Module 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

How does bacterial RNA polymerase find promoters amid vast amounts of chromosomal DNA? What is the role of sigma factor in this process?

A

RNAP “explores” and “searches” the genome for promoter sequences. It spends most of its time bound to DNA nonspecifically, and moves in undirected random motion. Stochastic model.

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2
Q

Which DNA strand is part of the DNA-RNA hybrid in the RNA polymerase open complex, the template or nontemplate strand?

A

The template (antisense) strand.

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3
Q

Explain in general terms how alternative sigma factors can coordinate the expression of multiple bacterial genes or operons.

A

Alternative sigma factors recognize different promoter sequences. Each sigma factor recognizes a unique -10 and -35 promoter sequence combination. In the cases of regulons, a series of genes controlled by the same promoter sequence, a singular alternative sigma factor controls the expression of all the genes in the regulon.

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4
Q

How do enhancers and super-enhancers interact with promoters spaced 700-1000 bp away?

A

Transvection hubs
Interactions between enhancers, polymerases, the promoter, insulators, and transcription factors form a transvection “hub.”
Brings the enhancer closer to the promoter, allows the transcription factors to interact with both regions and increase transcriptional activity.

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5
Q

Structure and function of the helix-turn-helix DNA binding motif

A

Three core alpha helices, the third helix binds directly to the DNA’s major groove

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6
Q

Structure and function of the helix-loop-helix DNA binding motif

A

Two alpha helices separated by a non-helical loop, doesn’t directly contact the DNA, instead facilitates dimerization of two similar TFs

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7
Q

Structure and function of the basic leucine zipper DNA binding motif

A

Stretch of amino acids that fold into a long alpha helix, Y-shaped structure. Zipper doesn’t directly contact the DNA, instead facilitates dimerization of two similar TFs

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8
Q

Structure and function of zinc finger DNA binding domain motif

A

Alpha helices make up the fingers, amino acids between the fingers confer specificity of binding. Alpha helix in the fingers directly contacts the DNA

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9
Q

Which of the four DNA binding motifs directly contact the DNA?

A

Helix-turn-helix and zinc finger

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10
Q

Which of the four DNA binding motifs do NOT directly contact the DNA?

A

Helix-loop-helix and basic leucine zipper (instead they both facilitate dimerization of two similar TFs)

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11
Q

Electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA)

A

Used to study protein-DNA interactions in vitro

Protein-DNA complexes have “shifted mobility”, aka they migrate more slowly, in an electrophoretic field than they do in unbound DNA

Tells us whether a protein binds to a specific fragment of DNA

Does NOT tell us the exact nucleotide sequence with which the protein interacts

Type of gel electrophoresis

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12
Q

ChIP-seq

A

Used to study protein-DNA interactions in vivo

Proteins are fixed to DNA using either formaldehyde or UV light treatments. The DNA is then sheared into small fragments. The fragments are then incubated with specific primary antibodies to the protein of interest. Incubation steps, yada yada..

If a DNA fragment binds to the protein of interest, it will be recovered in the immunoprecipitate pellet. Any unbound DNA will remain in the supernatant after centrifugation

The DNA is then sequenced

Tells us what DNA sequence a protein of interest will bind to

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13
Q

Enhanceosome model for transcription complex assembly

A

Proposes that interactions among transcription factors promote their cooperative, stepwise assembly on the DNA and give the complex exceptional stability.

Transcription is regulated by the extensive protein-protein and protein-DNA interactions, and by the context (3D space) in which the elements are organized.

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14
Q

Hit-and-run model for transcription complex assembly

A

Transcriptional activation reflects the probability that all components required for activation will meet at a certain chromatin site (the hit), transcription complex are assembled in a stochastic fashion from freely diffusible proteins

All the binding in the mess that makes up the “hit” is transient (the run)

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15
Q

What technique has provided evidence for dynamic movement of transcription factors in the nucleus?

A

FRAP experiments have shown that most nuclear proteins are highly mobile and the interaction of proteins with chromatin and nuclear compartments is highly dynamic. They’ve shown that many of these interactions are quite transient, binding in cycles sometimes as fast as a few seconds. These results lend more towards the hit-and-run model, however the principles of combinatorial interactions and complex stability proposed in the enhanceosome model still apply, even if only for a few seconds.

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16
Q

Definition of epigenetics

A

Outside of/in addition to genetics

The study of heritable changes in gene expression that occur without a change in the primary DNA sequence of an organism.

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17
Q

Definition of epigenome

A

The broad array of chemical “marks,” including DNA modifications and post-translational modifications to the histone proteins, that decorate an individual’s genome.

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18
Q

What base in DNA is often methylated in humans?

A

Cytosine is the most commonly methylated base found in human genomes.

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19
Q

Discuss the role of long noncoding RNAs in X-chromosome inactivation.

A

X chromosome inactivation is initiated by XIST, a 17kb long noncoding RNA that’s transcribed from a gene located in the X inactivation center.

XIST’s expression is regulated by a series of RNA switches.

XIST is expressed at low levels from both chromosomes before inactivation. When is X inactivation is initiated during differentiation, XIST transcript levels are upregulated from the chromosome that will become the inactive X, while Tsix (a repressor antisense transcript) expression is downregulated

XIST then spreads along the entire length of the X chromosome to be inactivated

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20
Q

Explain to a friend of yours the genetics of coat color in their calico cat.

A

Coat markings of calico cats are the result of random events during development.

Two alleles affecting coat color are present on the X chromosome, one allele for orange, the other for black. If a female cat is heterozygous for the orange and black alleles, she will have a calico/mosaic coat of orange and black patches.

These patches result from the natural process of X chromosome inactivation that occurs randomly in developing embryos.
In cell lineages, the x chromosome with the orange allele is inactivated, resulting in a patch of black fur, and in others the chromosome with the black allele is inactivated, resulting in a patch of orange fur.

Any white patches of fur are due to an autosomal gene for white spotting, which prevents pigment formation in the cell lineages where it is expressed.

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21
Q

General rule for methylation

A

Methylation inactivates genes.

Genes with lots of CG methylation are inactive, genes with less CG methylation are active.

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22
Q

CpG islands

A

CpG islands occur near the 5’ end of genes. They are small regions of CG-rich DNA that are protected from methylation (unmethylated).

Often associated with the promoters of housekeeping genes.

Because CpG islands are protected from methylation, they are also protected from spontaneous deamination

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23
Q

Evidence for cytosine methylation being a host defense mechanism

A

Because methylated cytosines are more susceptible to C→T deamination than regular cytosine, they aid in the mutation and inactivation of transposable elements, and may also contribute to epigenetic silencing of transposable element transcriptional activity and transposition

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24
Q

Definition of genomic imprinting

A

Non-random expression of only one of the two alleles inherited from each parent, determined by inherited epigenetic imprints from parental germ cells. This is an exception to the general rule of random selection of the active and inactive alleles, and affects only a small subset of genes.

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25
Q

Describe three general mechanisms for regulating genomic imprinting.

A
  1. Altered chromatin structure in the gene promoter
    (DNA methylation occurs and repressive chromatin structures form within one allele’s promoter region, silencing that allele)
  2. Differential expression of an antisense RNA transcript (Indirect mechanism. The imprinting control region (ICR) contains the promoter on a non-protein coding gene. On the chromosome where this ICR is unmethylated, the gene is expressed and produces an antisense RNA. This antisense RNA then silences the protein-coding imprinted gene on the same chromosome, while at the same time the methylation of the ICR on the other chromosome ensure that the antisense RNA is not expressed, allowing that other allele to be activated)
  3. Blocking of an enhancer by an insulator (The ability of shared enhancers (enhancers that control more than one gene) to activate imprinted genes is determined by an insulator present on the unmethylated allele between the genes the enhancer controls)
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26
Q

What are the requirements for gene transcription in bacteria?

A

The requirements for gene transcription in bacteria are minimal. Only a gene promoter and RNAP are required. However, to regulate transcription, other additional factors are required.

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27
Q

Does RNAP require a primer to get started like DNAP?

A

No. RNAP can start synthesis de novo.

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28
Q

How does RNAP identify promoter sequences within the vast amounts of chromosomal DNA?

A

RNAP “explores” and “searches” the genome for promoter sequences. It spends most of its time bound to DNA nonspecifically, and moves in undirected random motion. Stochastic model.

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29
Q

Mobile RNAPs can the whole nucleoid while “searching” for promoters. Is this motion directed or random?

A

Random

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30
Q

What does it mean when we say that RNAP is shaped like a crab claw?

A

The 𝛃 and 𝛃’ subunits form structures that look like the pincers of a crab. Additionally, binding of the sigma factor to the core enzyme results in the closing of the pincers and a change in shape of the holoenzyme’s internal channel where transcription takes place. The pincer’s closure contributes to the highly processive nature of the enzyme during transcription elongation.

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31
Q

What other protein does CAP associate with to bind the core RNAP to the promoter?

A

cAMP

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32
Q

How do coactivators and corepressors differ from transcription factors?

A

Coactivators and corepressors, unlike transcription factors, don’t directly bind to DNA.

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33
Q

Where on histones do post-translational modifications occur?

A

On the N-terminal tails of histones H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 in the histone core octamer.

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34
Q

Does HAT repress or activate gene activity? Why?

A

HAT activates gene activity. HAT attaches negatively charged acetyl groups to histone tail lysine residues, thereby removing the lysine’s positive charge. This decreases the histone tail’s affinity for the DNA, leading to loosened chromatin and increased gene expression.

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35
Q

Does HDAC repress or activate gene activity? Why?

A

HDAC represses gene activity. HDAC removes negatively charged acetyl groups from histone tail lysine residues, thereby making the histone more positively charged and increasing the histone’s affinity for the DNA, leading to more condensed chromatin and decreased gene expression.

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36
Q

Does phosphorylation of core octamer histone H3 or linker histone H1 repress or activate gene activity? Why?

A

Phosphorylation of linker histone H1 either removes H1 from the DNA or makes it bind less tightly to the DNA, we’re not sure which yet. But either way, it results in chromatin loosening and gene activation.

Phosphorylation of histone H3 is associated with gene activation.

37
Q

What changes in chromatin structure can ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling complexes mediate?

A

Nucleosome sliding → changes in the position of a nucleosome on the DNA

Nucleosome remodeling → makes DNA more accessible while maintaining bound histones

Nucleosome displacement → complete dissociation of histones from the DNA

Nucleosome replacement → replacing one core histone with a variant histone

38
Q

Which family of ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling complexes mediates each of the four types of chromatin structural changes?

A

ISWI family mediates nucleosome sliding

SWI/SNF family mediates nucleosome remodeling and nucleosome displacement

SWR1 family mediates nucleosome replacement

39
Q

Describe the order of transcription complex assembly. What comes first, HAT, SWI/SNF, or TFs?

A

There’s no general rule for the order in which the various proteins that regulate gene transcription are recruited. Instead, the order of events is gene-specific.
Some cases are as such:

Activator protein bound to a long distance reg. element → SWI-SNF → HAT → gTFs → RNAP II

Preinitiation complex is assembled on a promoter gene → recruitment of chromatin remodeling complexes

40
Q

In bacteria, such as E. coli, if RNA polymerase is missing ________, then transcription initiation would not occur at the appropriate site.

A

Sigma

41
Q

In the process of transcription, ____________.

A

RNA is synthesized

42
Q

In which direction does RNA polymerase move (read) while synthesizing RNA?

A

3’ –> 5’ along the template DNA strand

43
Q

Super-resolution microscopy has been used to visualize how the RNA polymerase holoenzyme finds promoters in the vast amount of bacterial chromosomal DNA. Super-resolution microscopy is a type of:

A

Fluorescence microscopy

44
Q

In Rho-dependent termination…

A

Rho is prevented from loading on the mRNA until the end of the gene, and then it begins “chasing” RNA polymerase. When it catches up, the polymerase pauses and releases the RNA transcript.

45
Q

In the closed promoter complex, is the DNA helix ds or ss (would or unwound)? What about the open promoter complex?

A

In the RNA polymerase closed promoter complex, the DNA is double-stranded. In the open promoter complex, the double helix is unwound.

46
Q

If you wanted to use fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) to detect the expression of a particular mRNA in a eukaryotic cell, which strand of the gene would you use to make a labeled probe to hybridize with the mRNA?

A

Anti-sense strand

47
Q

The structure of bacterial RNA polymerase has been described as a______

A

Crab claw

48
Q

Listeria monocytogenes is an important food-borne pathogen that is tolerant to many of the stresses commonly used during food preservation. Outside the host, the bacterium has a lifestyle that includes periodic exposure to solar irradiance. The blue component of this light is thought to influence the activity of the stress-inducible sigma factor Sigma B (σB). The stress-inducible sigma factor Sigma B (σB) is an example of:

A

An alternative sigma factor

49
Q

Which of the following is an example of a general transcription factor: SWI/SNF, HAT, TBP, or FACT?

A

TBP (TATA-binding protein)

50
Q

A researcher found a method they could use to manipulate and quantify histone modifications in embryonic cells in culture. In one set of experiments, they succeeded in increasing acetylation of histone tails. Which of the following results would they most likely see?

A

Decreased chromatin condensation

51
Q

Analysis of a novel variant in a patient with GCPS revealed that the mutation resides in the fifth zinc finger motif of the GLI3 protein, and that α-helix formation capacity was slightly altered. A mutation in this zinc finger motif is likely to directly affect which function of GLI3?

A

DNA binding

52
Q

Proper nuclear localization is crucial for GLI3 transcriptional activity. How does GLI3 enter the nucleus?

A

Through a nuclear pore complex

53
Q

In its activator form GLI3 interacts with an enhancer located ~1000 nucleotides upstream from the promoter region in one of its target genes, the FGF (fibroblast growth factor) gene. Which of the following statements about an enhancer is correct?

A

An enhancer is associated with a protein during transcription initiation

54
Q

The graph shows results of a GLI3- dependent luciferase assay in HEK293 cells (immortalized human embryonic kidney cells). Control—reporter activity in HEK293 cells without GLI3; WT-GLI3—reporter activity in cells with wild-type GLI3; c.1862C>T—reporter activity in cells with mutated GLI3. The researchers measured relative luciferase activity in the HEK293 cells. This strategy was used because:

A

Luciferase is a commonly used reporter gene for transcriptional activity.

55
Q

GLI3 interacts with SUFU, a negative regulator of Hedgehog signaling, and this interaction regulates the formation of either repressor or activator forms of GLI3. The complex of GLI3 and SUFU can be described as a_______.

A

Heterodimer

56
Q

Lysine demethylase 1 (LSD1) has emerged as a promising cancer therapeutic target. LSD1 is overexpressed in many human cancers including lung, breast, prostate, and blood cancers. The function of LSD1 is to ______.

A

Remove a methyl group from the N-terminal tails of histones.

57
Q

True or false: Approximately 200 mammalian genes are subject to imprinting.

A

True

58
Q

What epigenetic change could lead to reactivation of a transposable element?

A

Global loss of methylation (hypomethylation)

59
Q

You discover a transposable element that can move from place to place in the genome by a “cut and paste” mechanism. What type of transposable element is it likely to be?

A

A DNA transposon

60
Q

Human L1 and Alu are examples of:

A

LINEs and SINEs

61
Q

True or false: transposable elements are always found in all members of a species.

A

False

62
Q

Definition of intergenerational epigenetic inheritance

A

The transfer of epigenetic marks from the gametes to the embryo for one generation

63
Q

Which type of transposable element uses an RNA intermediate during transposition?

A

A retrotransposon

64
Q

Differential expression of a long noncoding RNA, blocking of an enhancer by an insulator, and altered chromatin structure in a gene promoter are three general mechanisms for regulating genomic imprinting. What do all three have in common?

A

Differential methylation of an imprinting control region (ICR)

65
Q

Within the bacterial nucleoid, where are highly transcribed genes typically located?

A

On the periphery of the nucleoid

66
Q

For bacterial operons give specific examples of the following general principles of gene regulation: the repressor and activators are DNA-binding proteins that undergo allosteric modification

A

Arginine operon repressor protein (corepressor arginine)

LacI repressor protein (coactivator allolactose)

Maltose utilization operon (coactivator maltose)

67
Q

For bacterial operons give specific examples of the following general principles of gene regulation: cooperative binding of proteins to DNA

A

Multiprotein RNAP complex

CAP and cAMP, though I don’t see it but whatevs

68
Q

How is cooperative binding different from allosteric modification?

A

Cooperative binding occurs when there’s more than one active site being used. It describes the formation of larger molecular structures, macromolecule folding.

Allosteric binding is when one molecule binds to a site that is NOT an active site. It describes the conformational transitions that impact the molecule’s function.

69
Q

You discover a bacterial RNA that binds an amino acid. In the presence of the amino acid, further expression of the gene that is producing the RNA transcript is blocked. Provide an explanation of how this might be regulated.

A

Metabolite-sensing riboswitch, form of feedback inhibition.
The amino acid binds to the aptamer domain, which induces a differential RNA folding pattern in the expression platform. In this case, the folding likely creates a terminator hairpin, blocking transcription.

70
Q

What are riboswitches and how do they work?

A

While the majority of gene expression is controlled by protein factors, some genes are controlled by specialized domains within certain mRNA transcripts, “riboswitches.” These mRNA elements, which are usually found in the 5’ UTR of bacterial mRNA selectively bind to metabolites in their aptamer domain, such as lysine or SAM, and then their expression platform interprets the metabolite binding through RNA folding, for example forming alternative antiterminator and terminator hairpins.

71
Q

TFIIH

A

Has both cyclin-dependent kinase activity and helicase activity, phosphorylates the CTD of RNAP II during the elongation phase of the transcription cycle

72
Q

Function of mediator

A

Transduces regulatory information from activator and repressor proteins to RNAP II

Molecular drawbridge between the transactivation domains of various transcription factors and RNAP II

73
Q

Function of pioneer factors

A

Access DNA target sites in condensed chromatin, create more accessible binding sites for other transcription factors and chromatin remodeling complexes

74
Q

After initiation of transcription, how does RNA polymerase II move through nucleosome arrays?

A

When RNAP starts transcribing a gene within the nucleoid, the first ribosome binds to the emerging mRNA. As more ribosomes bind and other RNAPs start transcribing, they move towards the periphery of the nucleoid.

75
Q

You have purified a transcription factor that has a leucine-rich region. You perform an electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA) using a double-stranded oligonucleotide that you know from other studies contains the site recognized by this transcription factor in vivo. However, the transcription factor does not bind to the labeled oligonucleotide in your EMSA. Provide an explanation for this result.

A

Transcription factor is leucine rich, probably a basic leucine zipper. Because it binds only as a heterodimer, it won’t bind if only one of the two necessary polypeptides are present.

76
Q

What is known about how genomic imprinting is reset and then maintained in development:

A

Imprinting is reset in the germline by erasure of the DNA methylation marks and the histone modifications in the primordial germ cells

Genes then acquire different marks in the sperm and the oocyte

These new marks are then inherited through subsequent cell divisions

Another round of global demethylation happens after fertilization, during gametogenesis…but it doesn’t erase everything. ICRs retain their parent-specific methylation patterns

77
Q

What would happen during meiosis if imprinting isn’t reset?

A

Then the sperm and egg cells wouldn’t have any imprinted marks, meaning that the ICRs of their subsequent gamete would also lack imprinting marks

Could lead to neurodevelopmental disorders such as Prader-Willi and Angelman

78
Q

What do we use bisulfate-PCR for?

A

To distinguish normal cytosine from 5-methylcytosine

79
Q

Molecular cause of Prader-Wilis

A

Absence of ICR imprinting on paternal chromosome 15

80
Q

Molecular cause of Angelman Syndrome

A

Absence of ICR imprinting on maternal chromosome 15

81
Q

Differences between DNA transposons and retrotransposons:

A

DNA transposons:
- Transposable elements with a DNA intermediate during transposition
- Cut and paste mechanism
- Conservative

Retrotransposons:
- Transposable elements with an RNA intermediate during transposition
- Copy and paste mechanism
- Replicative

82
Q

Examples of phenotypic variation caused by transposition of transposable elements in plants:

A

Pigmentation of kernels on a maize ear

Mendel’s wrinkly peas

83
Q

Examples of phenotypic variation caused by transposition of transposable elements in humans:

A

HERV

L1 elements (a type of LINE)

Alu elements (a type of SINE)

84
Q

Explain how a diet lacking folic acid can lead to activation of the cryptic promoter within this retrotransposon.

A

The yellow agouti mouse strain has an LTR retrotransposon inserted upstream of the agouti gene. This retrotransposon places the agouti gene under the control of a cryptic promoter in the 5’ LTR of the retrotransposon, which causes constitutive expression of the agouti gene, resulting in mice with completely yellow fur.

CpG methylation of the retrotransposon inactivates it and its cryptic promoter, preventing the agouti gene from being expressed and resulting in mice with brown fur, with increased methylation of the retrotransposon corresponding to increasingly darker shades of brown fur.

Early nutrition influences DNA methylation because the methyl donors and essential cofactors required for methyl metabolism must be obtained from the diet. Folic acid, which contains high amounts of these nutrients, has been shown to affect the coat color of agouti mice. Mice fed a diet high in folic acid gave birth to brown coated babies, while mice who weren’t fed the folic acid diet gave birth to yellow coated babies.

85
Q

Intergenerational epigenetic inheritance vs. transgenerational epigenetic inheritance.

A

Intergenerational –> one singular transfer, ex mom to daughter

Transgenerational –> multiple transfers, multiple generations

86
Q

Why is it a challenge to obtain evidence in support of transgenerational epigenetic inheritance in humans?

A

Demonstrating this type of inheritance requires multigenerational studies, of at least 3-4 generations, and must account for individual genetic variation, stochastic differences, cultural influences, and the microbiome.

87
Q

List three main characteristics of variant surface glycoprotein (VSG) gene expression in trypanosomes.

A

Monoallelic gene expression of VSG genes

Switching of which of the many VSG gene is expressed causes the protein composition of the trypanosome’s outer coat to change

Trypanosome has a quick release shedding mechanism to replace one type of VSG protein with another

Most potential VSG genes are clustered as tandem repeats in nontelomeric chromosome regions (chromosome-internal genes)

The gene conversion event that transposes the new gene into the active expression site displaces the resident gene

Massive repertoire of potential VSG genes, many expression sites for the VSG genes

Switches in VSG gene expression can be caused either by changing the gene in the active site or changing which active site is being expressed (though changing active sites is less common)

88
Q

What epigenetic control mechanisms ensure that only one VSG gene is expressed at a time?

A

Two potential methods:

Modified J base
In trypanosomes, a fraction of thymine is replaced with a large ass hyper modified uracil base “J.”
It’s made of a bulky glucose moiety attached to a thymine base, and it extends into the major groove of the DNA.
Likely has the same function as methylcytosine in mammals.
J is found in the inactive VSG gene expression sites, but not in the active ones.

Inositol phosphate signaling
Specific steps in the inositol phosphate signaling pathway modulate monoallelic gene transcription and VSG gene switching.

89
Q

In the most common mode of trypanosome antigen-switching, the VSG gene in the active expression site is degraded and replaced with the donor VSG gene. Why isn’t there progressive loss of VSG genes over time?

A

Most common mode of VSG gene switching is gene conversion. While the original copy of the gene in the active site is degraded, a new copy of it had been made in the homologous recombination used to insert it into the active site, so it’s still encoded in the genome.