor and the consultant must then modify the scope of work, fees, or budget until all 3 are agreed upon

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87
Q

Public awareness campaign

A

Often includes informational and educational materials such as fact sheets, flyers, press releases, newspaper ads, social media and web pages with interactive self-guided presentation. Electronic versions of key documents may also be made available online

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88
Q

Public involvement program should include:

A

Elected/appointed officials, residents, travelers, tenants, and members of the general public. “Stakeholders”

Has the greatest impact at the beginning of the study before key planning decisions are made or are heavily invested in distrust could result if significant decisions are made before stakeholder input

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89
Q

Citizen’s advisory committee

A

Serves as a sounding board and an information exchange group for stakeholders. Traditional public meetings (presentations) are less effective than an “open house” format

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90
Q

Technical Advisory Committee (TAC)

A

Provides input and insight on technical issues and is composed of individuals with relevant technical backgrounds

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91
Q

Groups to be considered airport stakeholders

A
  1. Users and tenants
  2. Groups/individuals from within the sponsor’s organizations
  3. FAA personnel from the appropriate regional/field office
  4. Resource agencies and other government units with regulatory authority
  5. Members of the community that surround or are affected by the airport
  6. Other interested groups

Should be able to represent a consensus viewpoint rather than special interest minority/personal opinion

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92
Q

Environmental considerations

A

Identify key issues that will be analyzed for airport development alternatives to ensure that the master plan budget provides enough resources to cover the cost of analysis.

Approximately 40 laws protect environmental stuff

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93
Q

Potential environmental impact of each development project are categorized in:

A

FAA order 1050.1 environmental impacts: policies and procedures

FAA order 5050.4 FAA airports, guidance for complying with NEPA

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94
Q

Inventory of pertinent data: first step is collect all types of data pertaining to airport service area. This includes:

A

Historical review of airport and its facilities, airspace structures and navaids, airport related land use, aeronautical activity, and socioeconomic factors (demography, disposable personnel per capita income, economic activity, status of industries, geographic factors, competitive position sociological/political/and community values)

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95
Q

Classifications typically used in this element of the master plan:

A
  • Airfield/airspace
  • Commercial passenger terminal facilities
  • GA facilities
  • Cargo facilities
  • Support facilities
  • Access/circulation/parking
  • Utilities
  • Non-aeronautical facilities
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96
Q

Airfield/Airspace

A
  • RWYs/TWYs
  • lighting/marking/signs
  • Existence of RON parking
  • Historical data on weather obstructions
  • Noise abatement
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97
Q

Commercial passenger terminal facilities

A
  • Building space
  • Size of major function areas
  • Gates
  • Aircraft parking areas
  • Restaurants
  • Concessions
  • Passengers screening areas
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98
Q

GA facilities

A
  • Quantity and type of hangars
  • Transient aircraft parking
  • Tie down locations
  • GA terminal facilities
  • FBOs
  • Flight Schools
  • Maintenance shops
  • Based aircraft mix
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99
Q

Cargo facilities

A

Quantity and area of cargo buildings and aircraft parking

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100
Q

Support Facilities

A

Quantity and type of airport support facilities such as ARFF, airport administrative areas, airline flight kitchens, fuel storage, and FAA facilities such as ATCT

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101
Q

Access, circulation and Parking

A

Quantity and type of ground access systems, commercial areas, access roads, service roads, parking and curb spaces, and the availability of public transportation services such as bus/rail/taxi and limos

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102
Q

Utilities

A

Major infrastructure such as water, sewer, communications, HVAC, fuel lines, fiber optic cables and power

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103
Q

Non-aeronautical facilities

A

Recreational facilities, industrial parks, storm water, retention and snow storage areas, agriculture areas and retail businesses associated with the airport should be included

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104
Q

Aviation demand forecast

A
  • The basis for effective decisions in airport planning
  • Forecast for short, intermediate and long range time frames and is used to determine the need for new or expanded facilities. Forecasts are expected to be realistic and based on current data
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105
Q

Short term forecast

A

Up to 5 years in length justify near term development and support operational planning and environmental improvement programs

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106
Q

Medium term forecast

A

6-10 year time frame are used in planning capital improvements

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107
Q

Long term forecast

A

Beyond 10 years in length are helpful for general planning

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108
Q

Information used for forecasts

A
Required:
Operations (annual)
   -Itinerant 
     -air carrier, air taxi, commuter, GA, military 
   -Local
     -GA, military
Passengers (Annual)
   -Enplanements
     -air carrier, commuter 
     -originating, connecting
Aircraft
   -Based aircraft, aircraft mix, critical aircraft
Included where appropriate :
Operations
   -Domestic vs. international
   -Annual instrument approaches
   -IFR vs.VFR operations
   -Air cargo aircraft operations
     -tng operations (Training)
   -Helicopter operations
     - average payload 
     -Fuel use
Passengers
   -Passenger and cargo data
   -Domestic vs. International
   -GA 
   -Helicopter
   -Air taxi
   -Other
     -# of student pilots
     -# of hours flown
Aircraft
   -average seats/aircraft
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109
Q

Forecasts available for use in developing and evaluating the master plan:

A
  • Terminal area forecast
  • Historical data
  • National aerospace forecasts and FAA long range aerospace forecast
    • FAA’s office of aviation policy and plans
    • Estimates of national aviation demand for 12 years
  • State aviation system plans
  • FAA form 5010
  • Airport master plan

-Forecasts subject to FAA approval

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110
Q

Aviation demand elements

A
  • Aircraft operations
  • local operations
  • Itinerant operations
  • Enplaned passengers
  • Enplaned air cargo
  • Aircraft mix
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111
Q

Aircraft Operation

A

Defined as a take off or a landing at an airport. Includes tng operations which count as 2 sequential operations. An operation is further classified as either local or itinerant

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112
Q

Local Operations

A

Arrival/departure of aircraft that operate in the local traffic pattern or within sight of the ATCT. They’re known to be departures for, or arriving from, flights in local training areas within a 20 mile radius of the airport and/or ATCT. Also includes simulated instrument approaches or low passes at the airport. A forecast of annual instrument approaches is needed for planning or upgrading navaids and landing systems

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113
Q

Itinerant Operations

A

Arrival/departure other than local operations. Estimates of local/itinerant aircraft operations are developed for each of the 4 major civil airport user categories: air carriers, commuters, air taxis, GA. 5th category military is estimated for those airports that have significant levels of that type of activity. The ATCT routinely keeps the activity data if one exists on the field

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114
Q

Enplaned Passengers

A

Total # of paying passengers who are departing on commercial aircraft. Originating and transfer passengers are included as are air taxi/charter passengers. Not included are non-revenue passengers such as airline employees or thru-passengers (departing on aircraft with the same flight # that they arrive and not requiring re-boarding). Separate forecasts are developed for both domestic and international passengers. Made for each of the 3 categories: Air carrier, regional, air taxi

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115
Q

Enplaned Air Cargo

A

Includes total tonnage of priority, non-priority and foreign mail, express and freight (property other than baggage accompanying passengers) departing on aircraft at an airport to include origination, stopovers, and transfer cargo. A large amount of air cargo and air mails is moved by the regular air carriers as well as the all cargo operators and should be included in the forecasts. Since the design of an airport is contingent upon the type of aircraft using the facility, a forecast identifying the future mix is necessary.

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116
Q

Aircraft Mix

A

Refers to the categories of aircraft: <12,500 lbs., 12,500 up to 60,000 lbs, and over 60,000 lbs. An aircraft’s weight, wingspan, and speed are tied directly to the length, width and strength of RWYs/TWYs. Helicopter operations at the airport also have design considerations and should be forecasted

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117
Q

Factors used to forecast the demand for an individual master plan:

A
  1. Economic characteristics
  2. Demographic characteristics
  3. Geographical attributes
  4. Aviation related factors
  5. Other factors
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118
Q

Economic Characteristics as part of the master plan

A

Particularly important in connection with business travel by commercial and GA aircraft and with air cargo traffic. Manufacturing, service industries, primary and resource businesses, agricultural flying, instrumental flying, and aircraft sales all generate air transportation activity both inside and outside the airport area.

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119
Q

Demographic Characteristics as part of the master plan

A

Size/composition of an airport’s community population and its potential growth rate, are basic is creating demand. Includes: population profile and change in age, education and occupation distribution demographic factors influence level of airport traffic, its composition and its growth in terms of incoming traffic from other states/regions/cities and traffic generated by local/regional populations. Discretionary purchasing power available to an airport’s market area residents over any period of time is a good indication of consumer’s financial ability to travel (aka disposable personal income). Higher levels of personal disposable income increase the demand for air transportation

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120
Q

Geographical Attributes

A

Spatial distribution and proximity of population and centers of commerce within an airport market area may correlate to the type /level of transportation services demanded. Geography/local climate may also be important or either stimulating/limiting aviation demand. A region’s physical/climate qualities can serve as attractions that generate tourism. The relationship of the airport undergoing the master plan process to other airports and to the routes/airways in the regional/national systems, may have a strong bearing on the types/levels of aviation services that might be demanding at the master plan airport

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121
Q

Aviation related factors

A

A number of other factors might affect aviation demand at an airport. Fuel $ fluctuations, changes in items such as the regulatory environment, the levels and types of taxes/fees and currency restrictions, business activities, industry trends, mergers, consolidations and new marketing agreements, are all such factors. In addition, local attributes toward the environment impacts of aviation may affect demand and should be considered in forecasting or updating forecasts. Similarly, the granting of new routes for international air service can induce important changes in the volume of traffic at the specific airports receiving the international service

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122
Q

Other Factors

A

Local airport authorities or operators can take a number of actions that have the conscious or unintended effect of either stimulation or retarding growth in aviation demand. The types of ground access and support service provided, user charges, and plans for future development can each affect future growth of aviation demand. Economic fluctuations such as fuel price changes, currency/trade restrictions, political developments, international tension, changes in regulations, and environmental impacts should all be steps in the forecast process

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123
Q

The forecasting process includes:

A
  1. Identification of aviation activity measures
  2. Review of previous forecasts
  3. Collection of data
  4. Selection of appropriate forecast methods. The selection and application of appropriate methodologies and techniques requires professional judgement
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124
Q

Most common forecast techniques are

A
  1. Regression analysis
  2. Trend analysis and extrapolation
  3. Market share analysis
  4. Smoothing
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125
Q

Regression Analysis

A

A statistical analysis technique tying aviation demand to enplanements, population, and income levels

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126
Q

Trend analysis and extrapolation

A

A technique that uses the historical pattern of aviation activity to project future trends

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127
Q

Market share analysis

A

A technique that assumes a top down relationship among national, state and local forecasts, where local forecasts represent a market share or % of national forecasts

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128
Q

Smoothing

A

A statistical technique applied to historical data focused more on the recent trends and conditions at the airport

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129
Q

Facility requirements

A

Planners compare the current facilities and services available at the airport with the forecasted demand for facilities and services, and then determine what additional facilities and services (Such as SRE) will be needed

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130
Q

Specific facility requirements address:

A
  1. Airfield and airspace
  2. Commercial service terminal
  3. GA requirements
  4. Air cargo requirements
  5. support facilities
  6. Ground access, circulation and parking
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131
Q

Airfield and airspace

A
  1. Airfield capacity analysis (annual service volume)
  2. RWY requirements (design standard as related to the airport reference code; orientation; length; width and pavement design strength)
  3. TWY requirements ( design standard as related to ARC)
  4. Navaids
  5. Airspace requirements (terminal instrument approaches)
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132
Q

Commercial service terminal

A
  1. Gates and apron frontage (aircraft parking positions by aircraft design group)
  2. Passenger terminal building (including FIS, ticket counters, baggage, security checkpoints, departure lounges, concessions)
  3. Curb front (intermodal connections)
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133
Q

GA requirements

A
  1. Hangars (conventional, T, etc)
  2. Transient aircraft parking
  3. Terminal facilities
    -May include FBO, admin offices, conference and
    training rooms, rental car counters, pilot lounges, and
    flight planning)
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134
Q

Air cargo requirements

A
  1. Type of cargo companies (integrated carriers, freight forwarders, belly freight, all cargo or combo carriers)
  2. Aircraft parking with respect to space and tonnage (pavement strength) requirements
  3. Security needs
  4. Access
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135
Q

Support facilities

A
  1. ARFF (based on changes to the airport’s part 139 index)
  2. Airport maintenance (Snow removal)
  3. Fuel storage (For commercial/GA operations as well as ground vehicle operations)
  4. Aircraft maintenance
  5. De-icing facilities and associated de-icing run-off facilities
  6. Special areas (Snow storage, storm water retention, and environmentally sensitive areas)
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136
Q

Ground access, circulation , and parking

A
  1. Regional transportation network (Coordination with local planners)
  2. On airport circulation roadways (passengers, employees, delivery)
  3. Roadway facilities (Taxi, limo, courtesy, rental cars, charter vans/busses, public parking, employee parking)
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137
Q

Planners should, at the very least, look to the following elements:

A
  1. Capacity short falls
  2. New TSA security requirements
  3. FAA design standards and updated standards
  4. Airport executives strategic visions for the airport
  5. Outdated existing facilities

Others:

  • Implementation of Nextgen
  • Increase use of GPS
  • VLJs and super heavy large commercial aircraft
  • Expanded use of airline kiosks
  • New security procedures
  • New regulatory changes
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138
Q

Design hour demand

A

Evaluation of peak hour demand is often based on the peak hour of the average day of the peak month. Provides sufficient facility capacity for most days of the year, yet recognizes there will be some days with congestion, queues and delays

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139
Q

ALP

A

Part of the Master Plan update as the graphical presentations of the ALP plan set are updated to reflect the projects depicted in the master plan update only

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140
Q

Facilities implementation plan

A

Explains how to implement the findings and recommendations of the planning effort. May be fused with the financial feasibility analysis. Suggests projects to include in the future CIP. CIP is not to be confused with the FAA’s ACIP, which is the federal government’s national listing of projects eligible for AIP funding

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141
Q

FAA rule regarding facilities implementation plan

A

Regardless of terms used, the FIP must address all of the airport’s planned capital projects (Even if not associated with master plan) to ensure that adequate, fiscal, staff, scheduling and other resources are available. In addition, all documentation should be prepared so that it’ll be clearly understood by all parties. Must balance funding constraints, project limits, environmental processing requirements, agency and tenant approvals and coordination processes, business issues, such as leases and property acquisition, and sponsor references. Must also be coordinated with the MP ALP and the airport’s financial plan

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142
Q

The FIP should provide information regarding key activities, such as:

A
  1. Sponsor specific project approval activities (those requiring board, council or other administrative body approval and budgeting approval)
  2. Airlines and other tenant approvals including lease modifications
  3. Project funding activities (FAA grants, PFC, long term debt financing)
  4. Environmental processing activities
  5. Land acquisition activities
  6. Sponsor specified project implementation associated with design/build
  7. Agency coordination activity including coordination with the FAA, TSA, DHS, DID others
  8. Public coordination activities
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143
Q

Financial feasibility analysis

A

Ability to fund projects should be a major consideration in preparing the CIP and should be concurrent with the development of the FIP and CIP. (AIP, state, 3rd party, PFC, CFC, bonds). Includes the preparation of a CIP funding plan, a review of the airport’s financial structure with recognition of certain constraints such as bond, airline-use agreements, and leases, and an analysis of historical cash flow

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144
Q

Design aircraft

A
  • Composite aircraft representing a collection of aircraft classified by 3 parameters:
    1. Aircraft approach category (AAC)
    2. Airplane design group (ADG)
    3. TWY design group (TDG)
  • The selected AAC, ADG and approach visibility minimums are combined to form the RWY design code (RDC) of a particular RWY. RWY design also incorporates protected areas around the RWY including OFZs and RSAs
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145
Q

TWY design Group

A

Undercarriage dimensions of the aircraft, width, and fillet standards, and in some cases, RWY to TWY and TWY/taxilane separation requirements. As aircraft negotiate turn on TWYs designed for cockpit over CL taxiing, the main gear requires additional pavement in the form of fillets, to maintain the TWY edge safety margin (TESM). Overall main gear width (MGW) and cockit to main gear distance (CMG)

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146
Q

Aprons

A

Should accommodate the loading and unloading of passengers, cargo and baggage and other activities such as fueling, maintenance and ground vehicle circulation needs. Also, take into consideration the prevention of RWY incursions (aprons that allow direct access to a RWY) and take into account the effects of jetblast and allowing sufficient area for safe maneuvering

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147
Q

Landside

A

Initial arrival or terminus of the passenger air travel and interaction with the airport. Landside includes parking lots and garages, ground transportation circulation roads and intermodal connections, such as subways, light rail or roadways

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148
Q

Terminal

A

Transition point where passengers move between landside and airside. Includes passenger check in, security screening, passenger aircraft boarding/deplaning, baggage claim, concessions, non-public areas such as airline and airport admin areas, vendor and maintenance storage

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149
Q

Airside

A

Where aircraft take off, land, taxi, park, receive services and essentially conduct flight related operations. Generally, airside is considered to be within the boundaries of the airport perimeter fence. Most heavily regulated part of the airport

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150
Q

Factors for RWY design

A
  • Location of the terminal building
  • Surrounding geography and obstructions
  • Desires of airport sponsors and FAA
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151
Q

Information that provides length/width for RWY/TWY and associated protected areas

A
  • Approach speed
  • Wingspan
  • Tail height
  • Category of instrument landing that RWY is certificated for
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152
Q

Movement area

A

RWY/TWY and other areas of the airport that are used for taxi, take off, and landing

Only areas identified in ACM as movement areas for air carriers are subject to regulations

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153
Q

Non-Movement area

A
  • Loading ramps
  • Aircraft parking aprons
  • Unpaved areas
  • Other areas not structurally capable for air carriers
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154
Q

RWY design

A

Select RWY design code (RDC) for desired/planned level of service for each RWY and then apply the airport design criteria associated with the RDC. The RDC takes into account the approach category (speed) and airplane design group (Wingspan or tail height), and whether the RWY has an instrument approach

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155
Q

Types of RWY classifications

A
  1. Type of pavement (Asphalt or concrete)
  2. Intended usage (Utility, transport, heliport)
  3. Type of aircraft approach (visual, non-precision, precision)
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156
Q

Substantial Use

A

(Used to determine airport dimensional standards)

Means either 500 or more annual itinerant operations or other largest scheduled commercial service aircraft

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157
Q

Design aircraft approach speeds

A

Translates into time/distance factors that identify criteria for runway length, visual requirements, and approach aids. The aircraft’s wingspan is indicative of an aircraft’s weight bearing capacity and physical size. These factors dictate requirements for pavement strength and separation standards for wingtip and other obstruction clearances

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158
Q

The FAA requirements for federal funded projects must take into account 6 factors:

A
  1. Safe operations
  2. Increasing capacity and efficiency
  3. Reducing delays
  4. Economic viability
  5. Noise reduction
  6. Environment protection
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159
Q

The design aircraft:

A

(Critical aircraft) may be a single aircraft type, or a composite of several different aircraft composed of the most demanding characteristics of each. The design aircraft is a combination of the aircraft approach catergory (AAC), aircraft design group (ADG) and the taxiway design group (TDG). At an airport with mulitple RWYs, a design aircraft is selected for each RWY. Together, these factors will specify dimensional/strength criteria to which the airport facilities must be built

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160
Q

Airport Reference Code

A

Designation that signifies the airport’s highest RDC minus the visibility component of the RDC. The ARC is used for planning and design purposes only any doesn’t limit the aircraft that are able to operate safely on the airport

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161
Q

Design considerations for RWYs

A

-ARC
-Meteorological Conditions
-RWY alignment attempt to achieve a direction in
which the critical aircraft can use the RWY within max.
crosswind component at least 95% of the year. If 95%
isn’t possible, crosswind RWY is recommended
-Surrounding environment
-Topography
-Volume of air traffic expected

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162
Q

RWY layouts affected by:

A

Availability of airspace. Existing/planned instrument approach procedures, missed approach, DP’s, control zones, special use airspace, restricted airspace, traffic patterns.

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163
Q

4 basic RWY configurations

A
  1. Single
  2. Open-V
  3. Parallel
  4. Intersecting
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164
Q

4 types of parallels:

A

Distinguished by their proximity to each other:

  1. Close: <2,500 ft between RWYs
  2. Intermediate: 2,500-4,300 ft between RWYs
  3. Far Parallel: 4,300 ft or greater
  4. Dual lane: 4,300 or more apart between each pair
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165
Q

Single Runway

A

During VFR, this 1 RWY should accommodate up to 99 light aircraft operations per hour. While under IFR, it can accommodate between 42-53 operations per hours, depending on the mix of traffic and navaids

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166
Q

Open-V RWY

A
  • 2 RWYs that diverge at an angle, but don’t intersect
  • Allows for both RWYs to be used at the same time (When there’s no wind) and significantly increase # of operations per hour
  • Operations can be reduced by 50% if take offs and landings are made towards each other
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167
Q

RWY Threshold

A

Beginning portion that’s available for landing and take off. A displaced threshold may be required when:

  1. an object obstructs the airspace needed for landing aircraft
  2. Environmental considerations such as noise abatement
  3. If necessary, to provide standard RSA dimensions or RWY OFZ lengths
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168
Q

Displaced Threshold

A

Located some distance down the RWY. Portion leading up to the displaced threshold may still be used for aircraft take offs and roll outs when landing the opposite direction

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169
Q

When a penetration to an approach surface exists:

A

The airport must:

  1. Remove or lower the object to acceptable threshold siting requirements
  2. Displace the threshold, thereby shortening the landing distance
  3. Ask the FAA to raise the visibility minimums on the RWY approach
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170
Q

RSA

A

A defined area comprising of either a runway or a taxiway and the surrounding surfaces, areas that are prepared for, or are suitable for, reducing the risk of damage to aircraft in the event of an under/over shoot or excursion from the RWY or the unintentional departure from a TWY. Must be maintained so that its clear of debris, drained and graded as it must be able to support aircraft, SRE, ARFF under normal conditions

Includes: structural pavement, shoulders, blast pad, stopways

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171
Q

RSA dimensions

A

Width 120-500 ft depending on aircraft design group and the approach to the runway

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172
Q

TSA dimensions

A

49-262 ft

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173
Q

Inspections of SAs

A
  • Rutting
  • Rough, uneven terrain
  • Mounds of dirt
  • Debris
  • Obstructions not mounted on frangible couplings
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174
Q

EMAS

A
  • Designed to not deform under regular vehicle use
  • Composed of blocks of lightweight, crushable, cellular cement (Produced by EMASMax)
  • Foamed silica bed made from recycled glass and contains a high strength plastic mesh anchored to the pavement at the end of the RWY (Runway Safe EMAS)
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175
Q

RPZ

A

Trapezoid on RWY ends, designed to enhance the protection of people and property. It lies under the innermost portion of the RWYs approach surface and is required to be under the control of the airport. Begins 200 ft from the end of the RWY area that’s usable for take off or landing. Overall size varies with the design aircraft and approach visibility minimums. Smallest width of the trapezoid is the same as that of the primary surface area

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176
Q

Land uses allowed/not allowed in RPZ

A

Allowed:

  • Golf courses
  • Agriculture operations

Not Allowed:

  • Churches
  • Schools
  • Hospitals
  • Shopping centers
  • Fueling facilities
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177
Q

OFA

A

Ground area based on RWY, TWY or taxilane centerline that enhances safety. Must be free of objects, except those which are needed for air navigation or aircraft ground man., width of RWY OFA 250-800 ft length 240-1000 ft past end of the RWY or stopway depending on ARC

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178
Q

OFZ

A

Airspace above RWY elevation at any point, but below the 150ft floor of the horizontal surface. Extending 200ft beyond each RWY, its width varies from 120-400ft departure on visual requirements and aircraft size. Kept clear of all objects except for visual aids mounted on frangible couplings. For RWY having an approach lighting system or visual minimums less than 3/4 SM, an inner approach OFZ and inner transitional OFZ exists for each

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179
Q

Building restriction line

A

Shown on the ALP and identifies suitable building area locations on airports. The assumed building height is usually 35ft.

When proposing a building, the actual height should be considered

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180
Q

Declared Distances

A

Distance available for a turbine aircraft’s take off run (On paved areas), take off distance (Available un-obstructed airspace), accelerate-stop distance (distance aircraft has to stop in case of an aborted take off, and landing distance)

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181
Q

Types of declared distances

A
  • Take off run available (TORA)
  • Take off distance available (TODA)
  • Accelerate-Stop distance available (ASDA)
  • Landing distance available (LDA)
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182
Q

RWY visibility zones

A

An area formed by imaginary lines connecting the visibility points of 2 different RWYs (i.e. blind spots). The visibility points for each RWY are calculated to allow adequate time for one aircraft to see and avoid an aircraft using the other RWY

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183
Q

Airport Elevation

A

Highest point on an airport’s usable RWY and it expressed in ft MSL

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184
Q

AP Reference Point

A

Latitude/Longitude of the geometric center of the airport’s RWY

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185
Q

Maximum take off weight

A

Differ based on designation. A large aircraft is certificated for maximum take off weights of more than 12,500 lbs or less. This differs from wake turbulence separation and class certifications for part 139

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186
Q

Stopway

A

Area beyond the departure end of the runway used to support and minimize damage to an aircraft in the event of an overrun.

Rectangular in shape

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187
Q

Clearway

A

Rectangular area off the departure end of the RWY that’s suitable for use in calculating aircraft take off performance. Factored into how much take off distance is available (TODA)

Recognizes that an aircraft’s initial climb after rotation may require an OFA beyond the RWY departure end

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188
Q

Taxilane

A

Portion of a ramp used for access between TWYs and aircraft parking positions. Aren’t typically part of the movement area

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189
Q

Design principles associated with TWY systems are to do the following:

A
  1. Avoid wide expanses of pavement
  2. Provide a bypass capability or multiple accesses to the RWY
  3. Minimize RWY crossings and provisions of ample turning
  4. Provide visibility of taxiing aircraft
  5. Prevent ingress and egress bottlenecks
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190
Q

High Speed taxi turn off

A
  • Increases RWY efficiency
  • Acute angle off RWY
  • Not to be used as RWY entrances or crossing points
  • Considerations: types of aircraft, frequency of use and effect of weather conditions
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191
Q

Avoidance of dual use pavement

A
  • RWYs used as TWYs
  • Indirect access in which there’s a TWY that leads straight to the RWY from a ramp without a turn
  • Straight line TWY from ramp to RWY can increase RWY incursions by both pilots and vehicle operators
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192
Q

3 types of aprons

A
  • Terminal (passengers, cargo)
  • Remote
  • Hangar
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193
Q

Passenger Terminal Ramps

A

Where passengers board and deplane. Design must typically accommodate multiple activities

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194
Q

Remote Aprons

A

Located in an area where aircraft can be secured and stored for long periods of time. They are typically located remotely from either term or hangar aprons and often accommodate RONs or corporate traffic or provide tie down areas for smaller aircraft

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195
Q

Hangar Apron

A

Surface in front of an aircraft hangar that accommodates aircraft movement, into and out of the hangar

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196
Q

Critical characteristics of apron design

A
  • Capacity
  • Layout
  • Efficiency
  • Flexibility
  • Safety
  • Hangar locations
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197
Q

4 Primary considerations for an efficient apron design

A
  1. movement and physical characteristics of aircraft to be served
  2. Maneuvering/staging and location of GSE and underground facilities
  3. The dimensional relationships of parked aircraft to the terminal building
  4. Safety,security, and operation practices related to apron control

to readily accommodate aircraft mix

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198
Q

Gate occupancy time

A

Amount of time an aircraft occupies the gate. Larger aircraft normally have longer occupancy times due to more extensive aircraft servicing, pre flight planning and refueling

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199
Q

Stand guidance systems

A

Visual aids located on the size of a term building, so as to be viewed from the pilots perspective as they approach the aircraft parking location. The visual indicators tell the pilot whether they’re on the centerline of the parking position and when to stop

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200
Q

FAA’s definition of an airport

A
  • Heliports
  • Vertiports
  • Glider ports
  • Seaplane bases
  • Ultralight flight parks
  • Manned balloon launching facilities
  • (Possibly) drone ports
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201
Q

Heliports

A
  • Exempt from part 139. Commercial helicopter operations not allowed at GA airports
  • Easier to place
  • 4 types:
    1. GA
    2. Transport
    3. Hospital
    4. Helipads on airports
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202
Q

Transport heliport

A

Accommodate air carrier operations providing scheduled service or unscheduled service with large helicopters

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203
Q

Hospital Heliport

A

Limited to serving helicopters engaged in air ambulance or other hospital related functions

A designated helicopter landing area located at a hospital or medical facility is a heliport and not a medical emergency site

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204
Q

Design helicopter

A

Reflects max weight, max contact load/minimum contact area, overall length, rotor diameter and other factors o the helicopter expected to operate out of the heliport

2 hazards: turbulence and electromagnetic effects

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205
Q

Touchdown and lift off area (TLOF)

A

A load bearing, typically paved, centered in the final approach and take off area (FATO) on which a helicopter takes off and lands

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206
Q

Final approach and take off area (FATO)

A

Defined area over which the final phase of the approach to a hover or a landing is completed and from which a take off is initiated. There are safety areas located around FATO and include imaginary surfaces, protection zones begin at FATO perimeter and extend out 400ft

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207
Q

GA heliport

A
  • Accommodates helicopters used by individuals, corporations, and helicopter air taxi services
  • Airport support have at least 2 approach/departure paths meeting the criteria for commercial transport helicopters, which, among other requirements, must be aligned with the predominant wind. Curved VFR approach/departure paths may also be allowed to avoid objects or noise sensitive areas
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208
Q

Seaplane Base

A

An area of water that is used, or is intended to be used, for the landing and take off of aircraft, together with associated buildings and facilities on shore

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209
Q

2 main types of seaplanes

A
  • Flying boats (Often called hull seaplanes)
  • Float planes

Have no brakes and are constantly floating freely in the water. Requires additional turning and maneuvering room and more subject to weather vaning

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210
Q

Floatplanes

A

Are typically conventional land airplanes that have been fitted with separate floats in place of their wheels. Fuselage is supported well above the water’s service

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211
Q

Flying Boat

A

The bottom of a flying boat’s fuselage is its main landing gear. Usually supplemented with smaller floats near the wingtips, called wing or tip floats

Sub-category is: amphibians, flying boats and floatplanes. Equipped with retractable wheels for landing on dry land

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212
Q

Sea Lane

A
  • A defined path, which is prescribed for the landing and take off run of aircraft
  • Lakes, rivers, and harbors offer natural aircraft landing/take off areas where the waves are more conductive to aircraft operations
  • Landing/take off areas are best located where the water current flow is < 3.5 mph and wave heights aren’t classified as swells
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213
Q

Droneport/UAV port

A

FAA has yet to introduce design standards

-Based on design UAV?

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214
Q

Tasks for airport development

A
  1. Determining
  2. Advertising
  3. Issuing RFPs
  4. Selection processes
  5. Determining contract requirements
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215
Q

Phases of construction projects

A
  1. Pre-design
  2. Design
  3. Pre-construction
  4. Construction
  5. Inspection
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216
Q

Pre-design conference

A
  • Conducted by airport sponsor or authorized agent
  • Used to discuss critical design parameters, airport safety during construction, phasing of construction operations and environmental considerations. Possible conflicts between construction activities and the operation of the airport should be resolved at this meeting
  • Airport tenants should be at this meeting
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217
Q

Pre-bid conference

A

Airport sponsor and engineer will explain contract requirements for construction methods/procedures, CSPP, and the procurement process including DBE, bonding, subcontracting and labor. The notice to bidders for the prebid conference should be made in accordance with local procurement requirements

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218
Q

Pre-Construction Conference

A

Conducted by airport sponsor or authorized agent, to thoroughly discuss ciritical project issues such as contract requirements, operational safety, construction phasing and sequencing, airport security, QC, quality acceptance testing, labor requirements, EEO obligations, DBE requirements, and other matters. Must address unique/complex issues specific to project. Should be attended by all parties affected by the construction in order to gain better understanding of any potential problems and identify solutions

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219
Q

Change Order

A

A written order (including email) by the airport sponsor that is within the right of the sponsor to make a change to the design, drawings, or specifications within the general scope of the contract. Wage rates remain unchanged for the handling of a change order. However, any change that exceeds an increase/decrease 25% of estimated cost of the contract is a major item, as defined in the contract specifications, and must be accommodated by a supplemental agreement

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220
Q

Supplemental Agreement

A

Covers work within the general scope of the existing contract or is work that exceeds 25% cost of contrast. Is a separate contract and requires execution by both parties with the same formality as any other contract. A new wage rate decision may be required for each supplemental agreement, unless it involves work under a project for which a wage determination decision was issued and such a decision has not expired at the time of award of the agreement

FAA doesn’t normally sign off on but asks for a list of change orders

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221
Q

To eliminate potential hazards during construction, the airport must have:

A

CSPP.

Airport operator has overall responsibility to plan, schedule, and coordinate construction activities

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222
Q

Step included to ensure safety of construction project

A
  1. Develop or approve a safety plan
  2. Require contractors to submit plans showing how they intend to comply with the safety requirement
  3. Meetings with all entities involved, including AOS, mx that may be overseeing the actual safety procedures, contractors and tenants if applicable
  4. Ensuring accurate contact information for all entities; particularly after hours numbers
  5. Weekly (Daily if necessary) to coordinate construction activities
  6. Notify users (ARFF) of construction that may affect routes, NOTAMs as applicable
  7. Ensuring construction personnel know of any changes in procedures such as flight or ground vehicle operations, weather, lower visibility, that may affect work
  8. Ensuring everyone trained in CSPP, ground vehicle operations, ATC talk
  9. Conducting frequent inspections to ensure contract or compliance with established rules/regulations and CSPP
223
Q

Contractors/tenants performing construction also have responsibilities, such as:

A

-Including plans for safety compliance, providing a safety officer, POC, and restricting the movement of construction vehicles through flagging, barricades, temporary fencing and escorts

Safety plan should focus on procedures for protecting RWY and TWY SA including OFA, OFZ, and threshold siting criteria. Extends to navaids and emergency notification procedures

224
Q

AC 150/5370-10

“Standards for specifying construction at airports paragraphs:

A

General safety provisions

40-05: Mx of traffic
70-08: Barricades, warning signs, and hazard markings
80-04: Limitation of operations

225
Q

A vehicle plan should:

A
  • Marking construction vehicles
  • Ensure vehicle operator training
  • Escort requirements
  • Marking and procedures for acccess routes and haul roads
  • Radio communications
  • Procedures to address violations of CSPP including traffic infractions
226
Q

Excavations must:

A
  • Be prominently marked and lighted (If needed)
  • Open trenches/excavation not permitted within 200ft of RSA or RWY CL (unless appropriately covered displaced threshold and hazards, including closed portions of a TWY/RWY, must be appropriately marked/ighted/NOTAMs), construction material stockpiles monitored so they don’t encroach within OFA/OFZ
227
Q

After construction:

A
  • ALP must be updated as its a requiremnt for issuance of grants for future airport development and all certificated airports must have an up to date signing plan approved by the FAA.
  • The final “as constructed” (aka as built) plans depict the final construction. 1 copy of the as constructed plans must be submitted to the FAA at project close out.
  • The FAA data record (5010) should also be updated after completed project
228
Q

FAA form 7460-2

“Notice of Actual construction or alterations”

A
  • Required to be filed when construction is completed
  • 7480-1 filed whenever an airport is to be constructed, activated or de-activated

Order 6030.1 provides guidance on eligible costs and design considerations for navaids

229
Q

FAA Part 77

A
  • Safe, efficient use and preservation of navigable airspace

- Detailed regulations relating to managing objects that may interfere with aircraft flying in the airport area

230
Q

In general, FAR part 77 includes:

A
  1. Established standards for determining obstructions in navigable airspace
  2. Sets for the requirements for notice to the administration of certain proposed construction or alteration
  3. Provides for aeronautical studies of obstructions to air navigation to determine their effect on the safe and efficient use of airspace
  4. Provides for public hearings on hazardous effects of proposed construction or alteration on air navigation
  5. Provides for estimated antenna farm areas
231
Q

Determining criteria for building in protected airspace are found in the regulations and cover:

A
  • Identify height notification requirements with reduced maximum allowable object heights closer to the airport
  • Federal grant assurances require airport sponsors to take necessary action to protect the terminal airspace from the hazards to safe flight
232
Q

Object

A

defined under regulations as any natural growth, terrain, permanent or temporary construction or alteration (Including equipment or materials used), and apparatus of a permanent/temporary character. Includes trees, construction cranes, well drilling equipment, stockpiled material or earth, buildings and parked vehicles

233
Q

When the FAA develops an approach for a particular runway at an airport, it builds in safety margins to allow for:

A
  • Pilot deviations
  • Instrument errors
  • Terrain/obstacle conditions

ex) if terrain prevents an approach from meeting criteria, then a displaced threshold is established to maintain standard. If the displaced threshold results in too short d a runway for the intended aircraft operation, then the normal decision height of 200ft for a cat1 ILS can be raised to a height that will allow the aircraft to use the full runway while also maintaining obstruction clearance

234
Q

Primary surfaces identified in part 77 are:

A
  • Primary
  • Transitional
  • Approach
  • Horizontal
  • Conical
235
Q

Primary

A

Centered on the RWY centerline and extends 200ft past the runway end. Its width varies from 250ft to 1000ft, depending on the approach leading to the runway

236
Q

Transitional Surface

A

Extend out/upward at right angles to the RWY CL and they RWY CL extended at a slope of 7:1 from the sides of the primary surface and from the sides of the approach surfaces. Are for those portions of the precision approach surface which project through and beyond the limits of the conical surface, extend a distance of 5000ft measured horizontally from the edge of the approach surface and at right angles to the RWY CL

237
Q

Approach Surface

A

Starts 200ft from the RWY end and extends outward from the primary surface for a distance of up to 50,000ft in the case of precision RWY (lesser distances for non-precision and visual approach RWY). The approach slope can vary 20:1 for a visual RWY; 40:1 for a non-precision RWY; or 50:1 for precision instrument RWY

238
Q

International Passengers

A

Additional space requirements are needed for the processing of federal inspection services such as customs and immigration

239
Q

Horizontal Surface

A

Is a level plane 150ft above the RWY elevation. Its surface area is determined by connecting tangents or radii extended from the ends of all the RWYs. The length of the radii is dependent upon the approach category (Approach speed) for the RWY. It’s intended to accommodate for the safe operation and maneuvering of aircraft that are performing circle to land or misses approaches. Extends outward for a distance of 5000ft for a visual approach runway and 10,000ft for an instrument approach RWY

240
Q

Conical surface

A

Starts at the perimeter of the horizontal surface and continues upward at a slope of 20:1 for a horizontal distance of 4,000ft

241
Q

Any person/organization intending to sponsor any of the following construction/alteration must notify the FAA:

A
  1. Any construction/alteration exceeding 200ft AGL
  2. Any construction/alteration:
    a) within 20,000ft of a public use or military airport
    that exceeds 100:1 surface from any point on the
    RWY of each airport with at least 1 RWY >3,200
    b) Within 10,000ft of public use or military airport that
    exceeds 50:1 surface from any point on the RWY of
    each airport with its longest RWY no more than
    3,200 ft
    C) Within 5,000ft of a public use heliport that exceeds
    25:1 surface
  3. Any highway, RR, or other traverse way that has a height that would exceed above
  4. When requested by the FAA
  5. Located on public use airport/heliport regardless of height or location
242
Q

Part 77 Study

A

Conducted by the FAA by analyzing the effect of construction would have on the access to an airport and the safe operation of aircraft. As a result of the study, the FAA may resist, oppose, or recommend against the presence of objects or activities that would conflict with an airport design planning standard or planning recommendation.

Requires notification whether modification is temporary or permanent

243
Q

Part 77 determination

A

A conclusion based on a study of a structures projected impact on the safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace. Regulations don’t provide the FAA with the authority to prevent construction/alteration to a structure. For this reason, the FAA insists upon land use planning in and around airports to promote compatible uses and also to protect the FAA’s investment in the airports and airways

244
Q

Examples of permanent/temporary modifications

A

Permanent:

  • buildings
  • roadways
  • AWOS/ASOS
  • Elevated signage

Temporary:

  • Drilling rigs
  • Stockpiles
  • Cranes
  • Temporary lights
245
Q

Operational changes to airport regarding Part 77:

A
  • Displacing a threshold
  • Raising approach minimums
  • Raising visibility minimums
  • Raising aircraft minimums descent altitude in the area
246
Q

Options from FAA in mitigating any object that penetrate’s a RWY’s threshold siting requirements or approach slops surface:

A
  1. relocating a threshold
  2. Asking the airport operator to remove the object if possible
  3. Raising the approach minimums or visual requirements
  4. Raising aircraft minimum descent altitude in the area
247
Q

Terminal made up of 3 interfaces

A
  • Access
  • Passenger processing
  • Flight
248
Q

Access interface

A

Landside operations, intermodal transportation, parking, loading/unloading

Includes curb frontage for the loading/unloading of passengers, parking facilities, public transit, taxi/limo services, pedestrian walkways for crossing roads (Tunnels, bridges, automated people movers), service roads, fire lanes

249
Q

Passenger processing interface

A

Includes airline ticket counters, bag claim areas, FIDS, concessions, public lobbies and food prep areas. Also includes space for the interlining of baggage, baggage sorting areas (typically behind ticket counter or under the terminal), airport administration offices (Access control/badging, HR, admin), maintenance areas. Security screening

250
Q

Flight interface

A

Concourses and connections to other concourses to accommodate transferring passengers, deep lounge areas where passengers wait to board their flights, jetbridges or air stairs, airline operational and administration spaces, vendor storage

251
Q

Factors involved in terminal design

A

Must be able to accommodate passenger demands, landside access requirements, and be compatible with airside operations. Terminal design should take into consideration the vision of the airport growth and future demand. Should be operationally practical, striving to achieve a smooth flow among landside, terminal and airside facilities during peak hour demand

252
Q

Basic considerations for terminal location

A
  1. RWY configuration
  2. Access to transportation network
  3. Expansion potential
  4. FAA geometric design standards
  5. Existing and planned facilities
  6. Terrain
  7. Environmental impacts
253
Q

Airport operating efficiencies

A

Construction of HVAC, lighting, cleaning, and maintenance of terminal areas, utility services within the terminal, security and other needed services. Need a terminal that provides an aesthetic atmosphere that conveys community pride, value and comfort. Good signage, artwork, and local cultural considerations play important roles

Depends on adequate capital and availability of operating funds

254
Q

Planning/design of terminal areas

A

Involves participation of airport/airline mgmt, concessionaires, regulatory agencies, financial, mx, and operations consultants and the community. Planning/design includes the compilation of surveys, questionnaires, and forecasts, determination of design day and peak hour activity data, establishment of passengers, aircraft, and vehicular traffic relationships, an understanding of site topography, the inventory and evaluation of existing facilities, analyses of space requirements for alternative layout, estimation of costs, and development of financial plans

255
Q

Airport terminal facilities are planned on the basis of activity forecasts. Useful sources of information are:

A
  1. Current airport master plan
  2. FAA published terminal area forecast
  3. Forecasts developed by airlines for America (A4A)
  4. Forecasts developed by the individual airlines serving the airport

For air carrier airports, annual passenger volume and peak hourly demand are 2 key factors in airport terminal design

256
Q

Peak hour demand

A

Based on elapsed hour, which may not correspond with a clock hour, which may occur at different times for the enplaning, deplaning, and total (enplanements/deplanements) activity

257
Q

Tenant operational characteristics include a # of considerations depending on the type and size of the airport. Common considerations are:

A
  1. Type of aircraft using the airport on a regular basis
  2. Aircraft circulation needs in and around the terminal
  3. Aircraft parking or gate access requirements
  4. FAA design standards for safety, obstacle and visibility clearances
  5. navaids and ATCT requirements
  6. Air cargo access, handling and use
  7. Aircraft hydrant or other refueling requirements
  8. electric, GPU, HVAC
  9. Protection from jet and prop blast
  10. Rental car storage maintenance and servicing
  11. Delivery vehicles and terminal service requirements
  12. Employee an administration parking
  13. Emergency ARFF access
  14. GA/helo access
258
Q

4 types of audiences to consider in terminal design

A
  1. Passengers
  2. Airlines
  3. Airport operations
  4. The community
259
Q

Passengers

A

Desire convenient access, personal confronts such as a variety of concessions and comfortable lounges, minimum walking distances, and entertainment or business support options (wifi, charging stations), and children’s play areas. Desire minimum landside congestion, sufficient close in parking (and extended park options, access to rental cars and effective orientation graphics and signs). Also desire to have their trip complete without delay at reasonable cost and maximum convenience

260
Q

Airlines

A

Desire that the airport accommodates the existing and future airline fleets, efficient means of passenger and baggage flow, and provision of efficient and effective security. Airlines are also connected with on time performance, efficient allocation of personnel, airport operating costs, and profitability

261
Q

Airport Operators

A

Are focused on maintenance issues, HVAC $, and providing facilities that generate revenues from concessionaires and other sources. They also want tp provide a modern facility that is economically efficient and in harmony with the expectations of the community

262
Q

Community

A

Desires that the airport provide a positive image of the community, harmony with the architectural elements of the total terminal complex and coordination with the intermodal transportation systems

263
Q

Major passenger group:

Business Travelers

A

Tend to place demands for and require terminal services that are different from the leisure traveler. The need for business centers, close in rental car access, short distances to the aircraft boarding area, and airline travel clubs.

Restaurants and retail

264
Q

Major passenger group:

Leisure travelers

A

Curbside check in, remote (less expensive) parking and seating areas. Restaurants and retail

265
Q

Airports must also accommodate non-passengers as well:

A

Only have access to pre-screening areas, cell phone lots, restaurants, waiting areas, service areas

266
Q

Space planning includes:

A

Passengers and terminal operations, access interface including curbs, roadways, parking, passenger processing system, entryways, lobbies, airline check in and ticketing, security screening, baggage claim, transportation system, international facilities

267
Q

Factors that influence terminal space requirements

A

Passenger volume/type, vehicle volume and type of facility (Origin/destination, transfer, through), peak hour volume

268
Q

2 measures of passenger volume used:

A

Annual passenger volume
-Used to determine preliminary size of terminal

Hourly volume
-Terminal design

269
Q

Airports can be classified by dominant type of passenger traffic

A
  • Originating/Terminating (origin/destination)
  • Transfer
  • Through
270
Q

Origination/Destination airport

A

70-90% of passengers begin or end their travel at the airport. Usually involve a high percentage of local passenger and turnaround flights. The significant passenger flow between ground transportation and aircraft en/de-planing areas generates a high space requirement for ticket counters, curb length, parking spaces, and all elements throughout the passenger processing system. Passenger usually require maximum handling services for checking and claiming bags. Aircraft turnaround times at the gates are between 1-3 operations per hour per gate

271
Q

Transfer (connecting) airports

A

Have significant enplanements of passengers transferring/connecting to other flights. With more than 50% of enplaned passengers transferring to another flight are considered transfers, Airports where airlines conduct hub operations are frequently transfers, but some airports have characteristics of both origination/destination transfer. Aircraft ground handling times typically average 30-60 minutes depending on connecting patterns and airline operations policies, resulting in aircraft turnover rate of 1.3-1.5 aircraft per gate per hour. Compared with similar volume of enplanements, normally has less landside ground transportation (lower curbside required), less need for ticket counters and baggage claim. More concessions, bag transfer and public services

272
Q

Through Airport

A

Have a relatively high % of originating passengers combined with low % of originating flights. Large % of passengers remain on aircraft while at through airports, which means that demands for departure lounge space, curb front, ticketing, security, and baggage handling are less. These flights are justified by the airline since additional enplanement increases load factors or they may be EAS flights. Aircraft ground times tend to be short at though airports in order to minimize the delay in continuing to another destination. Experience lower levels of activity, parking, curb and gate hold times

273
Q

Aircraft Mix

A

Refers to the different sizes (400 seat, 100, 19, etc), types (turbojet, turboprop, RJ, 2 engine, 4 engine) and styles (high/mid/low wing, rear/front/over the wing door, wide/narrow body)

274
Q

Terminal space planning assumptions

A

The FAA states that a reasonable estimate is 0.08-0.12 sq. ft. per annual enplaned passengers or by applying a ratio of 150 sq. ft. per design hour passenger. FAA approximately that 55% of terminal space is rentable, 45% non-rentable (hallways, mx/elec rooms), of these, approximately 35-40% is for airlines, 15-25% for concessions and airport administration functions, 25% public space and 10-15% for utilities, maintenance, tunnels and stairways

275
Q

Curb lengths

A

Private autos= 25ft
Taxis= 20ft
Limos= 30ft
Public busses= 50ft

276
Q

Dwell Times

A

Passengers

  • Arrivals= 1-2 minutes
  • Departures= 2-4 minutes

Public transportation
-5-15 minutes

277
Q

Passenger processing system

A

Facilities necessary for handling passengers as they move through the terminal towards the flight interface, including ticketing, baggage check in and security screening. To decrease medical emergencies and liability to the airport, entryways/foyers are located along the curb-side and serve as a weather buffer for passengers entering/leaving the airport

278
Q

Departure Lounges

A

Serve as an assembly area for passengers waiting to board a flight ans as an exit for passengers deplaning. Most are designed for expectation that passengers will arrive in 15 minutes prior to departure

279
Q

Baggage Claim

A

Should be located near the terminal curb for passengers that are departing the airport. Bag claim lobbies should be able to accommodate waiting passengers with seats and also provide or the rapid claiming of baggage

280
Q

Centralized Terminal Layout

A

All activities in centralized location and designs were basic in layout with aircraft usually parked parallel to terminal building in order to decrease need for pushback

281
Q

Linear Terminal Concept

A

Expanding a simple terminal design outward

282
Q

Curvilinear Layout

A

Usually when space is limited and building is curved

283
Q

Unite Terminal concept

A

Multiple terminal buildings. Common at high capacity airports

284
Q

Combined-unit terminal building

A

When multiple airlines use a common building

285
Q

Multiple unit terminal

A

When separate buildings were constructed for each airlines, resulting in each building becoming its own unit-terminal

286
Q

Decentralized process

A

Passenger processing is either separated into multiple buildings, or certain processes, such as ticketing and screening, are done in another. Can also mean separating linear terminal buildings (i.e. unit terminal), connected by landside circulation roads, and in some cases, airside via airport automated people mover

287
Q

Hybrid terminal layout

A

Result from modifying an existing airport facility or building that no longer meets the needs of stakeholders. Usually result in designs combining features of centralized and decentralized facilities. May have passenger handling facilities, business commerce, baggage check in, and baggage claim at 2 or more locations because of land restrictions, cost considerations, or airline preference

288
Q

5 basic terminal design concepts

A
  1. Simple
  2. Pier finger
  3. Satelite
  4. Linear
  5. Transporter
289
Q

Each concept has unique elements

A
  1. Volumetric design
  2. Architectural treatment
  3. aircraft gate
  4. Location of sterile security corridors or areas
  5. Location of mechanical spaces
  6. Airside service road location and configuration
  7. Aircraft boarding through loading bridges
  8. Operations/Maintenance principles
  9. Requirements for expandability of the terminal
  10. Aesthetics
290
Q

Simple terminal design

A

Where passengers walk out onto the ramp to waiting aircraft. Most non-hub and small airports that have below 100,000 enplanements per year, use this gate interface. Close in parking along the length of the terminal allows for ample curb frontage for loading/unloading ground transportation. Short walking distances from car to gate is common. Works for non-hub and GA but as passengers demand increase, results in decrease of capacity and more delays

291
Q

Linear terminal design

A

Essentially simple terminals that have been lengthened to accommodate more aircraft. Can produce longer walking distances between connecting flights or between enplanement point and deplanement point. Aircraft positioning at linear varies from parallel at smaller or nose in using passenger boarding bridges. Interface depends on annual passenger enplanements, aircraft used, available financial resources and airline’s operating characteristics

292
Q

Pier-Finger Design

A

Can be constructed from the main terminal onto the ramp area if adequate space exists. Allows for continued centralized of passenger processes while retaining airline operating efficiencies. The piers allow aircraft to park along their length. The primary disadvantage is longer walking distances for passengers. Allows for more use of airside space to construct gates. May increase landside congestion

293
Q

Satelite terminal design

A

Has aircraft gates located at the ends of long concourses or connected by APMs rather than being spaced along the pier concourse. The concourse or connectors are above ground, at ground level or below ground. Follow decentralized concept and often use moving sidewalks, buses and other APM. Tends to be a compact, central terminal. Disadvantage: becomes difficult to expand without reducing ramp frontage or disrupting operations, if APM are out of service whole airport can shut down or reduce capacity

294
Q

Mobile lounge or transporter terminal

A

Has not won wide acceptance. Allows aircraft to be parked on a hardstand with mobile lounge (bus) used to shuttle passengers between the terminal and aircraft. Allowed for safer aircraft maneuvering as its removed from buildings and less congestion. Does tend to be labor intensive but eliminates the need for additional buildings and infrastructure. Also requires additional pre-boarding time

295
Q

5 essential customer touch points to positively influence the passenger experience:

A
  1. Physical
  2. Subliminal
  3. Human
  4. Procedural
  5. Communicate
296
Q

Common-use terminal equipment (CUTE)

A

Includes buildings, equipment, technology services and other infrastructure shared by more than 1 tenant, airlines, or other entity. Used as a strategy to reduce overhead through the sharing of resources and is a move away from exclusive-use model, which includes ticket counters, gates, ramp space, and baggage claim. Airlines paid for the space even when not used. May limit terminal space and prevent growth. Can consist of common terminal, passenger check in, bag systems, and gates allows for better utilization of space and increase capacity while decrease airline overhead. Passenger convenience such as kiosk/smartphone check in which means less work at the airport

297
Q

Advantages of CUTE

A

Common-use terminal equipment

  • More efficient use of space
  • Reduced expenses for airlines/airport
  • Increased passenger processing
298
Q

Disadvantages of CUTE

A

Common-use terminal equipment

  • Additional maintenance and mgmt of CUTE equipment
  • Loss of some control at ticket counters and loss of branding opportunities at gate areas
  • Digital signage and designated locations in the airport for air carriers can help restore some of the loss in branding
299
Q

Wayfinding

A

Includes airport access roads, parking areas, curbside and the entirety of the terminal experience. Effective wayfinding begins with the airport layout. Buildings that organize destination in logical and simple ways, and according to user expectations, require less signage. Should take into consideration passenger population, such as special needs, unfamiliar and delivery drivers. Must consider entire wayfinding chain

300
Q

ACRP report 52:

“Wayfinding and signage guidelines or airport terminals and landside,” effective signage should include:

A

Airport cooperative research program

Conspicuous: Colors/lights contrast with background
Concise: Signs should contain no more information than
what users need to know at that point
Comprehensible: Signs should be oriented to be read
from perspective of the viewer-inpout from a variety
of uses should be included in sign location, design
and phrasing
Legible: Text should be large enough that it can
comfortably read from the distance users are likely
to stand
Location: Signs should be located at the decision points
where users have an option of taking different paths

301
Q

Federal Inspection Service (FIS) facilities

A
  • Includes immigration, customs, agriculture and public health services
  • Passenger routing through FIS should be short and straight with as little vertical movements as possible. Strict segregation of deplaning passengers between aircraft and the exit from the FIS is required. No bypassing inspection areas and no passing items before screening. Multilingual signs are required to direct traffic
302
Q

Custom Acceleration Passenger Inspection Service (CAPIS)

A

Provides separate immigration and customs checkpoints. Tends to be highly time consuming for passengers and labor intensive to operate

303
Q

One Stop

A

Combines immigration and customs functions at a single station

304
Q

Red-Green

A

Uses a modified version of the standard European system allowing travelers who don’t have goods to declare to be separated from those who do, with only the latter passing through a secondary inspection station

305
Q

Pre-clearance operations

A

Customs and immigration process in conducted at the point of origin

306
Q

ARFF location

A

Should be optimally located to lower emergency response times. Efficient utilization of firefighting personnel, direct access to airfield/terminal, non-interference with ATC line of sight or with navigation equipment, maximum surveillance of AOA, compliance with building restriction lines, availability of utilities, personnel access

307
Q

Basic requirements for SRE buildings are:

A
  1. Provides a warm, sheltered environment for equipment repair and service
  2. Protect/shield equipment and stored materials from moisture, containment and composition changes
  3. Provide centralized facility for airport maintenance personnel and their service operations
308
Q

Considerations for SRE buildings:

A
  • Access to AOA is direct and convenient
  • Gain access without compromising security
  • Little to no RWY/TWY crossing
  • Avoid interference with ARFF, AOA, ATCT visibility, navaids
309
Q

ADA requires public/private entities provide public accommodations must:

A
  1. Ensure that new buildings/facilities are designed/constructed to be free of architectural and community barriers that restrict access or use by individuals with disabilities
  2. Ensure that existing buildings/facilities are altered to be readily accessible by individuals with disabilities to the maximum extent feasible
  3. Furnish auxiliary aids, services and/or telecomms devices to afford communication by the disabled
310
Q

ADA provides civil rights protections to individuals with disabilities regarding:

A
  • Employment
  • Public accommodations
  • State/local government services
  • Telecommunications
  • Race
  • Color
  • National origin
  • Sex
  • Religion
311
Q

ADA accessibility guidelines (ADAAG)

A

Issued by: Architectural and transportation barriers compliance board

Ensure that buildings, facilities, and vehicles covered by the law are accessible to individuals with disabilities in terms of architecture/design, transportation, and communication

312
Q

The “uniform federal accessibility standards” (14CFR Part 101, app. A) and the “ADA Accessibility guidelines for buildings and facilities” (28CFR Part 36 app A) provides:

A

Overall requirements needed for design and construction or alteration of buildings and facilities

313
Q

DOT has adopted ADAAG as accessibility standard which means:

A

For all transportation facilities or vehicles using federal funds. State/local government buildings, including airports, are required to comply with ADAAG and the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, which applies to new construction and alterations of existing airport buildings

314
Q

Definition of disability

A
  1. Physical/mental impairment that substantially limits 1 or more of the major life activities of an individual
  2. A record of such impairment
  3. Being regarded as having such impairment
315
Q

Under ADA, general requirements cover a # of public access elements such as:

A
  1. Parking, passenger loading zones, curb ramps
  2. Elevators, ramps, drinking fountains, phones
  3. Doors and gates, exterior accessible routes, rooms, spaces
  4. Toilets
  5. Signage
  6. Stairs
  7. ATMs
  8. Entrances/exits
316
Q

Airport Disability Program (ADCP)

A

Designed to ensure that airport operators meet their obligation with regard to regulatory ADA requirements, to ensure that travelers have access to services, activities and programs that are provided to all travelers at an airport, and to increase awareness of accessible air travel for people with disabilities. These services include the ability to check on the availability of nearby hotels that provide accommodations for individuals with disabilities, ADA compliant air transportation services with the airport (i.e. electric cart), inter-terminally (transit that connects concourses) and in external transportation such as parking, ground transportation

317
Q

ADA nondiscrimination requirements apply to:

A

Private/public employers with 15 or more employees, to include modifying work stations and equipment, unless undue hardship would result. Remedies for violations are the same as those prescribed under Title VII of Civil Rights Act of 1964

318
Q

Activities on airports that have an environmental impact

A
  • Storm water discharge
  • Weed and pest control
  • RWY/TWY de-icing
  • Aircraft de-icing
  • ARFF
  • Above/below ground fuel storage
  • Electrical
  • Paint and asbestos
  • Maintenance
  • Hazmat
319
Q

National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA)

A

Legislated to raise awareness in many industries, including airports, to fully consider environmental impacts before capital improvement projects are funded. Its also required both coordination with federal agencies before the issuance of any permits and public involvement in the planning and environmental review process. Airports considering a proposed federally funded project must be aware of what environmental documentation and actions are required to satisfy the requirements of NEPA

320
Q

Environmental review process

A

Includes all efforts to comply with NEPA another federal environmental laws, regulations, executive orders, and DOT orders that may apply. As the lead federal agency for airport projects, the FAA complies with NEPA for all federal actions

321
Q

The FAA is responsible for

A

A. Determining if an airport action is a categorical exclusion under NEPA
B. Reviewing environmental assessments prepared by airports or consultants
C. Ensuring that the environmental assessments meet FAA requirements
D. Preparing environmental impact statements. The FAA will consult with the airport sponsor concerning proposed improvements to airport facilities, but its the policy of the FAA that the airport sponsor, as owners, are responsible for careful and thorough planning of their respective facilities

322
Q

FAA order 5050.4B “National environmental Policy Act (NEPA): Implementing instructions for airport projects

A

Provides guidance for airport operators who are conducting development on airports. Under the Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970 and NEPA, the federal government requires the preparation of environmental statements for all major federal airport development actions that significantly affect the quality of the environment. Airport sponsors should request applications from the FAA’s office of airports for actions that affect the environment. The FAA then decides whether the application these actions

323
Q

Airport executives must consider numerous factors that can affect the environment of an airport:

A
  • Types and #’s of surface vehicles
  • Aircraft movement
  • Aircraft noise
  • Frequency and population of travelers and other stakeholders
  • Power requirements
  • Emissions
  • Solid/Liquid waste
  • Land mgmt and biodiversity issues
324
Q

NEPA requires:

A
  • Each federal agency to disclose to the public, a clear, accurate description of potential environmental impacts that proposed federal actions and reasonable alternatives to those actions would cause
  • The FAA must comply with NEPA for all proposed airport development projects that require a federal action
325
Q

Federal Action

A

Includes ALP approvals (Even if non-federal funds are used for the project), federal funding requests, AIP funded maintenance projects, and PFC approvals including locally funded items that require ALP approval

326
Q

In considering an airport development, NEPA provides for 3 categories of environmental action:

A
  1. Categorical exclusion (no environmental impact expected)
  2. Actions requiring an environmental assessment (less complex projects, little to no impact expected)
  3. Actions requiring an environmental impact statement (Complex projects where impacts are expected and mitigation measures may be necessary)
327
Q

Categorically excluded (CATEX)

A
  • The FAA has determined that some projects by their very nature will not, or are unlikely to have an environmental impact.
  • However, the FAA sought a means to still be able to document these projects
  • When an airport engages in a federally funded project, it must complete the CATEX form
    • FAA SOP 5.00 CATEX determinations
  • Form provides the FAA information about whether an item is categorically excluded from further environmental action, or whether there’s an extraordinary circumstance that would trigger further environmental action such as an ES/EIS
328
Q

To request a CATEX determination from the FAA

A
  • Form is completed with the preparer’s own knowledge and observations, citing previous environmental documents and agency correspondence if available
  • Airport operator reviews potentially affected environmental resources, reviews the requirements of the applicable special purpose laws, and consults with the FAA environmental protection specialist about the type of information needed
  • Form with supporting environmental resource documentation is then sent to the FAA airports division/district office
  • Ultimately, its the airport sponsor’s responsibility to ensure all necessary information is accurate and complete
329
Q

The CATEXs listed in the FAA environmental orders (1050.1E and 5050.4B)

A

Describes types of actions that don’t normally require an EA/EIS because they don’t individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment

330
Q

A simple written record is sufficient for projects that meet the following criteria:

A
  • Equipment and vehicle purchases
  • Snow removal equipment
  • Security equipment
  • Computers
  • RWY/TWY edge lighting replacements that don’t require disturbance
  • Control panels and regulators
  • Master plans, part 150 studies, feasibility studies
331
Q

FAA ARP SOP 5.00 CATEX determinations, provides further guidance on the form submission process. Airport sponsors must submit information on the proposed project 12 months prior to funding or ALP approval and should:

A
  1. Define the proposed action
  2. Review if the action is identified on the CATEX list
  3. Conduct review of extraordinary circumstances
  4. Provide information on extraordinary circumstances to FAA for FAA review
  5. Comply with any special purpose laws
332
Q

Environmental resource areas to be considered in the CATEX form include:

A
  1. Air quality
  2. Archaeological
  3. Biotic communities
  4. Coastal resources
  5. Compatible land use
  6. Construction impacts
  7. Endangered species
  8. Energy supply and natural resources
  9. Environmental justice
  10. Essential fish habitat
  11. Farmland
  12. Migratory Bird Treaty Act
  13. Floodplains
  14. Hazmat
  15. Historic
  16. Light emissions
  17. Natural resources
  18. Noise levels
  19. Parks, public land, refuges
  20. Surface transportation
  21. Water quality
  22. Wetlands
  23. Wild and scenic rivers
  24. Connected actions
  25. Cumulative actions or impacts
  26. Environmental laws
  27. Highly controversial
  28. Community disruption
333
Q

Air Quality

A

Whether the project will have the potential to increase landside or airside capacity, including an increase in surface vehicles

334
Q

Archaeological

A

Whether the project will have an effect on property included in or eligible for federal, state, tribal or local historical, archaeological, or cultural significance (Whether the ground was previously undisturbed)

335
Q

Biotic Communities

A

Whether the project will impact plant communities and/or cause displacement of wildlife

336
Q

Coastal Resources

A

Whether the project will occur in or impact a coastal zone as defined by the state’s coastal zone mgmt plan

337
Q

Compatible land use

A

Whether the project is consistent with plans, goals, policy, zoning or local controls that have been adopted for the area in which the airport is located

338
Q

Construction impacts

A

Whether the project will produce construction impacts such as reducing local air quality, producing erosion, or pollutant run off, or disrupting local traffic patterns

339
Q

Endangered species

A

Whether there will be any impact on any federally-listed endangered, threatened and candidate species (Flora/fauna) or designated critical habitat. Airports are prohibited from taking any endangered species- whether plant or animal, which includes direct killing or modification to habitat in which the species live

340
Q

Energy supply and natural resources

A

Whether or not the project will impact energy supply of natural resources

341
Q

Environmental justice

A

Whether or not the project will cause any adverse and disproportionate impacts on minority and low income populations

342
Q

Essential fish habitat

A

Whether the project is located in or will cause adverse effect to waterways, streams, or body of water

343
Q

Farmland

A

Whether the action will involve acquisition and conversion of farmland

344
Q

Migratory Bird Treaty Act

A

Whether the protect will have the potential to adversely impact birds protected by the act

345
Q

Floodplains

A

Whether the project will be located in, encroach upon, or otherwise impact a floodplain

346
Q

Hazmat

A

Whether the project will involve or affect hazmat or involve construction in an area that contains hazmat and/or hazardous waste

347
Q

Historic

A

Whether the project will have an effect on property included in or eligible for the national register of historic places, or other property of federal, tribe, state, or local significance

348
Q

Light emissions

A

Whether the project will produce significant light emission impacts to residential areas, schools, or hospitals

349
Q

Natural Resources

A

Whether the project will have significant impact on natural, ecological, cultural, or scenic resources of natural, state or local significance

350
Q

Noise levels

A

Whether the project will have a significant impact (DNL 1.5 dB or greater) on noise levels over noise sensitive areas (residences, schools, churches, hospitals) within the 65 dnl noise contour

351
Q

Parks, public lands, refuges, and recreational resources:

A

Whether the project will impact publically-owned land in a public park, recreational area, or wildlife/waterfowl refuge of national, state, or local significance or land of a historic site with national, state or local significance

352
Q

Surface transportation

A

Whether the project will cause a significant increase in surface traffic congestion or cause degradation in level of service

353
Q

Water Quality

A

Whether the project will have a significant impact in water quality of ground water, surface water bodies, public water supply systems, or violate federal, state, or tribal water quality standards

354
Q

Wetlands

A

Whether or not the project will impact any wetlands. Wetland determinations must meet requirements of the US Army Corps of Engineers 1987 Wetland delineation manual

355
Q

Wild and scenic rivers

A

Whether or not the project will impact rivers designated as wild or scenic by the US national park service

356
Q

Connected actions

A

Whether any closely related actions should be considered

357
Q

Cumulative actions or impacts

A

Whether the project will, when viewed with other planned actions, have significant impacts

358
Q

Environmental laws

A

Whether the project is inconsistent with any other federal, state, or local laws relating to the environment

359
Q

Highly Controversial

A

Whether the proposed project is likely to be highly controversial on environmental grounds. A proposed federal action is considered highly controversial when an action is opposed on environmental grounds by a federal, state, or local government or by a substantial # of persons affected by such action

360
Q

Community disruption

A

Whether the project will cause disruption of a community, disrupt planned development, or be inconsistent with plans or goals of the community or have social impacts (such as residents or businesses being relocated)

361
Q

Extraordinary circumstances

A

Situation in which a normally categorically excluded action may cause significant adverse environmental impacts. Determining whether an extraordinary circumstances exists is within the purview of the FAA, which has the authority. The FAA is required to notify the airport when a CATEX exists for a proposed action. Extraordinary circumstances may exist when a proposed action may have a significant effect on: any of the 28 previous items or the human environment

362
Q

Significance thresholds

A

Certain projects ( air quality, coastal zones, compatible land use) may/may not involve significance thresholds. I.E. a project affecting air quality could be CATEX unless it exceeds the significance thresholds outlined in the National Ambient Air Quality Standards. Significance thresholds for various categories are listed in FAA order 5050.4B

363
Q

Environmental Assessment (EA)

A

If a project isn’t CATEX, or would normally be excluded but involve extraordinary circumstances, then an EA may be required. Takes a “hard look” at the expected environmental effects of a proposed action. The FAA may prepare an EA on any action at anytime in order to assist the agency in planning and decision making. The airport, consultant or FAA prepares an EA for the airport’s actions unless the FAA determines without an EA that a significant impact to the action may exist, in which case the FAA can skip the EA and go directly to the EIS process

FAA Order 5050.4B

364
Q

Finding of no significant impact (FONSI)

A

On the basis of the results reported in an EA, if the impacts are not significant, than the implementing or reviewing agency prepares a FONSI. The FAA can do the same when the EA indicates that the selected alternate would not cause any significant environmental consequences. The issuance of a FONSI may also be dependent upon the airport taking certain mitigation actions along with the consequences severity, and significance of the action. The FONSI must list conceptual mitigation measures that are part of the preferred alternatives

365
Q

FONSI with record of decision (ROD)

A

Addresses the circumstances relevant to the action

Actions redefined to include mitigation necessary to reduce potential significant impacts below the significance thresholds or actions that are highly controversial

366
Q

Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)

A

Identifies the effects that a proposed project might have on surrounding locations, describes and discusses the significant environmental impacts of the actions, proposed action, or no action, and the impacts that any reasonable alternative may cause. It also addresses the project setting to minimize environmental impact and includes the consideration of tech to mitigate problems.
Relatively few airport actions require prep of an EIS. Preparation of an EIS for AIP projects undertaken at airports in accordance with the NEPA is the responsibility of the FAA. At a minimum, NEPA requires an airport to conduct an environmental audit when undertaking a major project

367
Q

Environmental issues concerning the sale of land

A

An airport incurs specific obligations to use land for airport purposes when it accepts AIP money to buy land for airport development, AIP financing for any AIP eligible airport development or a conveyance of federal surplus property, If an airport no longer needs airport land for aeronautical purposes, they may request that the FAA release the land for sale or long term ease for non-aeronautical uses. Any property, when described as part of an airport in an agreement with the US or defined by an ALP or listed in the exhibit A property map, is considered to be dedicated or obligated property for airport purposes by the terms of the agreement. Releasing property is normally CATEX, but may require an EA

368
Q

Long term leases that aren’t related to aeronautical activities or airport support:

A

Services have the effect of a release for all practical purposes and will be treated the same as a release. These include leases such as: convenience concession serving the public (hotel, ground transportation, food and personal services), and leases that require the FAA’s consent for the conversion of aeronautical airport property to revenue producing non-aeronautical property

369
Q

Environmental Compliance

A

Airport environmental mgmt is primarily concerned with protecting the environmental and protecting the airport and its mgmt from liability stemming from violation of environmental laws. A priority is to implement and sustain a systematic program for ensuring regulatory compliance with environmental laws. In general, it may be difficult for the government or a private citizen to successfully prosecute the manager if a good faith effort has been made to comply with the law. As part of this program, airport mgmt should make frequent assessments of its current regulatory compliance. This audit should uncover any existing problem areas that mgmt must be prepared to resolve expeditiously

370
Q

Liability of the airport

A

Airport can be forced to assume liability for clean up of contamination on property returned to them through lease expirations, lease terminations, or bankruptcy. The best means for ensuring tenant/contractor compliance with environmental laws is to establish specific criteria in any initial bid specifications and/or RFPs. Afterwards, periodic inspections and audits are conducted to ensure compliance. Lease/contract agreement should clearly articulate the responsibilities and requirements for compliance of the parties. All agreements should include provisions for the right to access and reasonably inspect premises and records

371
Q

Compliance requirements necessitate a review

A

And monitoring of not only the potentially hazardous operations, but also those of all tenants and contractors operating on the airport as well. Conducting an environmental audit is the recommended method of determining the airport sponsors overall environmental liabilities and issues

372
Q

Environmental mgmt systems

A

AC 150/5050-B, environmental mgmt systems for airport sponsors provides guidance on establishing methods for developing an ems, which is a business mgmt practice that serves as a strategic plan for addressing environmental matters

373
Q

Main steps for developing a sufficient EMS program are to:

A
  1. Establish a philosophy and position on environmental compliance
  2. Communicate compliance goals to employees, tenants, and the community at large
  3. Identify and assess the current level of compliance through an audit
  4. Establish programs to attain compliance
  5. Create processes and procedures to correct and maintain compliance
  6. Establish and implement strategies for building environmental capacity
374
Q

3 key activities for maintaining environmental compliance are to have:

A
  1. Sound employee and/or tenant training and informational programs
  2. Routine periodic reviews or audits of the airports EMS and compliance programs
  3. Sound record keeping practices
375
Q

The benefits of EMS include:

A

Increased overall efficiency and accountability, reduced costs, and the reduction of potential liability, increased employee awareness of environmental responsibilities, and improved community relations

376
Q

Environmental audits may be performed for a # of reasons such as:

A
  1. Determining the baseline environmental conditions of a facility or operations
  2. Determining the potential environmental liabilities of a property before making an acquisition decision or before initiating condemnation proceeding
  3. Identifying potential problems that could stop or delay a construction program, resulting in potential schedule and budget overruns
  4. Identifying tenant problems and ensuring correction of any non-complying conditions
377
Q

Most environmental compliance audits include many of the same elements:

A
  1. A determination of the different categories of compliance that need to be addressed
  2. A review of applicable environmental regulations to determine compliance requirements
  3. An audit conducted using interviews with key employees and reviews of airport, tenant, and regulatory agency files
  4. The development of a formal report of the findings
378
Q

Nonattainment

A

Areas that don’t meet federal air quality standards

379
Q

Air quality and National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQs)

A

Ambient outdoor levels of these air pollutants are safe for human heath, public welfare and the environment. States are responsible for designating areas that are attainment, non-attainment, or maintenance for each of the criteria pollutants. More than 25% of all airports are presently located in non-attainment areas are responsible for up to 10% of total emissions in some areas

380
Q

Through the NAAQs airports must conform to: State implementation plans (SIP)

A

National Ambient Air Quality Standards

Conduct an inventory of all airport emissions sources. The SIP is the states detailed description of the regulations, programs and measures used to reduce air pollution, and fulfill its responsibilities under the Clean Air Act to attain the NAAQs for all criteria pollutants

381
Q

Ways to mitigate emissions

A
  1. Implement single or reduced engine taxi operations into rules/regulations
  2. Streamlining taxi routes
  3. Providing central ground or air auxiliary power to the airlines
  4. Requiring alternate fuels for ground service equipment and rental cars/commercial vehicles
  5. Decrease employee/passenger vehicles miles traveled by having a shuttle or other public transit service
  6. Streamlining airport vehicle traffic circulation patterns
382
Q

Voluntary airport low emissions (VALE)

A

2003

Airports participating in VALE may receive credits for emission reductions achieved through VALE projects. Airports can use VALE credits to offset emissions from development projects required to comply with federal clean air act requirements

383
Q

US Code Title 33 Chapter 26 Water Pollution Prevention and Control (Clean water act)

A

Protects water from pollutants

Contamination at airports: Through storage/handling and disposal of wastes, through leaking petroleum storage tanks, and through the leeching of uncovered salt/sand stockpiles, landfills, septic tanks and through agricultural practices

384
Q

Storm water

A

Represents the most prolific source of water pollution at airports. Storm water can cause overflows, discharge, and the removal of chemicals and toxins located at many point sources in the airport operating area. Therefore, appropriate storm water drainage systems must be designed and operated as physical facilities at an airport. Installation of storm water systems is considered a prime strategy for mitigation damage

385
Q

Ground Water

A

Protected by the requirement that only a certified applicator, may apply pesticides and fungicides

386
Q

Wetland

A

Areas of land inundated or saturated by surface or ground water at a frequency and duration sufficient to support, and the under normal circumstances does support, a prevalence of vegetation typically adapted for life in saturated soil conditions. Generally include swamps, marshes, bogs and similar areas. They have a filtering effect on ground water and support a variety of plant and wildlife species

387
Q

National Pollution Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)

A

Permitting program that regulates discharges of potentially contaminated wastewater and storm water into water of the US. Is a means of regulatory compliance for point source discharges (ie de-icing fluid discharged through a storm drain)

388
Q

Storm Water Pollution Prevention Plan (SWPPP)

A

Part of permit process. A comprehensive approach to addressing storm water discharge from the various users and tenants. It requires airport mgmt to monitor all discharges, maintain records, and make reports in the event of unusual discharges

389
Q

The SWPPP is designed to:

A

Storm Water Pollution Prevention Plan

  1. Identify/evaluate sources of pollutants associated with industrial activities that may affect the quality of storm water discharges and authorized non-storm water discharges from the facility
  2. Identify/implement site-specific best mgmt practices to decrease or prevent pollutants associated with industrial activities in storm water discharges and authorized non-storm water discharges
390
Q

Non-Point Source (NPS) pollution

A

Results from land runoff, precipitation, or seepage into a body of water, rather than from a specific, single location. Generally, this terms refers to discharges not regulate by the EPA and the states but is most commonly associated with run off from agriculture

391
Q

4 types of storm water permits

A
  1. General
  2. Individual
  3. Multi-sector general
  4. Construction

1st 3 refer to operations/facilities at airports (vehicle mx, paint, fuel, airport pavement, de-icing, pesticides/herbicides)

4th is related to rehab/expansion activities that disturb 1 or more acres. If required for part of AIP, cost of preparing permit may be an eligible cost

392
Q

If the state or EPA requires a permit:

A

The airport is required to develop a storm water mgmt plan (SWMP) or SWPPP, to implement BMP’s and to manage various runoff pollutants, such as oils/grease, de-icing fluid and sediment. EPA/state may require tenants to be co-permittee or require the airport to implement measures that require the contractors/tenants to implement BMPs or adhere to appropriate measures identify in the SWPPP or BMPs often cover reports of spills, discharges to the wastewater and storm water system, drains/swales, methods to process hazmat, airborne contaminants, use of PPE and labeling requirements

393
Q

BMP’s include:

A

Practices for handling:

  • Anti freeze
  • Asbestos
  • Cleaning compounds
  • Compressed gasses
  • Construction material
  • Fertilizers
  • Fuels/petroleum products
  • Paints
  • Tires
  • Used batteries
  • FOD
394
Q

BMP’s outline

A

Methods used to prevent and control pollution of storm water associated with industrial activities at the airport. They emphasize prevention over treatment and are generally cheaper

395
Q

BMP involve

A
  • Good housekeeping
  • Inspections
  • Preventative mx program
  • Spill prevention and response
  • Personnel training and awareness
  • Record keeping and internal reporting system
396
Q

Good Housekeeping

A
  • Keeping floors/work areas clean
  • Making sure no waste/recyclable material are laying around
  • Ensuring dumpsters are closed
  • Using drip trays under vehicles
  • Storing flammable materials in metal lockers or ventilated storage buildings
397
Q

Inspections

A

Performing a minimum of 2 inspections per week on days in which the facility is staffed

398
Q

Preventative mx program

A

Conducting inspections a minimum of 2x per week and including periodic testing of equipment

399
Q

Spill prevention and response

A

Incorporating the SPCC and ERP by refrence and ensuring spill measures are incorporated that go beyond the storm water requirements (ie non-emergency spills)

400
Q

Personnel training and awareness

A

Labeling storm water drain inlets so personnel are aware of the direct impacts of their actions on storm water runoff

401
Q

Record keeping and internal reporting system

A

Performing periodic weekly inspections (Recommended 2x weekly) for BMP; using inspection records and checklists

402
Q

Additional structural BMPs recommendations exist relating to:

A
  • Sediment/erosion control (silt fences, tarps, rock berms)
  • Vegetative erosion control (Sod, mulch, matting, netting)
  • Stabilizing erosion control (retaining wall, paving, riprap)
  • Source control (Containment, structural covers, run-on diversion, warning signs, wash racks with closed loop containment systems)
403
Q

ERP

A

Emergency Response Plan

Includes methods for contacting emergency response personnel and in the even of a spill, fire, explosion or other release, methods for containing the waste and notifying the NRC. Many of those ERPs are combined with the SPCC (Control + countermeasures). Airports must also appoint an individual as the emergency coordinator to ensure that appropriate procedures are carried out in the event of a hazmat emergency

404
Q

SPCC/ERP documents the airports intent to:

A

Comply with Title 40 CFR 112 and the permitting requirements of the NPDES (National pollutant discharge elimination system). The SPCC is drafted to reduce or eliminate oil discharges to navigable waters of the US. From a practical perspective, the SPCC/ERP, SWPPP (storm water pollution prevention plan) and the BMPs are combined into 1 or 2 documents that complement each other

405
Q

The spill plan identifies

A
  • Points of contact in the event of a spill
  • Describes the facility layout and locations of fuel storage, oil, lubricant and other liquid storage tanks
  • Storm water and sanitary sewer drainage
  • Wastewater transfer
  • Oil water separators
  • Training/handling
  • Security and spill reporting procedures
  • Overfill protection
  • Spill response equipment
406
Q

Response/Reporting elements of the plan include:

A

The discharge discovery and reporting requirements, non-emergency and emergency spill with out without discharge (a non-emergency spill is where spill doesn’t reach the storm water system), emergency response materials, shut off ignition sources and the actions necessary to stop the flow and spread of a spill (Barriers, absorbent materials). Spill measures related to de-icing, vehicle and aircraft re-fueling areas, maintenance areas and storm water runoff areas are also addressed

407
Q

CFR Title 40 CFR 261 identification and listing of hazmat

A

A substance is considered hazmat if its on the list. Can cause injury/death, and may do damage or cause pollution to the land/air/water. Even if not on the list, a substance can be considered dangerous if it exhibits any of the 4:

  • Ignitability
  • Corrosive
  • Reactivity
  • Toxicity
408
Q

Ignitability

A

Easily combustible or flammable waste

409
Q

Corrosive

A

Waste burns the skin or dissolves metals or other materials

410
Q

Reactive

A

Unstable or undergoes rapid or violent chemical reaction with water or other material

411
Q

Toxic

A

Contains high concentrations of heavy metals or specific pesticides

412
Q

Hazmat generators (airports) are classified into 1 of 3 categories based on volume of material that’s generated per month:

A
  1. Conditionally exempt small quantity generators (CESOGS)
    -less than 100k per month
  2. Small quantity generators (SQGs)
    -More than 100kg per month but less than 1,000kg per
    month
  3. Large quantity generator (LQGs)
    -Generate more than 1,000kg per month
    -EPA identification # must be obtained
413
Q

Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980 (CERCLA)

A

aka superfund (modified in 1986)

Established criteria for potentially responsible party (PRP) designation and establish a toxic waste clean up hazmat sites when a PRP can’t be identified

414
Q

Potentially responsible parties is any person that:

A
  1. Is the owner/operator of a facility that manages hazmat
  2. at the time of disposal of any hazmat substance owned or operated any facility where the hazmat was disposed
  3. Who arranged for hazmat substance treatment or disposal
  4. Who arranged for the transportation of hazmat substances for treatment or disposal
  5. Who accepts/accepted hazmat substances for transportation to disposal or treatment facilities, incineration vessels, or other selected sites
415
Q

Superfund hazmat substances generally include:

A
  • Toxic
  • Flammable
  • Corrosive
  • Environmentally harmful
416
Q

NRC

A

Primary communications center for reporting major chemical and oil spills or other hazmat substances into the environment

417
Q

Leaking underground storage tank (LUST) trust fund

A

Addresses releases from federally regulated underground storage tanks and provides money to:

  1. oversee clean up by responsible parties
  2. Enforce clean up by recalcitrant parties
  3. Pay for clean up at sites where the owner/operator is unknown, unwilling or unable to respond, or which require emergency action
  4. Conduct inspections and other release prevention activities
418
Q

Cathodically-protected steel or fiberglass

A

All piping must have this coating. Guidelines also call for catchment basins as well as 1 of the following:

  • Automatic shut off valve
  • Overfill alarm
  • Ball float valve
419
Q

EPA

A

Primary agency responsible for nationwide enforcement of environmental regulations though such enforcement can be delegated to other agencies (FAA). Provisions are made in federal environmental regulations for civil and criminal liability exposure in the event of violations. Only government agencies can seek criminal sanctions

420
Q

Enforcement vs. Compliance

A

Enforcement= covers all efforts to ensure compliance with environmental laws

Compliance= the condition that exists when a person or company fully obeys the law

421
Q

3 basic factors are considered to determine whether a given public/private employee is personally liable:

A
  1. Ability to make timely discovery of the problem
  2. The power to direct the activities of persons who control the mechanisms causing the problem
  3. The ability to prevent and abate the damage
422
Q

The EPA’s policy is to respond to every violation and in a method associated with the gravity/circumstance of the violation:

A
  1. An informal response such as a notice of non-compliance or warning
  2. Formal administrative responses which are legal orders that may require the respondant to take some corrective/remedial action within a specific time frame to refrain from certain behavior or to require future compliance
  3. Civil judicial responses which are formal lawsuits brought in US federal court by DOJ at the EPAs request
  4. Criminal justice responses which are used when a person or company knowingly/willfully violated the law and may be investigated by the EPAs criminal investigation agents or FBI
423
Q

Types of penalties can be either civil/criminal. The basic remedies are:

A
  1. Require the violator to comply with the law
  2. Require the violator to carry out a supplemental project that yields environmental benefits to offset the harmful effects of the violation
  3. Impose penalties, such as non-deductible cash payments
  4. Place the offender on the EPAs list of violating facilities (thereby suspending eligibility to receive federal grants, loans, etc)
  5. In certain criminal convictions, imprison violators (criminal action is often used to respond to flagrant, intentional, disregard for environmental laws and deliberate falsification of documents or records)
424
Q

Environmental capacity

A

Refers to building environmental networks and communities of practice by stakeholders of the airport. These efforts strive to implement process associated with public education, cooperative planning, conflict resolution, disclosure, and information dissemination as ways to be proactive in managing environmental concerns and enhancing the effectiveness of their EMS program

425
Q

Sustainable Development

A

Process of quality mgmt. Now a mgmt ethic that proactively and continuously seeks to define and implement philosophies, strategies, and tactics for addressing environmental concerns, in order to establish processes benefiting future societies

426
Q

Leadership in Environmental energy and Design (LEED)

A

A certification process that verifies whether or not a building or other infrastructure meets stringent environmentally safe building and related performance measures. One major challenge with airports utilizing LEED standards is that the USGBC (US Green Building council) doesn’t currently incorporate airport considerations into evolving LEED standards, thus creating impediments to qualify for LEED credits in many airport projects

427
Q

Transportation Research Board (TRB) defines airport sustainability as:

A

“Meeting the transportation needs of the present without compromising the ability of the future generations to meet their needs.” “A holisitic approach to managing an airport so as to ensure the integrity of the economic viability, operating efficiency, natural resource conservation, and social responsibility of the airport”

428
Q

Major advantages/principles of sustainability development as related to airport mgmt are:

A
  1. Sustainable development is a mgmt strategy for sustaining long term tactics implemented in consideration for the environmental impacts of all airport operations and development activities
  2. Sustainable development is a proactive approach to the environmental mgmt and is considered a business policy that reduces the potential for liability associated with environmental factors. In this regard, sustainable development is a managerial value that demonstrates social responsiveness
  3. Sustainable development is considered a mgmt philosophy for improving airport profitability. Improving competitive viability
  4. Sustainable Development is a mgmt philosophy for improving partnerships, community relations and the image of the airport
  5. Sustainable development can help reduce the environmental and carbon footprint of the airport
429
Q

Clean airport partnership

A

NPO offers 2 phases of environmental audit and planning that leads to certification as a green airport. CAP offers expert environmental consulting and evaluation if ab airports environmental footprint

430
Q

Sustainability

A

Includes sustainable sites, water efficiency, energy and atmosphere, materials and resources, indoor environmental quality, innovation in design, and regional priority. As one example of innovation in material recycling, the Portland airport re-purposes magazines from international flights by donating them to local schools that teach foreign languages

431
Q

Sustainability measures

A
  • Sustainable site
  • Water efficiency
  • Energy and atmosphere
  • Materials and resources
  • Indoor environmental quality
  • Innovation in design
  • Regional priority
432
Q

Sustainable site

A

Goals include: methods to reduce pollution from construction activities, brownfield (possibly hazmat) redevelopment, alternative transportation and fuels, storm water control, heat island effect and light pollution

433
Q

Water efficiency

A

Goals include: reducing water use overall (using infrared switches on BR and toilet fixtures, high efficiency toilet fixtures to reduce water consumption and more efficient use of water in landscaping)

434
Q

Energy and atmosphere

A

Goals include: decrease energy output by a facility (motion sensing light switches), using green power and optimizing energy performance, having upgrade HVAC systems, energy star efficient equipment, solar hot water panels and 20kw capacity and solar photo voltaic panel arrays

435
Q

Materials and resources

A

Goals include: recycling programs, reducing construction waste, reuse of existing walls, floors, and roof materials, and using certified wood

436
Q

Indoor environmental quality

A

Goals include: low-emitting materials such as adhesives, sealants, paints, coating, flooring systems, control of lighting, thermal comfort and daylight and provides for 75% and 90% of spaces

437
Q

Innovation in design

A

Relates to other design measures not covered under the 5 LEED credit categories

438
Q

Regional priority

A

Relates to regional environmental priorities for buildings in difference geographic regions

439
Q

Areas of concern for airports

A
  • Incompatible land use
    • noise sensitive residential areas
  • Parks and open space
  • Demand for available land to install telecom infrastructure
440
Q

Biodiversity

A

Relates to the effects of wildlife on airports and the effects of aircraft noise on migration and nesting patterns. While many control measures are focused on aircraft safety, there are legit concerns that control measures (Elimination, scaring, relocation) are negatively affecting wildlife. Options to improve safety while decreasing the impact on wildlife. Vehicle mounted noise systems, habitat mgmt that is designed to repel birds and vegetation mgmt

441
Q

According to Green Building Certification Institute (GBCI), the LEED certification endorses buildings and will perform by:

A
  1. Having lower operating costs and increase asset value
  2. Reducing waste sent to landfills
  3. Conserving energy and water
  4. Being healthier and safer for occupants
  5. Reducing harmful greenhouse gas emissions
  6. Qualify for tax rebates, zoning allowances, and other incentives in 100x cities
  7. Demonstrating an owners commitment to environmental stewardship ans social responsibility
442
Q

Terminals generally require increased energy consumption that most public buildings because:

A
  1. Generally unprotected locations
  2. High heat loss/gain resulting from movement of people/baggage through buildings around the clock
  3. Frequency of those activities
443
Q

Different LEED ratings

A
  • LEED accredited professional
  • LDD green associate
  • LEED fellows (highest)
444
Q

LEED points rating system

A
Certified= 40-49
Silver= 50-59
Gold= 60-79
Platinum= 80-and up
445
Q

Central purpose of ATC

A

Provide safe separation of aircraft in flight

446
Q

National airspace system (NAS)

A

Sum of all airport, navaids, atc and airspace

447
Q

Regulatory vs. non-regulatory airspace

A

Regulatory= class A, B, C, D, E, restricted, prohibited

Non-regulatory= MOAs, warning areas, alert areas, and controlled firing areas (US military)

Within these two are 4 types: Controlled, uncontrolled, special use, other

448
Q

Terminal vs. enroute airspace

A

Terminal= area around major airports and extends from the ground to a specified altitude and is typically 60 miles in diameter
-ATCT and tracon

Enroute= large area of airspace that covers the nation. No bottom altitude but tops out to upper performance limits of civil aircraft
-ARTCC
-Class A, , C, D, E, transition areas, continental control
area and others

449
Q

Controlled Airspace

A
  • Class A, B, C, D, E airspace

- Services provided to IFR and VFR

450
Q

Class A

A
  • Generally extends from 18k MSL to FL6000
  • Must be on an IFR flight plan
  • Associated with fast moving air traffic
451
Q

Class B

A
  • Generally surface to 10k
  • Configuration of airspace is tailored to each airport and consists of a surface area and 2 or more layers
  • Designed to contain all IAP
  • ATC clearance is required to operate in Class B
  • VFR cloud clearance= clear of clouds
  • 2 way radio required
  • All aircraft within 30 miles must have Mode C
  • On sectionals, IFR low en-route and TACs
452
Q

Class C

A
  • Generally airspace from surface to 4k
  • Operationally ATCT and radar approach control
  • Airspace individually tailored and 5NM radius core surface area and 1oNM shelf that extends no lower than 1,200 up to 4k
  • Sectional, IFR low en-route, TAC
  • Radar vectoring, sequencing
  • 10NM radius with extensions for IAP
  • 2 way radio
453
Q

Class D

A
  • Generally surface to 2,500 MSL
  • Operational control tower
  • Configuration is individually tailored and contains IAP
  • ATCT may be full or part time
    • When closed, airspace reverts to class E or G
  • 2 way radio
454
Q

Class E

A

(Controlled areas)

  • Corridors that are identified as federal airways
  • Help to provide separation of VFR/IFR
  • When IFR operates below 18k, it’s considered controlled but only for separation and visibility standards
  • Extends up to 18k then 60k into space
  • Also exists at airports with IAP but without ATCT
  • Pilot responsible to contact nearest ATC controlling the airspace
455
Q

Class G

A
  • Includes all airspace not previously classified
  • Considered uncontrolled and exists below E and all others below 18k
  • Extends from surface to base of overlying class B or up to 14k
  • ATC has no authority or responsibility
456
Q

Transition area airspace

A

Consists of controlled airspace extending out from the end of the radius of controlled airspace around B and C. Allows for the ascent/descent of IFR aircraft in those areas. Continental control area refers to all airspace above 14,500 overlying the lower 48

457
Q

Special use airspace

A
  • Prohibited areas
  • Restricted areas
  • Warning areas
  • MOAs
  • Military transition routes
  • alert areas
  • Control firing areas
  • National security areas
  • ADIZ
  • Flight restriction zone
  • Airport advisory area
  • Parachute jump area
  • TFR
  • Published VFR route
  • TRSA
458
Q

Prohibited area

A

Airspace which aircraft flight is prohibited, typically for reason of national security, such as over camp david

459
Q

Restricted area

A

May be used for hazards that are visible to aircraft such as aerial gunnery, guided missiles, or artillery firing. Aircraft on IFR may be authorized to transit airspace but pilots operating under VFR should ensure that the restricted area isn’t active prior to entering

460
Q

Warning Area

A

Over international waters and extend from 3 miles beyond the shore. FAA has no authority over these areas. Are advisory in nature and alert pilots they may be entering areas of hazardous activity

461
Q

MOA

A

Separates high speed military traffic from GA and commercial. Military operations such as air combat training, formation flying and aerial refueling. Pilots may request advisories prior to entering

462
Q

Military transition routes

A

Are 1 way, high speed route for military traffic below 10k. Pilots aren’t restricted from flying through MTR’s but are encouraged to stay alert for military operation

463
Q

Alert Areas

A

Unusual activity takes place. Used to advise pilots of potential conflicts, but don’t have special rules.

i.e. military training areas which is marked on sectional of high volume of traffic

464
Q

Control firing areas (CFA)

A

Contains activities that could be hazardous to non participating aircraft, but the activities are immediately suspended when spotter aircraft, radar or ground lookout indicates an aircraft may be approaching. Not depicted on aeronautical charts

465
Q

National security areas

A

Defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where increased security and safety of ground facilities is necessary

466
Q

ADIZ

A

Exists around the borders of the US and over DC. All aircraft entering the domestic US airspace from points outside, must provide identification prior to entry. Facilitates early aircraft identification of all aircraft in the vicinity of the US and international airspace boundaries

467
Q

Flight restriction zone

A

Exists over the capital, white house and surrounding areas. Only aircraft on IFR that have been approved are allowed within

468
Q

Airport advisory areas

A

At airport without ATC but have an on airfield FAA FSS in operation. FAA provides advisory service to arriving/departing aircraft. Typically a weather reporting voice broadcasting service provided by facilities that don’t have ATCT or when ATCT is closed

469
Q

Parachute jumping areas

A

Published locations where parachute activities occur. Pilots should remain clear of these areas, but when not possible to remain clear, should attempt to monitor frequency of aircraft carrying skydivers

470
Q

TFR

A

Imposed to preclude aircraft from entering the area in which an incident occurred, such as a natural disaster, and can also be used to protect the president or over significant events

471
Q

Published VFR routes

A

Transitioning around under or through complex airspace such as through airspace over LAX. Known as VFR corridors or transition routes and are found on VFR sectional

472
Q

TRSA

A

Where participating pilots can receive additional radar services if available and typically overlay Class D

473
Q

MOU vs. LOA

A

MOU delineates those areas under the control and responsibility of ATCT, and those under the airport’s control (non-movement vs. movement)

Hours of operation, emergency notification responsibility, authorized vehicles, call signs, etc.

474
Q

Unicom vs. CTAF

A

Unicom frequency may be able to provide airport information such as weather, wind direction and the recommended RWY

Is non-government that’s often staffed by an FBO of FSS

475
Q

Title 14 CFR Part 170.13 establishes the following criteria before an airport can qualify for an ATCT:

A
  1. The airport must be available for use by the public as defined in the Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982
  2. The airport must be part of NPIAS
  3. The airport must adhere to grant assurances, specifically those related to keep the airport open for a long enough period to permit the amortization of the control tower investment
  4. The FAA must be furnished with appropriate land, without cost, for the construction of the ATCT
  5. Airport must meet the cost-benefit ratio criteria utilizing 3 consecutive FAA annual counts/projections of future traffic during expected life of the ATCT. Where counts are unavailable or not recorded, documented FAA estimates may be used
476
Q

Benefit-Cost Analysis for ATCT

A

Compares benefits of preventing accidents and the efficiencies of reduced flying time to the total cost of establishing, staffing, and maintaining the tower. Is based on existing traffic and future traffic forecasts over a 15 year period. Explicit $ values are assigned to the prevention of fatalities and injuries and to the time saved. A location is eligible when the benefits derived from operating the ATCT exceed the installation/operation costs.

BPV/CPV greater than or equal to 1.0

477
Q

Tracon vs. ARTCC

A

Tracon- Links departure airport to enroute structure. Typically exist around large hub airports, but can extend over multiple airports. Within tracon are several sectors/positions: app/dep, clearance delivery and flight data

ARTCC: Air Route Traffic Control Center
Separate participating aircraft traveling in en route airspace primarily work with aircraft on an IFR flight plan. Utilize radar which is a transmitter, antenna, receiver and display

478
Q

5 primary types of radar systems

A
  1. Airport surveillance (ASR)
  2. Air route surveillance radar (ARSR)
  3. Airport surface detection equipment (ASDE)
  4. Precision RWY monitoring
  5. Precision approach radar (PAR)
479
Q

Airport Surveillance Radar

A

Short range (60NM) used primarily for identifying and separatting traffic in and around the airport. Typically used in tracons to detect aircraft; combined with automated radar terminal systems (ARTS), which can receive transponder signals, both elements are combined in the controller’s scope providing both position information and identification of the aircraft. For facilities with ASR-9 radar, precipitation is also displayed

480
Q

Air Route Surveillance Radar (ARSR)

A

Longer range (100-250NM) and is used for enroute flight separation and identification and is used at ARTCCs

481
Q

Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDE)

A

Short range radar system used by ATC to augment and confirm information and vehicle position reporting. ASDE-X enables ATCT to detect potential RWY conflicts by providing detailed coverage of movement on RWY/TWY. ASDE-X is able to determine airport movement area, as well as aircraft flying within 5NM.

482
Q

Precision RWY Monitoring (PRM)

A

High update radar coupled with a high resolution ATC display that allows more accurate tracking of inbound aircraft so much so that aircraft in IMC can fly closer than 4300ft (no less than 3k) into 2 parallel RWYs. PRM offers controllers enhanced and more accurate radar information during simultaneous IAP to parallel RWYs. Allows for the safe operation of adjacent aircraft in close proximity during final approach. A monitoring controller will intervene if an aircraft begins to stray into the no transgression zone (boundary between 2 approach corridors)

483
Q

Precision Approach Radar (PAR)

A

Used by US military and provides both horizontal and vertical guidance. PAR approaches also involve guidance from ATC

484
Q

Transponder

A

Beacon device in an aircraft and used to transmit data on aircraft’s position and, depending on the capabilities of the transponder, altitude as well.

Mode C= Altitude encoding capability
Mode S= Report altitude in 25ft increments

485
Q

3 squawk codes for emergencies

A

7700- any type of emergency
7600- radio failure or other communications issues
7500- Hijacking or other acts causing pilot not to have total control of the aircraft

486
Q

FAA’s major requirements for systems used for navigation are:

A

Integrity= System must be able to monitor itself and provide timely warnings to users or shit itself down when it shouldn’t be used for navigation
Accuracy= Ability of the system to show the true position of an aircraft at any time
Availability and Reliability= Ability of providing functional navigation service whenever the user needs it

487
Q

Land based navaids

A
  • NDB
  • VOR
  • DME
  • TACAN
488
Q

NDB

A
  • Still exist but primarily used where bad terrain exists
  • Inexpensive and take up little space
  • Signal is omni-directional and can be received by ADF
  • If located on an IAP, aka compass locator
  • Frequency congestion/GPS=Less NDBs
489
Q

VOR

A

Transmits VHF signals. Not greatly affected by atmospheric interference or variations in terrain, making it reliable. It’s restricted by its visual line of sight and doesn’t follow curvature of earth, therefore the farther away= the higher altitude needed to receive a signal. Used primarily for IAP (if located on an airport). Are affected by terrain and obstructions in close proximity and typically have a 750-1000ft radius protection zone. Some have DME

490
Q

TACAN

A

Tactical air navigation. Used by the military and is a VOR-DME that operates on UHF frequency

491
Q

Satelite based and other navigation systems

A
  • GPS
  • WAAS
  • GBAs
492
Q

GPS

A
  • 24 satelites orbitting 11,000 miles above the earth
  • By measuring travel time of a signal transmitted from each satelite, a receiver can calculate its difference from that satelite
  • When receiving signals from at least 4 satelites, a GPS receiver can determine latitude, longitude, altitude and time
  • Basic signal is accurate within approximately 100m lateral and 140m vertical
493
Q

Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS)

A

Designed to enhance the capabilities of GPS signals to permit the system to be used for precision approached without the need for on airport equipment. An augmentation signal on the ground is necessary to ensure that the GPS signal is available to everyone using the approach or enroute signal.

FAA has determined that approximately 24 ground based stations are require to meet flight safety standards

494
Q

Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS)

A

Formerly know as LAAS. Augments the existing GPS utilized in US airspace by providing corrections to aircraft in the vicinity of an airport in order to improve the accuracy of an provide integrity for aircraft GPS navigation position. GBAS improves the satelite signal that provides the positional accuracy necessary for an aircraft to make a Cat II or III approach to a RWY within 60 miles of the GBAS location. Set to become a precision landing system and could replace ILS

495
Q

ILS

A

Provides horizontal/vertical guidance to RWY. Enhanced safety and decrease flight disruption. Components work in concert to provide azimuthal, elevation, and range information. Localizer beam radiates along a straight line of approach and GS transmitter that fans out from the approach to provide height information. An OM, MM, and an FAA determined decision height. To be eligible for consideration of an ILS, an airport must undertake an analysis of economic criteria that includes the estimated formula and cost-benefit analysis

496
Q

Key establishment criteria for an ILS are based upon the following:

A
  1. The # of annual instrument approaches
  2. # of non-precision approach minimums of the candidate RWY
  3. Probability of IFR weather at the airport

Cost-benefit analysis considers the value of air travel time, value of equipment’s statistical life, unit cost of statistically derived aviation injuries, aircraft capability and utilization factors, variable operation costs, and statistical unit replacement and restoration cost of damaged aircraft.

Some airports qualify for exemptions

497
Q

Examples of ILS operational exemptions are:

A
  • Unique terrain in the vicinity of an airport
  • Location in a severe weather area
  • Potential for relief of airport hub congestion
498
Q

Localizer

A

RF transmitting device normally located 1,000ft past the departure end of the RWY that has the approach. Is the 1st component of an ILS but can be used independently for non-precision approaches. Focuses on RF beam down the centerline of the RWY and toward the approach end of the RWY. Provides lateral positioning guidance to align with centerline. Line of sight for approximately 10NM and focused within 5 degress to L/R of centerline. Obstructions easily affect the LOC

499
Q

LOC design

A

Requires an impact zone to be established known as the localizer critical area and is approximately 250ft in diameter, extending 2,000ft down the RWY. Operation in this area only allowed during VFR or ATC permission

500
Q

LOC Directional Aid (LDA)

A

Localizer used for approach guidance o an airport, but the localizer signal doesn’t align the aircraft with the centerline. These exist because of problems that may occur with the proper siting of a LOC

501
Q

GS

A

Typically laterally offset at least 250ft from the side of the RWY and approximately 1,000ft from the threshold. Provides vertical guidance and transmits a signal that normally results in a 3 degree approach slope from the RWY TDZ. Because GS operates by reflecting or bouncing a signal off the ground in front of the antenna, a critical area is associated with it’s installation. Normally rectangular 500ft x 1,200ft long. Water/snow accumulation, uneven terrain, metal objects will affect signal

502
Q

Marker Beacon

A

Located along LOC approach path at fixed distance, MBs convey to the pilot approximate distance location information from the RWY threshold. Signal is cone shaped and directed vertically to enunciate an aircraft’s receiver as it passes overhead. Cat II+III have 3 MBs: OM, MM, IM. OM= 4-7NM from threshold. MM= 2000-6000ft. IM= approximately 1000ft. No IM on Cat I approach

503
Q

Decision Height

A

Cat I approach will be at 200ft over MM. Upon reaching DH, a pilot is required to have the RWY environment in view so that a visual descent to landing can be executed. If not visually identified at DH, pilot must abort landing an execute a missed approach. DH at Cat II+III can be lower than 200ft at IM

504
Q

ILS categories

A

Cat I: Standard approach, consists of LOC, GS, MM, OM or compass locator

Cat II: Adds IM, requires RVR

Cat III: Requires RVR, most stringent and expensive. 3 levels exist: A, B, C (most precise, allows 0 visibility landings)

505
Q

2 types of RVR

A

Transmissioner

Scatter-effect

506
Q

Transmissioner RVR

A

Transmissometer= still used but no longer installed. 2 devices located 500ft apart and at least 250ft apart on either side of the RWY outside the SA. Utilize an incandescent lamp projector/receiver that provides readings as low as 600ft and report in 200ft increments from 600-3000 RVR. Any change in the intensity of the light from transmission to reception is mathematically translated into a corresponding visibility distance

507
Q

Scatter-Effect RVR

A

Low mx costs, eliminates the use of steel and concrete structures on the airport surface, and provide RVR readings as low as 0ft. Utilizes an infrared projector and receiver and reports data in 100ft increments below 800ft, in 200ft increments between 800-3000ft, and in 500ft increments between 3000-6500ft

508
Q

ATC system Command Center

A

Balances air traffic demand with system capacity in national airspace system

509
Q

Flight Service Stations

A

Provide pilot briefing, en route communications, VFR search and rescue, assist lost aircraft and aircraft in emergency situations, relay ATC clearances, originate NOTAMs, broadcast aviation weather and national airspace system information, receive and process IFR flight plans, and monitor navaids. At select locations, they provide en route flight advisory service (flight watch), issue airport advisories, and advise customs of transborder flights

510
Q

Direct User Access Terminal Service (DUATs)

A

Web portal providers enable pilots to receive online preflight briefings, file flight plans and get automated alerts and notifications. Registering for these automated notifications and alerts keeps pilots informed when new/adverse conditions arise, such as severe weather or an airport closure, NOTAM, TFR

511
Q

ASOS vs. AWOS

A

24 hour real time weather data collection. ASOS= more expensive that are part of NWS and is essentially an upgrade to AWOS. ASOS also has more redundancy built in then AWOS though these remain an affordable option

512
Q

AWOS

A

Measures barometric pressure and altimeter setting, whereas an AWOS IV Z/R (the max) measures barometric and altimeter, visibility, sky condition, cloud height, precipitation (rain, sn, drizzle and fzrn, t storms (Via lightning detector), and RWY surface condition. Usually found at remote non-airport locations or on smaller airports

513
Q

ASOS

A

Reports all AWOS does and temperature dewpoint, present weather, and sea level pressure. Located on airport near TDZ of primary instrument RWY. 4 types of ASOS.

Level A: Include major hubs or airports with potential or severe weather

Level B: Small hub airports or airports with worse than average weather

Level C: Augmented by ATC or FSS, who report thunderstorms, hail, tornadoes, and tower visibility. All towered airports are considered level C during normal hours. Contract weather observers may supplement level C observations

Level D: Airports are completely automated and aren’t augmented

514
Q

FAR Part 91

A

Requires all airports with control zones to have weather observation services. All FAA towered airports are eligible for installation of an ASOS based on cost effectiveness. Non-tower/contract airport eligible based on a ratio value computed by summing the benefits provided to each user class and dividing the sum by the life-cycle costs. If ratio value >1, airport is eligible. If value is below .45, an existing ASOS is a candidate for discontinuance

515
Q

NextGen

A

1 major component is a transition from radar to satelite-based tracking and navigation. Satelite based navigation provides real time information to pilots in the air and ATC on the ground, which allows ATC to guide and track air traffic more preciesly/efficiently

516
Q

Benefits of NextGen:

A
  • Expected that moving away from voice communications (to digital, similar to texting) could result in 20% below enroute communication errors
  • Enhances national security by giving DHS, DOD, FAA more effective means of monitoring airspace
  • Technology, standards, infrastructure are implemented, maps/digital displays of airfield will be available to pilots, ground personnel and ATC
  • Allows for better AT mgmt on crowded regions by allowing for more efficient use of airspace
  • Airport designers have more flexibility with reduced spacing between parallel runways, which could result in additional flights
  • Better efficiency means less emissions and fuel consumption
517
Q

7 components of NextGen

A
  1. Performance based navigation (PBN)
  2. ADS-B
  3. Data communications
  4. Low visibility operations
  5. Flight deck enhancements
  6. Aircraft engine and fuel technologies
  7. Airport enhancements
518
Q

Performance based navigation

A

Comprised of RNAV and required navigation performance (RNP). Describes aircraft’s capability to navigate using performance standards. RNAV let’s aircraft fly on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or space based navaids, or within the limits of the capability of aircraft self-contained systems or a combination of both, RNP is RNAV with the addition of on board performance monitoring and alerting. Enable more efficient routes and procedures for precise departure, arrival, and approach paths. Different approach than VOR, NDB, ILS. Collectively, allows a pilot to follow a 3D ground track

519
Q

Data Communications

A

Allows ATC to transmit critical route information to pilots via digital text, replacing old 2 way radio transmissions. Will speed up departure queues and enable ATC to provide reroute information to cockpits during a flight, thus saving time, reducing fuel costs, and streamlining air traffic flow across the national airspace system

520
Q

Low Visibility Operations

A

HUD and enhanced vision systems and for the airport, this means GBAS Cat III which can provide auto land in very low visibility

521
Q

Certain NextGen improvements are focused on the pilot or aircraft such as:

A
  • Electronic flight bag
  • Electronic access to charts and approach plates
  • System wide information mgmt (SWIM)
  • Airborne collision avoidance systems
  • New airframe technoloiges
  • More efficient engines
522
Q

SWIM

A

System Wide Information Mgmt

Is the platform that shares up to date and identical information among pilots, ATC, airline dispatchers, military, government agencies, and other users of NAS. Also processes information from different kinds of systems, such as airport operational status, weather information, flight data, status of special use airspace, and airspace system restrictions

523
Q

Airport enhancements

A

Includes GIS integration to provide detailed geospatial data about obstructions at airports and transponder technology for surface vehicles operating in the movement area to take advantage of ADS-B. NextGen technology and improvements will allow for greater capacity in the airspace system and more efficient movement of aircraft through the airport. In future planning, airport planners must take into consideration how NextGen will affect the overall flow and movement of passengers and aircraft through the airport

524
Q

ADS-B

A

Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast

encompasses:
Automatic: always on and requires no operator intervention
Dependent: Depends on accurate GNSS signals for position data
Surveillance: Provides “radar like” surveillance services
Broadcast: Continuously broadcasts aircraft position and other data to aircraft and ground stations equipped to receive ADS-B

525
Q

Global Nav satelite system

A

ADS-B uses GNSS receiver to derive its precise position and then combines that position with additional aircraft information such as speed, heading, altitude and flight #

526
Q

Benefits of ADS-B

A
  1. Air to air surveillance capability
  2. Surveillance to remote or inhospitable areas that don’t currently have coverage with radar
  3. Real time traffic and aeronautical information in the cockpit
  4. Reduced separation and greater predictability in departure/arrival times
  5. Common separation standards, both horizontal and vertical, are supported for all classes of airspace
  6. Ability of airlines to manage traffic/aircraft fleets well
  7. Ability of ATC to plan arrival/departure far in advance
  8. Cost of the infrastructure needed to operate the NAS is reduced
527
Q

Capcity

A

Refers to the ability of a portion of airspace or an airport to handle a given volume of traffic within a specified period. As a result of airline deregulation and the growth in population and the economy, more people are using the system. The increased activity affects not just the capacity of the airfield and gate systems, but also the terminal buildings, public access routes and parking facilities

528
Q

Airport and Airway Safety and Capacity Expansion Act of 1987

A

Funding priority was given to airport projects that focused on enhancing safety and sustaining an airport’s overall capacity to handle aircraft and ground operations. The ACEA re-authorization of AIP funds also focused on objectives to increase the capacity of the airport/airway system. ACEA called for giving highest funding priority to commercial service airports and maximizing the use of safety facilities

529
Q

Examples of activities/enhancements under AIP priority system for capacity enhancements include:

A
  1. Electronic or visual guidance on each RWY
  2. Grooving or friction treatment on each primary/secondary RWY
  3. RDR signs for each primary/secondary RWY
  4. Precision approach, vertical guidance, and full approach lighting system for each primary RWY
  5. A non-precision IAP for each secondary RWY: REILs on each RWY that doesn’t have an ALS
  6. A surface movement radar system at each Cat III airport
  7. TWY lighting and sign systems
  8. RWY edge lighting, marking
  9. Radar approach coverage for each airport terminal area
530
Q

When performing a capacity analysis, airport operators must investigate 4 distinct elements:

A
  1. Airspace
  2. Airfield
  3. Terminal
  4. Ground Access

Further broken down into the major systems components of RWY, TWY, apron, gate/terminal, terminal/curb side, vehicle circulation and parking areas

531
Q

Throughput Capacity

A

Rate at which aircraft can operate into or out of the airfield without regard to the amount of delay incurred. A theoretical measure derived from computer simulation or mathematical models and cannot be achieved in practice

532
Q

Practical capacity

A

Rate at which aircraft can operate without exceeding a maximum acceptable level of delay. Always less than throughput capacity, is that level of operation or airfield utilization attained without exceeding an agreed upon acceptable amount of delay. The acceptance amount is usually expressed as an average delay with the understanding that some users will experience less and some will experience more than average

533
Q

2 measures of practical capacity

A
  1. Practical hourly capacity (Phocap)
  2. Practical annual capacity (Pancap)

Used for evaluating the feasibility and benefit of airport development and improvement projects

534
Q

Phocap

A

Practical hourly capacity

Total hourly combined capacity measure of the RWY, TWY, and gate areas

535
Q

Pancap

A

Practical annual capacity

The annual level of operations that results in not more than 4 minutes average delay per aircraft in a normal peak 2 hour operating period

536
Q

Airport acceptance rate

A

Used by air route traffic control centers (ARTCC) to calculate the desired interval between successive arrival aircraft. A measure of practical capacity, AAR represents an agreed-upon maximum # of aircraft that can land at any given airport during a 1 hour period

537
Q

What constitutes an acceptable level of delay is a judgment involving 3 factors:

A
  1. Must be recognized that some delay is unavoidable simply because it occurs for reasons beyond anyone’s control (winds, wx, aircraft performance) and the randomness of demand
  2. Some delays, though avoidable, might be too expensive to eliminate (Cost of constructing 2 RWY might well exceed the potential benefit of reducing delays 2x a day)
  3. Even with the most vigorous and successful effort, the random nature of delay means that there will always be aircraft encountering delay greater than an acceptable length of time this acceptable delay is essentially a policy decision about tolerability
538
Q

Airline Service Quality Performance (ASQP)

A
  • Contains historical delay information
  • The data is collected from airlines with 1% or more of the total, domestic, scheduled passenger revenue. Delay is represented by phase of flight (Gate hold, taxi out, airborne, taxi in). ASQP delays range from 0 > 15 minutes
539
Q

Gate Capacity

A

An aircraft parked at a gate isn’t generating revenue, while an aircraft waiting on the ramp for a gate incurs additional expenses. Can be affected by the gate type/size, gate mix and by gate occupancy time.

AIP grants can be issued for capacity enhancement projects but only if the airport certifies that all airport elements can handle the increase. (Terminal, landside access)

540
Q

Factor categories that lower capacity or induce delay:

A
  1. Airfield characteristics
  2. Airspace characteristics
  3. ATC
  4. Meteorological conditions
  5. Demand characteristics
541
Q

Airfield characteristics

A
  • RWY configuration and length
  • Distribution of arrivals and departures
  • Fleet mix
  • Share of touch n go operations
  • Location/type of exit taxiways
  • Type of navaids
  • Availability of radar coverage
  • weather conditions
542
Q

Traffic mgmt initiatives are used to limit the volume of traffic allowed into/out of an airport/airspace. The most common initiatives are:

A
  1. Mile-in-trail or minute-in-trail restrictions
  2. Traffic re-routes
  3. Ground delay programs
  4. Ground stops
543
Q

Mile/Minute-in-trail

A
  • Least disruptive
  • Intended to regulate the distance between successive aircraft
  • As aircraft approach a destination airport, approach controllers meter or otherwse regulate the arrival time of aircraft in the terminal area by limiting their # or by increasing the time between aircraft arrival/departure and/or en route separation
544
Q

Ground delay program

A
  • If arriving traffic is expected to approach capacity, ground delays are used to hold aircraft at departure airport
  • Primary tool for limiting aircraft
    • bad weather
    • anticipated limited RWY availability
545
Q

Ground stop

A
  • Used as a last resort because it holds aircraft on the ground for varying periods
  • Immediately reduces the # of aircraft allowed to enter the NAS
  • Inconvenience/expensive for travelling public
  • Usually used for unusual or unforseen situations such as RWY closures, aircraft accidents, or severe weather conditions
546
Q

Metering

A

Is designed to match the arrival of aircraft to the ability of the airport to handle the volume (known as acceptance rate). Adjusting an aircraft’s speed or modifying its arrival flight path generally accomplishes metering. Traffic re-routes may also be used to move traffic away from affected airspace or to direct traffic to areas of lesser demand. This is primarily used to avoid significant weather and/or move arrival/departure traffic to IAP or RWYs with more capacity

547
Q

Sequencing

A

Entails specifying the exact order in which aircraft are to take off or land. As aircraft arrive in the vicinity of an airport, they’re sequenced to a position from which an approach to land can be bade. Standards for wake vortex separation require that adequate spacing exist between aircraft. Spacing involves establishing and maintaining the appropriate interval between successive aircraft. Sequencing takes into account operational safety, uniformity of traffic flow, efficiency of RWY use and weather conditions

548
Q

ATC system command center (ATCSCC)

A
  • Located outside DC
  • Responsible for monitoring aircraft traffic across the nation for the purpose of alleviating congestion. A function referred to as central flow control. If weather is affecting the capacity at a major high density airport, the ATCSCC may require aircraft expecting a departure clearance at distant airports to wait on the ground until the system can accommodate the en-route portion of the flight
549
Q

Slot allocation

A

Airport or FAA to allocate/restrict airport access by setting quotas on passenger enplanements or on the # and type of aircraft operations permitted. A slot identifies a block of time allocated to an airport user to perform an aircraft operation, either a take off or landing.

Slots are controlled by the FAA, but can be bought, sold, leased, or transferred among airlines and are subject to limitations. Established a maximum limit on the hourly # of allocated IFR operations

550
Q

Where slots exist

A
  • ORD
  • JFK
  • LGA
  • DCA
551
Q

Slots were allocated according to 3 classes of users:

A
  • Scheduled air carriers
  • Scheduled commuters
  • Others
552
Q

Slot auctions allow:

A
  • Peak hour access only

- “use it or lose it” concept

553
Q

Economic demand mgmt

A

Attempts to create ways to internalize the cost of congestion in the price of airport access. 2 most commonly advocated methods of achieving this goal are differential pricing and the auctioning of slots

554
Q

Differential Pricing

A

Established by having peak hour surcharges, represents an attempt to manage demand by charging cost-based landing fees. A major problem with the concept of peak hour surcharges is how to determine their level. One possible method is to charge users the full marginal costs of the airport facilities. Another is to base the surcharges on the delay costs, which each peak hour user imposes on other users. The end result would be a fee system that increases as delay increases