Module 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe the key features of group 1 intron splicing

A

Self-splicing (in vitro, need proteins to fold the RNA into the catalytically active structure in vivo)

Requires an external guanosine cofactor to splice

Two transesterification reactions
Proteins required for splicing are encoded by the introns or other genes

RNA tertiary structure forms a molecular cradle that keeps everything together while this occurs

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2
Q

Describe the key features of group 2 intron splicing

A

Also self-splicing (in vitro, need proteins to fold the RNA into the catalytically active structure in vivo),

Requires a bulged A

Creates an intron lariat with a 2’-5’ phosphodiester bond between A and G

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3
Q

Describe the key features of archaeal intron splicing

A

Spliced by an endonuclease protein, removed by a cut-and-rejoin mechanism.

Requires ATP, an endoribonuclease, and a ligase.

Intron transcripts generate a bulge-helix-bulge motif at the exon-intron junction, which is recognized by the splicing endoribonuclease, which cuts within the three-nucleotide bulges at symmetric positions.

Exons are ligated by a specific ligase. Sometimes structural rearrangement occurs post-ligation

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4
Q

Describe the key features of nuclear tRNA intron splicing

A

Cleaved by endonuclease and then sealed by ligase.

There are 2 classes of nuclear tRNA genes, distinguished by either the presence or absence of an intron (in humans, only tyrosine and leucine charged tRNA contain introns).

Two main reactions in the splicing mechanism. 1) the intron-containing pre-tRNAs are cleaved by a tRNA splicing endoribonuclease at the 5’ and 3’ boundaries, freeing the paired tRNA halves. 2) the paired halves are joined by tRNA ligase in an ATP and GTP dependent reaction, which leaves a 2’-phosphate at the 3’-OH splice junction

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5
Q

Describe the key features of nuclear pre-mRNA intron splicing

A

Removed by the spliceosome during RNA processing, also has 2 transesterification reactions and an intron lariat.

Spliceosome has 5 uracil-rich snRNPs (U1, U2, U4, U5, U6).

Processing is coupled to transcription.

Splicing machinery is recruited cotranscriptionally by directly interacting with the RNA polymerase II CTD.

Basic two-step transesterification reactions are similar to group 2 introns, but pre-mRNA introns are not self-splicing and can’t fold themselves into the proper secondary and tertiary structures. They need the spliceosome, a protein-directed ribozyme, to generate the 3D structure necessary for splicing.

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6
Q

Describe the key features of the composition and function of the spliceosome.

A

The spliceosome is a large complex that removes introns during RNA processing. It consists of 5 uracil-rich snRNPs (U1, U2, U4, U5, U6) and about 150 proteins, that include those that make up the protein ring in the center and those that surround and support the catalytic active site. It is a protein directed ribozyme.

The spliceosome generates the 3D structure required for nuclear pre-mRNA splicing.

Aside from the spliceosome, the nuclear pre-mRNA splicing pathway looks identical to the group 2 intron splicing pathway (bulged adenosine, two transesterification reactions, 2’-5’ phosphodiester bond, lariat intron)

The spliceosome is a protein-directed ribozyme. Its protein components surround and support its catalytic RNA active site (active sites are the U2, U6, and U5 snRNA components).

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7
Q

Does mRNA polyadenylation occur before or after termination of transcription by RNA polymerase II?

A

After, when mRNA is released and cleaved

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8
Q

Why is it said that alternative splicing is a mechanism for generating protein diversity from a small set of genes?

A

It’s a way to make many different proteins from monocistronic genes. Prokaryotes + shine-dalgarno sequences + internally binding ribosomes versus eukaryotes + 5’-methylguanosine cap + non-internally binding ribosomes.

Alternative splicing provides a versatile means of regulating gene expression while contributing to protein diversity by expanding the proteome. Alternative splicing in the coding regions of DNA creates novel proteins, and alternative splicing in the untranslated regions allows for novel translational regulation, stability, and mRNA localization expressions (remember that mRNA from the UTRs is often involved in regulating transcription, providing stability, and mRNA localization, even though it’s not coded into a protein)

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9
Q

Describe the key features of RNA editing in trypanosomes

A

RNA editing discovered in mitochondrial RNA.

Adding Us can correct internal frameshifts, create start or stop codons, or create orfs.

Editing is controlled by gRNAs transcribed for by DNA.

The gRNAs are complementary to the mature mRNAs in the edited region. gRNAs provide specificity by complementary base pairing to the mature mRNA. E

diting occurs 3’ → 5’ and requires multiple gRNAs. Editosome catalyzes editing.

Remember that G can pair with U in RNA!

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10
Q

Describe the key features of RNA editing in longfin squid

A

ADAR2, A →I editing in which Inosine is read as Guanosine by the translation machinery so some codons are re-coded and some protein functions may change because of it.

Result is proteome diversification that allow squids to rapidly adapt to changes in their environment.

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11
Q

Describe the key features of RNA editing in ApoB RNA editing in humans

A

C → U editing. ApoB has a role in the assembly, transport, and metabolism of plasma lipoproteins.

Spliceosome removes the introns.

The editing complex confers specificity using the APOBEC1 complementation factor (ACF) subunit of the RNA-specific cytidine deaminase that carries out the recognition and catalysis of ApoB RNA editing. The ACF subunit is an RNA-binding protein and recognizes an 11-nucleotide “mooring sequence” just downstream of the edited C in the ApoB mRNA.

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12
Q

siRNA

A

One of the two major classes of RNAi. siRNAs trigger the formation of RISC.

These guys are auto-silencing, meaning that they silence the same or similar locus to that which they originated from.

They are found in viruses, TEs, heterochromatin, exogenous genes or dsDNA inserted into the gene by a scientist.

Defence of the genome.

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13
Q

miRNA

A

One of the two major classes of RNAi.

miRNAs are short RNA molecules that fold into a hairpin to create a dsRNA that then triggers the RNAi machinery. They regulate the expression of most protein-coding genes.

These guys are hetero-silencing, meaning that they are derived from unique genes and specify the silencing of very different ones.

They are processed from gene transcripts that form hairpin structures, and are often found located within the introns of protein-coding mRNA.

They are part of post transcriptional gene regulation as they target mRNAs for degradation.

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14
Q

Describe the base-pairing interactions that occur in translation

A

tRNAs add different bases to the mRNA strand in the ribosome.

The tRNAs carry the amino acid building blocks and assemble the protein by base pairing with the appropriate mRNA codon in the ribosome. The mRNA codes for the protein produced.

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15
Q

Describe the base-pairing interactions that occur in RNAi

A

dsRNAs, either siRNA or miRNA, interacts with the mRNA.

Sequence-specific gene silencing. Argonaute binds to one strand of the dsDNA and then uses it to find the complementary sequence on the mRNA, which is degraded.

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16
Q

Describe the base-pairing interactions that occur in RNA editing in trypanosomes

A

gRNA confers binding specificity by complementary base pairing with the mature mRNA in the editing region, this allows the RNA editing (insertion or deletion of Us) to occur

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17
Q

Describe the role of rRNA in protein synthesis

A

Forms a catalytic center, decoding site, A, P, and E sites, and the intersubunit interface. Put simply, it is the ribosome, and it holds everything together.

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18
Q

Describe the role of tRNA in protein synthesis

A

Works with the ribosome; pairs with complementary codons and delivers the next amino acid to the growing polypeptide chain.

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19
Q

Describe the role of mRNA in protein synthesis

A

Carries the genetic information required to create the proteins from the DNA in the nucleus to the ribosome. Has codons that pair with tRNA to translate code into amino acids.

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20
Q

What is an example of an RNA-protein interaction that influences the catalytic activity of a ribozyme?

A

Remember that ribozymes are RNA enzymes that self cleave, meaning they can act only once, unlike regular enzymes which can be recycled ad nauseu.

Spliceosomes are protein-directed ribozymes. Its protein components surround and support its catalytic RNA active sites (active sites are the U2, U6, and U5 snRNA components)

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21
Q

What effect does phosphorylation have on the function of eukaryotic initiation factor 2 (eIF2)?

A

Phosphorylation (remember that kinases phosphorylate) of elF2 blocks ternary complex formation, preventing translation.

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22
Q

What is “knockdown”?

A

Knockdown experimentation is used to study the effects of cis-regulatory elements, such as the promoter region or other upstream regulatory sequences, to see if their modification changes expression levels or inactivates the real target gene.nThe knockdown targeting sequence disrupts endogenous upstream regulatory elements while keeping the endogenous coding region intact. The target gene is never touched in knockdown experimentation, only the regulatory elements around it.

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23
Q

What are “knockouts”?

A

Mrs. Ritchie

Fr tho, they’re when a protein-coding gene (not a promoter or regulatory sequence) is removed or inactivated, halting all protein expression.

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24
Q

Distinguish between the terms “knockdown” and “knockout” with respect to analyzing gene function.

A

Knockdown reduces gene expression, while knockout turns the gene off completely.

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25
Q

Describe the key steps in transgenic technology

A

Pronuclear injection to insert a transgene into a fertilized egg. Integration into the fertilized egg’s genome is random.

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26
Q

Describe the key steps in gene targeting

A

Homologous recombination of targeting vector in embryo-derived stem cells is selected for, and then injected into a blastocyst-stage embryo. Disrupts or mutates the targeted gene, which can be used to knockin or knockout a gene.

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27
Q

Describe the key steps in gene editing

A

Precise editing of the targeted genome using CRISPR-Cas9

CRISPR-Cas system is used to precisely edit any cell type.

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28
Q

Describe the key steps in cloning by nuclear transfer

A

A genetically-identical organism created by nuclear transfer from the adult somatic cells to an egg

Method is to transfer the entire nucleus from the donor into an eunucleated, unfertilized egg. This creates (mostly) genetically identical individuals.

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29
Q

Does a cloned organism and its clone have identical nuclear DNA profiles?

A

Yes. All nuclear DNA in the cell comes from the donor, and all the egg’s chromosomes are removed from the egg during metaphase.

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30
Q

Does a cloned organism and its clone have identical mitochondrial DNA profiles?

A

No. Half of the mitochondrial DNA would come from the original Smarty, and the other half from the egg. This is because we leave the mitochondrial DNA in the egg.

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31
Q

Describe the underlying principles for DNA typing (DNA profiling/DNA fingerprinting) using short tandem repeat (STR) analysis and multiplex PCR.

A

Analyze polymorphic markers, which are unique biological identifiers that follow simple Mendelian patterns of inheritance, to match an individual with their DNA. Everyone inherits two of each STR one from the egg and the other from the sperm.

The basis of DNA typing is analysis of polymorphisms. The goal is to calculate a probability that only one person could have the same profile of markers. A variety of analytic techniques are used for this, including minisatellite analysis, PCR-based analysis, STR analysis, mtDNA analysis, Y chromosome analysis, and random amplification of polymorphic DNA (RAPD) analysis.

Only about 0.1% of the human genome differs from one person to another. The majority of the human genome represents intergenic DNA, regions that aren’t controlled by selection pressures, where mutations are usually maintained and transmitted from generation to generation.

Short tandem repeats (STRs) are variable regions that forensic geneticists like to use because they can generate the profile of the individual without giving information about the individual’s phenotypic traits.

STR analysis provides higher discriminating power than minisatellite analysis while requiring a smaller DNA sample size. STRs are widely distributed throughout the human genome. STR analysis is usually combined with a multiplex PCR reaction (multiplex PCR enables simultaneous amplification of many targets of interest in one reaction by using more than one pair of primers). The preferred technique for separating the STR loci is multichannel capillary electrophoresis, however regular gel electrophoresis can be used as well.

For multiplex PCR analysis of STRs, one primer in each pair is labeled with a different-colored fluorescent tag. The PCR amplification products are then mixed with labeled internal lane standards and detected using an automated sequencer. Different STR loci and alleles are separate by size based on their migration rate in the sequencer gel matrix and detected by color after laser-induced excitation of the fluorescent dyes

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32
Q

Cancer

A

The accumulation of genetic mutations (8-15) that lead to unregulated cell growth and division.

33
Q

Driver mutation

A

The mutation that leads to tumor growth. There can be other mutations, but the driver is the one that sets off the cancer.

34
Q

Oncogene

A

Genes whose products have the ability to induce malignant transformation of eukaryotic cells

35
Q

Proto-oncogene

A

Genes that will become oncogenes if they are mutated

36
Q

Tumor suppressor genes

A

Genes that inhibit cell growth, and cause cancer if they’re not expressed

37
Q

What is retinoblastoma protein?

A

It’s the master switch of the cell cycle

38
Q

Describe Knudson’s two-hit hypothesis

A

Speculates that two independent mutations (“hits”) cause the loss of function of both alleles leading to cancer. If the loss of a single allele is inherited, the individual is said to have a genetic predisposition for cancer.

39
Q

p53

A

The guardian of the genome. In a healthy cell, relatively little is expressed, but expression can be triggered by stress (eg sun exposure) and suppress tumors through apoptosis. If p53 is a homotetramer, it is expressed correctly, but if it is a heterotetramer, it leads to unrestrained cell growth and cancer.

40
Q

A friend of yours tells you (as they light up) that they have heard that benzo(A)pyrene in cigarette smoke is not really a carcinogen. Set them straight.

A

Benzo(a)pyrene isn’t a carcinogen itself, but when it is consumed and metabolized, it becomes a bulky DNA adduct that is resistant to NER, and then undergoes translesion synthesis and G →T transversion that damages the genome. These mutations can occur in p53, and then it’s game over.

41
Q

After SNP analysis of a region of the Apolipoprotein E gene, you determine that a patient carries the apoE4 allele. This allele is linked with Alzheimer’s disease. Counsel the patient regarding their prognosis.

A

You have a greater chance of developing Alzheimer’s. This isn’t a guarantee that you will get it; it’s just an increased risk. Live a healthy life, take care of yourself, and eat lots of blueberries.

42
Q

In a study that involved 100 college students, you find a polymorphism in a gene for a neurotransmitter receptor. The “long allele” is linked with reckless behavior. What conclusions, if any, can you draw about the results of this study? Should you hold a press conference to announce the discovery of the “reckless” gene?

A

This study was done on a relatively small and specific group of people. Before bragging about your findings, more research on a wider range of demographics is required. All you can conclude is that among college students, this allele was found to be linked to reckless behavior.

43
Q

The percentage of similarity between the nucleotides of two individuals is…

A

99.9%

44
Q

Approximately 60% of the human genome is composed of…

A

Intergenic DNA

45
Q

What type of analysis is currently the most widely used DNA typing procedure in forensic genetics?

A

STR analysis

46
Q

Polymorphic markers are…

A

Unique biological identifiers for each person that have simple Mendelian patterns of inheritance

47
Q

DNA typing can be used in the following applications:

A

To establish parentage, to exonerate those wrongly accused of crimes, and to determine if a clone is genetically identical to the donor nucleus

48
Q

The power of DNA evidence lies in statistics. For example, when 15 STRs are used, the probability is that:

A

only one person in a quintillion could have the same profile of markers.

49
Q

“Touch DNA” is also known as

A

Secondary transfer DNA

50
Q

Multiplex PCR is…

A

The simultaneous amplification of many STR loci in one reaction tube by using more than one pair of primers.

51
Q

If there are two peaks at a particular locus on an electropherogram, this indicates that___

A

The individual inherited a different marker from each parent at this locus

52
Q

What keeps the 5’ exon from “floating away” after the first transesterification?

A

The molecular cradle. The RNA tertiary structure folds into a molecule cradle which holds everything together, in addition to being the catalyst, for group 1 and 2 intron splicing

53
Q

How does archaeal intron splicing differ from Group 1 and 2 splicing?

A

Archaeal splicing pathway is completely different from spliceosomal introns

Spliced by an endonuclease protein

Archaeal introns are enzymatically removed by a cut-and-rejoin mechanism. This mechanism requires ATP, an endoribonuclease, and a ligase
Archaeal intron transcripts generate a bulge-helix-bulge motif at the exon-intron junction, which is recognized by the splicing endoribonuclease, which cuts within the three-nucleotide bulges at symmetric positions

Exons are ligated by a specific ligase. Sometimes structural rearrangement occurs post-ligation

54
Q

How is the poly A tail added to the mRNA transcript?

A

After cleavage and release of mRNA, the 3’ end is polyadenylated by the enzyme poly(A) polymerase, which adds adenosine 5’-monophosphates to the 3’ end

The poly(A) tail enhances stability and translation efficiency
poly(A) tails are coated with sequence-specific poly(A)-binding proteins. In the nucleus the tail is coated with PABPN1 and in the cytoplasm the tail is coated with PABPC.

PABPN1 increases the processivity of poly(A) polymerase and defines the
length of the newly synthesized tail

PABPC initiates translation and regulates mRNA decay

Histone mRNAs have a conserved stem-loop structure instead of a poly(A) tail

55
Q

What are the results of uridine insertions and/or deletions in a mitochondrial RNA transcript?

A

Adding Us can correct internal frameshifts, create start and stop codons, and create open reading frames.

U insertions and deletions are mediated by guide RNAs (gRNA), which are transcribed from the gRNA gene in the DNA. Many gRNAs are required to edit each pre-mRNA transcript, and the gRNAs confer specificity by complementary base pairing with the mature mRNA. The editing is catalyzed by the editosome.

56
Q

Did the discovery of RNA editing jeopardize the central dogma of biology? Why or why not?

A

No. The finding that nearly half of the sequence information in an mRNA was not present in the gene encoding it was difficult to rationalize at first, but once the mechanism for RNA editing was discovered in trypanosome mitochondrial DNA, the central dogma of biology was no longer in question.

RNA editing is the post-transcriptional modification of an mRNA transcript’s base sequence. It changes gene-specific codons, thus changing protein structure and function. The U insertions and deletions are mediated by gRNAs, which are transcribed gRNA genes in the kinetoplast “minicircle” DNA (note that this DNA is not found in the nucleus!)

The RNA editing mechanism found in the trypanosome mtDNA → guide RNA is used to alter the nucleotide sequence of the pre-mRNA

57
Q

Describe ApoB editing in humans

A

Apolipoprotein B (ApoB) is a plasma protein that plays a key role in the assembly, transport,, and metabolism of plasma lipoproteins. There are two forms of ApoB that circulate in the plasma, long form ApoB-100, which is liver specific, and short form ApoB-48, which is small intestine specific. These two proteins are produced from the same gene, but generated by RNA editing.

The ApoB pre-mRNA transcript undergo splicing, polyadenylation, and editing in the nucleus. ApoB-100 is produced from unedited ApoB pre-mRNA transcripts. ApoB-48 is produced from a C→U transition that creates a premature stop codon, truncating the protein.

58
Q

Though there are 375 CAA triplets in the ApoB gene, of which 100 are in-frame glutamine codons, the editing complex is able to confer almost absolute specificity at the correct CAA. How is this possible?

A

The editing complex confers specificity using the APOBEC1 complementation factor (ACF) subunit of the RNA-specific cytidine deaminase that carries out the recognition and catalysis of ApoB RNA editing. The ACF subunit is an RNA-binding protein and recognizes an 11-nucleotide “mooring sequence” just downstream of the edited C in the ApoB mRNA.

59
Q

What does it mean when we say that there’s RNA turnover in the nucleus and cytoplasm?

A

RNA turnover is a critical part of maintaining steady-state RNA levels. It’s a quality control mechanism.

Some mRNAs are stored in the cytoplasm, but most are immediately translated and later degraded.

Once in the cytoplasm, the mRNA might be held in a translationally silent state, it might be translated and then degraded, or it might be rapidly degraded via nonsense-mediated mRNA decay if it contains a premature termination codon.

60
Q

Which component of the ribosome has catalytic activity?

A

The P site had peptidyl transferase activity, catalyzing the formation of peptide bonds.

61
Q

How can you analyze transgene expression?

A

Transgenic technology is the insertion of transferred genetic material (the transgene) into an organism at a random site, using pronuclear injection.

mRNA levels (i.e. transcription) can be analyzed using reverse-transcription PCR

Protein levels (i.e. translation) can be analyzed using western blots

Changes in morphology can be observed directly

Expression of reporter genes, like a fluorescent one, can be observed directly

62
Q

In using CRISPR to gene edit a eukaryotic cell, what repair pathway is used for the insertion of donor DNA? Is it error prone?

A

Both the non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) and homology directed repair (HDR) pathways can be used, as Cas9 generates a double stranded break, which can activate either repair pathway. NHEJ is much more error prone than HDR, as it has a tendency to induce insertion or deletion mutations. Instead researchers are focused on promoting HDR to prevent these mutations.

63
Q

In cloning by nuclear transfer, is the clone genetically identical to the donor?

A

Mostly. All of the clone’s nuclear DNA would come from the donor, as the egg’s chromosomes are removed during metaphase. However, only half of the clone’s mtDNA would come from the donor. The other half would be from the egg. This happens because we leave the mtDNA inside the egg when we transfer the nucleus into the egg, we don’t remove it.

64
Q

The splicing of most exons is…

A

Constitutive

However, the splicing of some exons is regulated by splicing regulator proteins, where the exons are either included or excluded from the mature mRNA. This is a mechanism for generating protein diversity from a relatively small set of genes

65
Q

What is translation fidelity dependent on?

A

Codon-anticodon recognition and aminoacyl-tRNA synthesis

66
Q

Dicer

A

A specialized cytoplasmic ribonuclease.

It processes longer dsRNAs into short ds siRNAs. It associates with a partner protein, binds to 3’ overhang present at the base of the pre-mRNA hairpin, and liberates a 22 bp RNA duplex with 3’ overhangs of two nucleotides. A single duplex is generated from each hairpin precursor.

67
Q

Slicer

A

Part of the RISC complex, cleaves the mRNA at the site where the guide strand siRNA is bound.

68
Q

RISC

A

RNA induced silencing complex. The argonaut unit has slicer activity. Thought to be an ancient, highly conserved viral defense mechanism (because some viruses use dsRNA genomes)

69
Q

What is an example of an RNA-protein interaction that influences the catalytic activity of a protein enzyme?

A

siRNA and miRNA interacting with RISC in RNAi

The catalytic core of the RISC complex is an Argonaute protein. When associated with a siRNA or miRNA that is fully complementary to the target RNA, RISC cleaves the RNA at that discrete position.

70
Q

A team of molecular biologists want to completely get rid of the expression of a particular gene in the cells they are working with in the lab. They tell you that they are designing a strategy using RNAi. Suggest a technique that could be more successful and explain your rationale.

A

I would use gene editing since CRISPR is precise, but gene targeting would also work to knockout a gene. RNAi knockdowns expression, but it doesn’t knockout expression. Since CRISPR knocks out expression, it’s more efficient and is more likely to be successful long-term.

71
Q

Explain the term “random walk” in the context of restriction endonucleases

A

This is how restriction endonuclease moves along the DNA. Linear diffusion, motion is stochastic, random. Equal probabilities for forward and reverse steps. Binding is nonspecific.

72
Q

Explain the term “jumping” in the context of restriction endonucleases

A

sliding over short distances of 30-50 bp between nonspecific binding sites and recognition sites. Involves helical movement from tracking along a groove of the DNA over short distances. This is the main mode of translocation over long distances. The restriction endonuclease moves between binding sites by dissociating from its initial site before reassociating elsewhere in the same DNA chain.

73
Q

Explain the term “induced fit” in the context of restriction endonucleases

A

coupling and catalysis in order to cut DNA. This is the recognition process that triggers large conformational changes of the enzyme and DNA, leading to the activation of the catalytic center

74
Q

Describe the principles underlying use of PCR-RFLP as a diagnostic test for a genetic disease.

A

ID SNPs by their length after digestion by a restriction endonuclease.
RFLPs are visualized by digesting DNA from different individuals with restriction endonucleases, followed by gel electrophoresis to separate the fragments by size, then using southern blotting and hybridization to a labeled probe to identify the target locus.
RFLP+PCR analysis is used as a diagnostic test for maple syrup urine disease (mutation of the protein-metabolism pathway, causes a buildup of keto acids in urine which makes it smell like syrup, also interferes w/ brain function. This kills infants within 2-3 weeks after birth if untreated??!?). A mismatch PCR-RFLP assay identifies the Y393N allele, which is the allele with a single nucleotide change resulting in the disease. This test is vital since it provides rapid turnaround times (8 hours max)
In the analysis, DNA samples are amplified by PCR using primers specific for the diseased allele site, After digestion with restriction endonucleases, the samples are visualized and stained in a gel electrophoresis.

75
Q

You are designing a somatic cell gene therapy protocol for ADA-SCID, a genetic disorder that is caused by a defect in adenosine deaminase. You have cloned the ADA cDNA. Name the minimal DNA regulatory element you would need to link to the ADA cDNA to get transcription of the cDNA in cells.

A

ADA cDNA is introduced into the target T lymphocytes by retroviral-mediated gene transfer.

Psi is required for the inclusion of RNA in a viral particle.

76
Q

Describe specific examples of how gene editing could be used or is being used to correct disease-associated mutations in humans.

A

CRISPR is being used to treat sickle cell anemia.

ADA-SCID (ADA is an essential enzyme for adenine and guanine metabolism. Also T lymphocytes are destroyed in the absence of ADA, predisposing patients to recurring and persistent infections. ADA-SCID is a severe x-chromosome linked form of of the ADA disease)

Traditional treatment for ADA-SCID is bone marrow transplants and weekly ADA injections An ex vivo gene therapy has been used in which ADA cDNA is introduced into T lymphocytes by retroviral-mediated gene transfer. These gene-corrected T lymphocytes are then infused back into the patients. For the majority of patients, this gene therapy treatment, when combined with the weekly ADA injections, is enough to live a long and healthy life.

77
Q

What are the function of cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)?

A

CDKs regulate the replication licensing system and progression through each phase of the cell cycle.

G1 → low
S → high
G2 → low
M → high

78
Q

Retinoblastoma protein (pRB) is the cell-cycle master switch. What happens when pRB is absent?

A

One of pBR’s normal functions is preventing the cell from entering S phase (the phase in which the cell is replicated)

If pRB is absent, the E2F complex will continue to stimulate S phase specific genes, resulting in unrestrained cell growth

79
Q
A