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BIOM1051 > Module 3 > Flashcards

Module 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What types of glial cells are in the CNS?

A

astrocytes, microglia, ependymal cells, oligodendrocytes

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2
Q

What times of glial cells are in the PNS?

A

Satellite cells and schwann cells

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3
Q

What functions do astrocytes provide the CNS?

A
  • Structural support
  • Regulate extracellular concentration of ions and neurotransmitters
  • Formation of the
    blood‐brain barrier
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4
Q

… and … form myelin sheaths around axons

A

Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells

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5
Q

T or F
Resting membrane potential is negative in all cells

A

T

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6
Q

T or F
In all cells there are gradients of ions across the cell membrane

A

T

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7
Q

T or F
The inside of a cell’s membrane is positive relative to the outside

A

F
negative

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8
Q

How many sodium and potassium ions are outside the cell during resting membrane potential?

A

5mM K+
150mM Na+

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9
Q

How many sodium and potassium ions are inside the cell during resting membrane potential?

A

140mM K+
15mM Na+

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10
Q

The membrane at rest has many open … channels and few open … or … channels.

A

K+
Na+
Cl-

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11
Q

Na+/K+‐ATPase pumps … Na+ out and … K+ in

A

3
2

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12
Q

Buildup of ‐ve charge in a neuron is limited by the … gradient vs the … gradient of …

A

electrical
chemical
K+

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13
Q

The equilibrium potential in a neuron is approx …mV

A

‐70

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14
Q

T or F
Resting membrane potentials are dependent on voltage-gated ion channels

A

F
Voltage-gated ion channels are required for action potentials, not resting membrane potentials.

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15
Q

T or F
All cells have a membrane potential

A

T

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16
Q

… cells experience rapid changes in membrane potential

A

Excitable

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17
Q

T or F
Ionic gradients are not important in all cells

A

F

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18
Q

List some excitable cells

A

Neurons, myocytes and pancreatic beta cells

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19
Q

T or F
Even without an action potential, an axon has many ions moving across its membrane

A

T

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20
Q

Na+/K+ pumps get their energy from …

A

ATP

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21
Q

T or F
Na+/K+ pumps passively transport ions across the cell

A

F
actively

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22
Q

Na+/K+ pumps transport … ions out of the cell and … ions in

A

sodium
potassium

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23
Q

T or F
Some potassium channels are open all the time, allowing potassium ions to leave the cell

A

T

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24
Q

T or F
There are only a few constitutively open K+ channels in a cell membrane

A

F
There are many

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25
Q

T or F
There are only a few constitutively open Na+ channels in a cell membrane

A

T

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26
Q

T or F
K+ ions are of high concentration in a cell

A

T

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27
Q

Why do K+ ions have a tendency to diffuse from the inside of a cell to the outside?

A

Because there is a high concentration of K+ ions in a cell, creating a concentration gradient that moves K+ to the outside of a cell

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28
Q

Why is the chemical gradient of a cell membrane being reduced in a resting membrane potential?

A

Because potassium ions are moving from a high concentration inside the cell to a low concentration outside the cell.

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29
Q

Why does the electrical gradient of a cell membrane increase during resting membrane potential?

A

Because the inside of a cell at resting membrane potential is already negative so when K+ are moved out of the cell it becomes even more negative.

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30
Q

If the only channels open in a cell membrane were potassium channels, the value of the membrane potential would be…

A

EK = -90mV

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31
Q

If the only channels open in a cell membrane were sodium channels, the value of the resting membrane potential would be…

A

ENa = +65mV

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32
Q

What is the resting membrane potential of most cells?

A

-70mV

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33
Q

How many mM of Cl- are present in the inside and outside of a cell at resting membrane potential?

A

10mM of Cl- inside and 120mM of Cl- outside

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34
Q

What happens to a cell’s membrane potential during hyperpolarisation?

A

The inside of the cell membrane becomes more negative due to the opening of voltage-gated K+ channels and the subsequent movement of K+ out of the cell.

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35
Q

What happens to a cell’s membrane potential during depolarisation?

A

The inside of a cell membrane becomes more positive due to the opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels and the subsequent movement of Na+ into the cell.

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36
Q

… occurs when a stimulus lowers a cell’s membrane potential (mV) to lower than it is at resting membrane potential without a stimulus.

A

Hyperpolarisation

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37
Q

… occurs when a stimulus raises a cell’s membrane potential (mV) to higher than it is at resting membrane potential without a stimulus.

A

Depolarisation

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38
Q

T or F
Action potentials are all-or-nothing

A

T

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39
Q

T or F
The magnitude of an action potential is dependent on the strength of the original stimulus.

A

F
Because it is an all-or-nothing reaction it is independent.

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40
Q

T or F
Action potentials are fast (1-2 milliseconds) and have high frequencies

A

T

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41
Q

T or F
K+ channels transition from closed, open and inactivated stages.

A

F
Na+ channels do. K+ channels transition from open to closed.

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42
Q

What happens during the repolarisation of an action potential?

A

K+ channels open and K+ rush out
Na+ channels are inactivated and then start to close

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43
Q

What happens during the undershoot of an action potential?

A

Small hyperpolarisation
Also need Na+/K+-ATPase to restore Na+ and K+ concentrations.

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44
Q

What happens during the resting state of an action potential?

A

Voltage-gated ion channels are closed

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45
Q

What happens during the stimulus phase of an action potential?

A

A STIMULUS causes a few Na+ channels to open Na+ rushes in

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46
Q

What happens during the depolarisation phase of an action potential?

A

If THRESHOLD is reached:
Lots of Na+ channels open
Lots of Na+ rushes in

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47
Q

What happens during an absolute refractory period?

A

no AP can be generated
– Na+ channels open then inactivated

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48
Q

What happens during a relative refractory period?

A

AP only if apply large stimulus
– because some Na+ channels closed again

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49
Q

T or F
During the refractory period, the action potential can only fire in one direction

A

T

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50
Q

T or F
A refractory period limits firing frequency

A

T

51
Q

How do local anesthetics work?

A

Local anaesthetics prevent action potentials by blocking voltage‐gated Na+ channels from transitioning from their inactivated to closed states, therefore, depolarisation cannot occur.

52
Q

Conduction (Propagation) of action potentials usually starts at the neurons…

A

axon hillock

53
Q

What factors affect action potential conduction speed?

A

Axon diameter, temperature and degree of myelination

54
Q

T or F
The smaller the diameter, the less resistance –
FASTER conduction speed

A

F
larger

55
Q

T or F
Any chemical reaction occurs faster at warmer temperatures!

A

T

56
Q

T or F
Conduction speed is affected more by myelination than by axon diameter

A

T

57
Q

T or F
Myelin insulates the axon membrane in invertebrates

A

F
vertebrates

58
Q

T or F
Myelination causes the conduction speed to be slower but uses less energy

A

F
Myelination makes conduction speed faster

59
Q

Are the nodes of Ranvier polarised or depolarised regions?

A

depolarised

60
Q

Myelinated nerve fibers provide … conduction

A

saltatory

61
Q

Unmyelinated nerve fibers provide … conduction

A

smooth

62
Q

T or F
A single neuron can receive signals from many sending neurons

A

T

63
Q

What causes vesicles to exocytate into the synaptic cleft?

A

The influx of Ca+ binding to vesicles in the presynaptic neuron

64
Q

T or F
The vast majority of synapses are electrical

A

F
There are relatively few synapses of this type

65
Q

T or F
Relatively few synapses are chemical

A

F
The vast majority of synapses are chemical

66
Q

T or F
Tight junctions prevent fluid from crossing over a layer of cells

A

T

67
Q

… is the mechanism of
neurotransmitter release from neurons

A

exocytosis

68
Q

What does EPSP stand for?

A

excitatory postsynaptic potential

69
Q

What does IPSP stand for?

A

inhibitory postsynaptic potential

70
Q

Hyperpolarisation at a postsynaptic membrane happens if there is an … postsynaptic potential

A

Inhibitory

71
Q

Depolarisation at a postsynaptic membrane happens if there is an … postsynaptic potential

A

excitatory

72
Q

T or F
Most postsynaptic potentials decline before they reach the axon hillock

A

T

73
Q

What is temporal summation?

A

When several EPSPs from the same synapse fire just after each other their combined stimuli can reach the action potential threshold.

74
Q

What is spatial summation?

A

When two or more EPSPs from different synapses fire just after each other their combined stimuli can reach the action potential threshold.

75
Q

T or F
Postsynaptic potentials are generated at the axon hillock

A

F
Action potentials are. Postsynaptic potentials are generated at the cell body or dendrites

76
Q

Postsynaptic potentials can be either … or …

A

excitatory
inhibitory

77
Q

T or F
Postsynaptic potentials are ungraded

A

F
They are graded

78
Q

T or F
Postsynaptic potentials are local

A

T

79
Q

What are the two types of chemical synaptic transmission?

A

Direct and indirect

80
Q

… synaptic transmission involves a second messenger

A

indirect

81
Q

What do neurotransmitters do in indirect synaptic transmission?

A

the neurotransmitter binds to a receptor on the postsynaptic membrane

82
Q

What do neurotransmitters do in direct synaptic transmission?

A

neurotransmitter opens ion channels on the postsynaptic membrane

83
Q

T or F
Both direct and indirect chemical synaptic transmission produces action via ligand-gated ion channels

A

F
Only direct transmission

84
Q

Are GPCRs an example of direct or indirect chemical synaptic transmission?

A

indirect

85
Q

What are some examples of direct chemical synaptic transmission receptors?

A

nicotinic receptors and glutamate receptors

86
Q

When a neurotransmitter opens ion channels on the postsynaptic membrane this leads to a…

A

graded postsynaptic potential

87
Q

The amino acid GABA is an example of a excitatory/inhibitory neurotransmitter

A

inhibitory

88
Q

The amino acid glycine is an example of an excitatory/inhibitory neurotransmitter

A

inhibitory

89
Q

The amino acid glutamate is an example of an excitatory/inhibitory neurotransmitter

A

excitatory

90
Q

Indirect synaptic transmission can result in EPSPs or IPSPs depending on the … and …

A

neurotransmitter and the receptor type

91
Q

Is 5-hydroxytryptamine (aka serotonin or 5-HT) a direct or indirect synaptic transmitter?

A

Indirect with the exception of 5-HT3 receptors

92
Q

Is acetylcholine a direct or indirect synaptic transmitter?

A

Indirect on muscarinic receptors but direct on nicotinic receptors

93
Q

Which one of the following is NOT an example of neurotransmitter removal from a synaptic cleft?

a) Neurotransmitters are taken up by astrocytes
b) Neurotransmitters are recycled by selective uptake via transporters
c) Neurotransmitters are broken down by enzymes
d) Neurotransmitters diffuse back into the presynaptic cleft
e) Neurotransmitters diffuse out of the synaptic cleft

A

d

94
Q

T or F
Depolarisation makes a membrane potential less negative

A

T

95
Q

T or F
All animals have a nervous system

A

F
Sponges don’t

96
Q

Which of the following is not an example of how neurons can organise themselves:
a) neurons can form a nerve tent
b) neurons can form a nerve net
c) neurons can form a nerve ring with radial nerves
d) neurons can form nerve cords with transverse nerves

A

a

97
Q

Segmentally arranged clusters of neurons are called…

A

ganglia

98
Q

Ganglia are part of what nervous system?

A

the peripheral nervous system

99
Q

T or F
Ganglia are not connected to the CNS

A

F

100
Q

T or F
Mollusc NS organisation depends on lifestyle

A

T

101
Q

The CNS consists of the … and …

A

brain
spinal cord

102
Q

T or F
Spinal nerves are part of the CNS

A

F
They are part of the PNS

103
Q

T or F
Most spinal and cranial nerves contain both sensory neurons and motor neurons

A

T

104
Q

How many pairs of cranial nerves do mammals have?

A

12

105
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves do mammals have?

A

31

106
Q

Ventral/anterior means front/back of body
Dorsal/posterior means front/back of body

A

front
back

107
Q

The sympathetic/parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response

A

sypathetic

108
Q

What are some things that happen during a fight or flight response?

A

Bronchi dilate
Heart beats faster
Glycogen to glucose
Adrenaline secretion
Digestion is inhibited

109
Q

What sections of the forebrain are developed from the embryonic?

A

cerebrum and diencephalon

110
Q

What is the function of cerebrospinal fluid?

A

Supply of nutrients and hormones; remove waste
Blocked flow in hydrocephalus

111
Q

What is reticular formation?

A

Part of the brainstem that acts as a selectivity filter that determines arousal and sleep

112
Q

The cerebellum is important for…

A

Motor function, coordination and cognitive and perceptual functions

113
Q

What elements of the brain does the diencephalon contain?

A

The epithalamus, hypothalamus and the thalamus

114
Q

Which part of the brain is the pineal gland in?

A

the epithalamus

115
Q

the epithalamus connects the … system to the rest of the brain

A

limbic

116
Q

The thalamus receives input from … and output from …

A

sensory neurons
motor neurons

117
Q

What are the functions of the hypothalamus?

A

Homeostatic regulation ‐ hormones
Biological clock
Temperature regulation
Survival ‐ hunger, thirst…

118
Q

The …. is responsible for communication between the left and right sides of the brain.

A

corpus callosum

119
Q

When is Broca’s area in the brain activated?

A

During speech generation

120
Q

When is Wernicke’s area in the brain activated?

A

when speech is heard

121
Q

T or F
The hippocampus is responsible for long-term memory

A

F
short-term memory

122
Q

The … is responsible for long term memory

A

cerebral cortex

123
Q

T or F
A nerve consists of many neurons

A

T

124
Q

What are glial vital for?

A

structural integrity and normal function

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