Module 3

Question 1

Typically, the duties and responsibilities for environmental issues falls to the job of an ____ and ____, versus the job of the operations director or airfield inspector.

Answer 1

Airport Planner, Environmental Specialist

Question 2

Potential Pollutant sources and identification of any pollutant source of concern can be generated by the following airport activities:

Answer 2

1. Aircraft and Runway Deicing or Anti-icing activities
2. Primary Metal Waste Generators
3. Cargo loading and unloading operations
4. Outdoor storage activities
5. Outdoor manufacturing or process activities
6. Fueling Operations
7. Vehicle and aircraft maintenance, painting, and lubrication
8. Significant dust or particulate generating activities
9. Onsite waste disposal practices

Question 3

Steps that a facility owner or operator can take to prevent oil spills include:

Answer 3

1. Using containers suitable for the oil being stored
2. Providing overfill prevention for oil storage containers
3. Providing sized secondary containment for bulk storage containers, such as a dike or a remote impoundment
4. Providing general secondary containment to catch the most likely oil spill where there is a transfer of oil to and from containers and for mobile refuelers and tanker trucks, i.e. (drip pans)
5. Periodically inspecting and testing pipes and containers
6. Prepare and implement an SPCC Plan

Question 4

SPCC stands for ____.

Answer 4

Spill Prevention and Control and Countermeasures

Question 5

A facility is covered by the SPCC rule if it has an aggregate aboveground oil (including petroleum) storage capacity greater than ____ or a completely buried storage capacity greater than ____ and there is a reasonable expectation of an oil discharge into or upon navigable waters of the U.S. or adjoining shorelines.

Answer 5

1,320 U.S. gallons, 42,000 U.S. gallons

Question 6

The ____ of the facility must develop and implement an SPCC Plan that describes oil handling operations, spill prevention practices, discharges or drainage controls, and the personnel, equipment and resources at the facility that are used to prevent oil spills from reaching navigable waters or adjoining shorelines.

Answer 6

Owner or Operator

Question 7

Activity-based BMPs or nonstructural BMPs emphasize source reduction through such measures as:

Answer 7

1.Good housekeeping activities
2. Preventative maintenance schedules
3. Material management procedures
4. Spill prevention and response procedures
5. Visual inspections
6. Sediment and erosion control
7. Management of runoff
8. Recordkeeping and reporting
9. Employee training
10. Material and product substitution

Question 8

Structural-based BMPs use physical measures to:

Answer 8

1. Minimize pollution (prevention and containment)
2. Divert pollutants for treatment (mitigation and ultimate release)

Question 9

____ are technical bulletins that describe how to use, handle, and dispose of specific chemical hazards.

Answer 9

SDS (Safety Data Sheets)

Question 10

Each aircraft rescue and firefighting vehicle responding to an emergency on the airport must be equipped with, or have available through a direct communications link, the ____ published by the U.S. DOT or similar guidance material.

Answer 10

“North American Emergency Response Guidebook”

Question 11

The procedures pertaining to the requirements relating to Fuel and Fueling Operations must address specific topics, including:

Answer 11

1. Bond
2. Public Protection
3. Control of access to storage areas
4. Fire safety in fuel farms and storage areas
5. Fire safety in mobile fuelers
6. Fueling pits
7. Fueling cabinets
8. Training of fueling personnel in fire safety
9. Local fire codes

Question 12

Certificate airports are also required under Part 139.321 to inspect each airport tenant’s physical fueling facilities, including air carrier facilities, at least ____ and ensure that immediate corrective action is taken if any violations are discovered.

Answer 12

at least once every three months

Question 13

There must be ____ who has completed an approved aviation fuel training course on fire safety, while those who handle fuel or who fuel aircraft must ____.

Answer 13

at least one supervisor; must receive on-the-job training

Question 14

Recurrent fuel related training must be documented over ____.

Answer 14

24 months

Question 15

The fire triangle is composed of three parts:

Answer 15

1. A combustible material (flammable solid, liquid, or gas)
2. Presence of sufficient amounts of oxygen
3. Heat or ignition source

Question 16

If the material has a flash point at or above ____ it is considered combustible.

Answer 16

100 degrees Fahrenheit

Question 17

Flammable material is distinguished by flash points below ____ or a vapor pressure not exceeding ____.

Answer 17

100 degrees Fahrenheit, 40 psi

Question 18

A few samples of fuel safety standards include:

Answer 18

1. At least 50 feet of separation between fuel servicing tank vehicles and any parked aircraft or building.
2. Fuel trucks cannot be stored in hangars or other buildings
3. Posting and identification of no smoking signs and emergency cutoff switches
4. No ignition sources present
5. Fire extinguishers of proper type and size
6. Properly trained individuals

Question 19

The various components of an airport traffic pattern include:

Answer 19

1. Upwind leg
2. Crosswind leg
3. Downwind leg
4. Base leg
5. Final approach
6. Departure leg

Question 20

A flight path parallel to the landing runway in the direction of landing.

Answer 20

Upwind leg

Question 21

A flight path parallel to the landing runway in the opposite direction of landing.

Answer 21

Downwind leg

Question 22

A flight path which begins after takeoff and continues straight ahead along the extended runway centerline.

Answer 22

Departure leg

Question 23

A flight path at right angles to the landing runway off its takeoff end.

Answer 23

Crosswind leg

Question 24

A flight path in the direction of landing along the extended runway centerline from the base leg to the runway.

Answer 24

Final Approach

Question 25

A flight path at right angles to the landing runway off its approach end and extending from the downwind leg to the intersection of the extended runway centerline.

Answer 25

Base leg

Question 26

Certificated airports without a full-time ATCT are required to have a ____ , and if air carrier operations occur at night when the tower is closed or not operating, the wind cone must be ____.

Answer 26

Segmented Circle; Lighted

Question 27

CTAF stands for ____.

Answer 27

Common Traffic Advisory Frequency

Question 28

A standard holding pattern uses ____ and takes approximately ____ to complete.

Answer 28

Right-hand; 4 minutes

Question 29

Light Gun- Steady Green

Answer 29

Okay to enter, cross, or proceed

Question 30

Light Gun- Steady Red

Answer 30

Stop

Question 31

Light Gun- Flashing Red

Answer 31

Get off runway or other surface

Question 32

Light Gun- White

Answer 32

Return to starting point on airport

Question 33

Light Gun- Alternating Red and Green

Answer 33

Exercise extreme caution

Question 34

Regulatory airspace includes:

Answer 34

1. Class A
2. Class B
3. Class C
4. Class D
5. Class E
6. Restricted Areas
7. Prohibited Areas

Question 35

Non-regulatory airspace includes:

Answer 35

1. Military operations areas (MOAs)
2. Warning Areas
3. Alert Areas
4. Controlled Firing Areas

Question 36

The Four types of airspace are:

Answer 36

1. Controlled
2. Uncontrolled
3. Special Use
4. Other

Question 37

____ are mandatory services provided to all pilots and may include either a terrain or obstruction alert or an aircraft conflict/Mode c intruder alert.

Answer 37

Safety Alerts

Question 38

This airspace exists from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including flight level 600, including the airspace overlying the waters within 12NM off the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska.

Answer 38

Class A

Question 39

This airspace exists from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enplanements.

Answer 39

Class B

Question 40

This airspace exists from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower that are serviced by a radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements.

Answer 40

Class C

Question 41

This airspace exists from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower.

Answer 41

Class D

Question 42

If the airspace is not Class A, B, C or D it is ____.

Answer 42

Class E

Question 43

The various types of Class E airspace are:

Answer 43

1. Surface area designated for an airport
2. Extension to a surface area
3. Airspace used for transition
   4.Enroute Domestic Areas
4. Federal Airways
5. Offshore Airspace Areas

Question 44

When designated as a surface area for an airport, the airspace will be configured to contain all instrument procedures.

Answer 44

Class E- Surface area designated for an airport

Question 45

There are Class E airspace areas that serve as extensions to Class B, C and D surface areas designated for an airport.

Answer 45

Class E- Extension to a surface area

Question 46

Class E airspace areas beginning at either 700 or 1,200 feet AGL used to transition to and from the terminal or enroute environment.

Answer 46

Class E- Airspace used for transition

Question 47

Class E airspace areas that extend upward from a specific altitude and are enroute domestic airspace areas that provide controlled airspace in those areas where there is a requirement to provide IFR enroute ATC services, but the Federal airway system is inadequate.

Answer 47

Class E- Enroute Domestic Areas

Question 48

Class E airspace areas and, unless otherwise specified, extend upward from 1,200 feet to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.

Answer 48

Class E- Federal Airways

Question 49

Class E airspace areas that extend upward from a specified altitude to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL and are designated as offshore airspace areas.

Answer 49

Class E- Offshore Airspace Areas

Question 50

____ airspace is that portion of airspace that has not been designated Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace.

Answer 50

Class G

Question 51

Airspace where activities must be confined because of their nature, or where limitations are imposed on aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities, or possibly both.

Answer 51

Special Use Airspace

Question 52

____ contain airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.

Answer 52

Prohibited Areas

Question 53

____ contains airspace identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions.

Answer 53

Restricted Areas

Question 54

A ____ is airspace of define dimensions, extending from three nautical miles outward from the coast of the U.S., that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.

Answer 54

Warning Area

Question 55

____, Alert areas, controlled firing areas, apply to military operations and typically have no impact on certificated airports.

Answer 55

Military Operations Areas (MOA)

Question 56

TRACON stands for ____.

Answer 56

Terminal Radar Approach Control

Question 57

Within a TRACON, the several sectors or controller positions are:

Answer 57

1. Approach Control
2. Clearance Delivery
3. Departure Control
4. Flight Data

Question 58

ARTCC stands for ____.

Answer 58

Air Route Traffic Control Center

Question 59

Located within a TRACON or ARTCC facility. Responsible for ensuring the safe transition of the aircraft into the terminal area.

Answer 59

Approach Control

Question 60

Primarily replays flight plan and airport information to the other controller positions within the tower.

Answer 60

Flight Data

Question 61

Coordinates and processes initial departure, route of flight, and final altitude information to a pilot.

Answer 61

Clearance Delivery

Question 62

Located within a TRACON or ARTCC facility. Responsible for ensuring the safe transition of the aircraft out of the terminal area and into enroute navigation.

Answer 62

Departure Control

Question 63

The four possible ATC controller positions are:

Answer 63

1. Tower Control (Local)
2. Ground Control
3. Clearance Delivery
4. Flight Data

Question 64

Responsible for controlling all aircraft and vehicular activity on the airport movement areas.

Answer 64

Ground Control

Question 65

Responsible for handling arriving and departing aircraft on the active runways and within the assigned airport airspace. Also gives clearance to cross or access a runway.

Answer 65

Tower Control (Local)

Question 66

____ coordinates and manages the flow of aircraft in the non-movement ramp areas.

Answer 66

Ramp Control

Question 67

ATIS stands for ____.

Answer 67

Automatic Terminal Information Service

Question 68

The ____ is a recorded message that continuously transmits airport information on a separate assigned frequency, or over the voice feature of an airport’s Very High frequency Omni-directional Range navigational aid or other radio transmitter.

Answer 68

Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS)

Question 69

The ATIS generally includes the following information:

Answer 69

1. Airport Identifier
2. UTC Time
3. Wind Direction and Speed
4. Visibility
5. Cloud Ceiling
6. Temperature and dew point
7. Altimeter setting
8. Instrument approaches and runways in use
9. NOTAMs applicable to landing, weather advisories
10. Braking action reports
11. Wind shear reports
12. Construction activity
13. Other information important to pilots and airport users

Question 70

In regard to traffic and wind direction indicators, each certificate holder must provide and maintain the following on its airport:

Answer 70

1. A wind cone that visually provides surface wind direction information to pilots. For each runway available for air carrier use, a supplemental wind cone must be installed at the end of the runway or at least at one point visible to the pilot while on final approach and prior to takeoff. If the airport is open for air carrier operations at night, the wind direction indicators, including the required supplemental indicators, must be lighted.
2. For airports serving any air carrier operation when there is no control tower operating, a segmented circle, a landing strip indicator and a traffic pattern indicator must be installed around a wind cone for each runway with a right-hand traffic pattern.
3. FAA Advisory Circulars contain methods and procedures for the installation, lighting, and maintenance of traffic and wind indicators that are acceptable to the Administrator.

Question 71

Pat 139.325 details the requirements for ____.

Answer 71

Developing plans and procedures to ensure effective management of emergency situations on airports. (Airport Emergency Plan)

Question 72

For certificated airports, the use of ____ is mandatory.

Answer 72

14 CFR Part 139, Certification of Airports Advisory Circular use and guidelines

Question 73

According to AC 150/5200-31, Airport Emergency Plan, an airport’s AEP must contain instructions for response to the following hazards:

Answer 73

1. Aircraft incidents and accidents
2. Terrorism incidents, including designation of parking areas for the aircraft involved
3. Structural fires, fuel farms, and fuel storage areas
4. Natural disasters, including hurricanes, earthquakes, tornado, volcano, and flood
5. Hazardous materials incidents
6. Sabotage, hijack incidents, and other unlawful interference with operations
7. Failure of power for movement area lighting
8. Water rescue situations, as appropriate
9. Crowd Control

Question 74

Additional sections that an AEP may include are:

Answer 74

1. Command and Control
2. Communications
3. Alert Notification and Warning
4. Emergency Public Information
5. Protective Actions
6. Law Enforcement or Security
7. Firefighting and Rescue
8. Health and Medical
9. Resource Management
10. Airport Operations and Maintenance

Question 75

The airport’s ____ and ____ requires that there be an emergency alarm, a means of emergency identification, and determination of the type of initial response.

Answer 75

ACM, AEP

Question 76

The ____ describes the principles, roles and responsibilities, and coordinating structures for delivering the core capabilities required to respond to an incident and further describes how response efforts integrate with those of the other mission areas.

Answer 76

National Response Framework

Question 77

The Response mission area includes 15 core capabilities:

Answer 77

1. Planning
2. Public information and warning
3. Operational coordination
4. Critical transportation
5. Environmental response or health safety
6. Fatality management services
7. Fire management and suppression
8. Infrastructure systems
9. Logistics and supply chain management
10. Mass care services
11. Mass search and rescue operations
12. On-scene security, protection, and law enforcement
13. Operational communications
14. Public health, healthcare, and emergency medical services
15. Situational assessment

Question 78

The four phases of a disaster emergency situation are:

Answer 78

1. Mitigation
2. Preparedness
3. Response
4. Recovery

Question 79

Actions that enhance emergency response capabilities, including emergency plans, training, drills and exercises.

Answer 79

Stage: Preparedness

Question 80

Actions that restore the airport and community to pre-emergency conditions, including crisis counseling, long-term medical assistance, reconstruction, rehabilitation, public information programs, and hazard-reduction programs.

Answer 80

Stage: Recovery

Question 81

Actions that can prevent, alleviate, or diminish the potential effects of a disaster situation, including zoning, public education, budget allocations, and earthquake-resistant construction.

Answer 81

Stage: Mitigation

Question 82

Time-sensitive actions to save lives and property, reduce the possibility of secondary damage, and speed recovery operations, including mobilizing emergency response, personnel and equipment, conducting search and rescue, alerting the public, and evacuation.

Answer 82

Stage: Response

Question 83

Upon initial alert, responding airport personnel should obtain the following information for aircraft emergencies:

Answer 83

1. Aircraft identification
2. Nature of the emergency
3. Quantity of fuel on board
4. Runway intended to be used
5. Number of occupants
6. Presence of any hazardous material
7. Location of the aircraft if on the ground

Question 84

Signifies an actual aircraft emergency exists in flight, and an accident may well occur resulting in injuries and aircraft damage.

Answer 84

Alert II

Question 85

Signifies a precautionary approach to a situation where a real or suspected emergency exists on an aircraft, but the nature of the emergency would not normally cause serious difficulty or make the anticipated landing unsafe.

Answer 85

Alert I

Question 86

Signifies an actual aircraft accident has occurred.

Answer 86

Alert III

Question 87

The first ____ are the most critical period of an emergency response.

Answer 87

15 minutes

Question 88

ARFF’s first priority on an aircraft accident scene is to ____.

Answer 88

Create an exit route, allowing aircraft passengers to escape.

Question 89

____ primarily controls access to the emergency site, establishes traffic control points to enable emergency vehicles to arrive without hindrance, and preserves materials, such as cargo and personal property of individuals.

Answer 89

Airport Security

Question 90

Airport operations personnel can better prepare for an off-airport accident by:

Answer 90

1. Understanding their role in such emergency situations
2. Developing, coordinating, and practicing crisis management plans and techniques with other federal, state, and local agencies.
3. Understanding the human factors involved in tragedies
4. Learning to deal with the unexpected

Question 91

Before any airfield operation can resume, a ____ must be conducted to ensure that the airport is in compliance with its ACM.

Answer 91

Thorough inspection

Question 92

According to the FAA, the airport operations coordinator or supervisor during an emergency should:

Answer 92

1. Ensure compliance with all appropriate aviation standards and regulations
2. Ensure that the command vehicle is provided at the scene as soon as possible
3. Coordinate emergency response efforts with air traffic control personnel
4. Ensure any and all required NOTAMs have been issued
5. Provide overall airport familiarization and training program for designated on- and off- airport maintenance personnel
6. Provide training to reduce the potential for Vehicle/Pedestrian Deviations and runway incursions
7. Provide grid maps for each vehicle, as appropriate
8. Ensure completion of necessary airport inspections upon emergency termination
9. Prepare detailed SOPs and checklists that include
   * Contact information and mechanisms for notifying personnel
   * Step-by-step procedures for performing assigned tasks
   * Contact information for agency notification
   * Listing of the radio communications call signs and
   frequencies used by responding organizations
10. Provide means to evacuate people from the accident scene
11. Provide information regarding the status of the airport to the news media through the Public Information Officer
12. Maintain a chronological event log

Question 93

The airport, or portions thereof, should not be reopened until the airport operator has ensured that:

Answer 93

1. Aircraft operating areas are safe and secure
2. Aircraft movement areas that are to be reopened have been properly inspected
3. Adequate aircraft rescue and firefighting protection is available for aircraft operations
4. Public safety is assured

Question 94

According to the FAA, the airport maintenance coordinator or supervisor should:

Answer 94

1. Prepare and maintain an airport resource list
2. Ensure the restoration of utilities to critical and essential facilities, when necessary
3. Ensure the safety of facilities
4. Provide backup electrical power
5. Clear debris, as necessary
6. Ensure availability of potable water supply
7. Prepare detailed SOPs and checklists that include:
   * Contact information and mechanisms for notifying
   personnel
   * Step-by-step procedures for performing assigned tasks
8. Provide sanitation services
9. Maintain a chronological event log

Question 95

The five types of exercises that can better prepare an airport for emergencies or incidents are:

Answer 95

1. Orientation seminar
2. Drill
3. Tabletop exercise
4. Functional or partial exercise
5. Full-scale exercise

Question 96

The lowest level exercise, used to test, develop, or maintain skills in a single emergency response procedure.

Answer 96

Drill

Question 97

The highest-level exercise that does not involve the full activation of airport and off-airport emergency personnel and facilities. Designed to test or evaluate the specific capabilities of the participants in a stress-induced environment with time constraints and actual simulation of specific events.

Answer 97

Functional or Partial Exercise

Question 98

The most comprehensive test, intended to evaluate the operational capability of the emergency management system in a stress-induced environment with actual mobilization and deployment of resources to demonstrate coordination and response capability.

Answer 98

Full-scale Exercise

Question 99

Designed to provide an opportunity for training and evaluation of plans and procedures, and to resolve questions of coordination and assignment of responsibilities.

Answer 99

Tabletop Exercise

Question 100

The FAA requires a ____ of the emergency plan at least once every ____ for Class I certificated airports.

Answer 100

Full-scale demonstration; 36 consecutive calendar months

Question 101

In the intervening years when a full-scale exercise if not required, certificated airports are required to ____.

Answer 101

Conduct a functional or tabletop exercise

Question 102

Class ____, ____, ____ are required to conduct a tabletop exercise each year.

Answer 102

Class II, III, and IV

Question 103

The authority for removal of aircraft wreckage remains solely with the ____, and wreckage must not be move or disturbed until it is released by the ____.

Answer 103

NTSB

Question 104

The wreckage from an aircraft accident may only be moved if:

Answer 104

1. Aiding or removing any person who may be in the wreckage
2. It poses a safety hazard to the public

Question 105

The preservation and security of the accident site becomes the responsibility of ____ or ____ if the accident occurs on airport property.

Answer 105

Airport Operations; Security Personnel

Question 106

If the accident occurs off airport property, the responsibility resides with the ____.

Answer 106

Local Jurisdiction

Question 107

Security must be provided ____ at the scene of the accident, unless written authorization is given by either the ____ or the ____.

Answer 107

24 hours a day

NTSB; of the FAA

Question 108

____ are required to be installed in almost all U.S. -registered civil aircraft, including general aviation aircraft.

Answer 108

ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter)

Question 109

Per Part 139.329, airport operations are required to limit access to any ____ on the airport to only those pedestrians and ground vehicles necessary for airport operations.

Answer 109

Movement or safety area

Question 110

To provide for safe ground vehicle operations, airport operators must develop procedures, procure equipment, and provide training regarding vehicle operations. Methods for preventing and controlling access include:

Answer 110

1. Fences
2. Access gates
3. Guards
4. Magnetic card activated locks
5. Remotely controlled locks
6. Gates opened and closed electronically or secure by lock and chain
7. Physical barriers, including natural objects such as earthen berms, large boulders, tree trunks, and manmade culverts

Question 111

According to the FAA, airports should consider these when developing rules and regulations for those pedestrians and ground vehicles operating in movement and safety areas:

Answer 111

1. Requiring vehicle operators and anyone authorized to taxi or tow an aircraft, an ability to communicate in and understand the English language
2. Requiring that vehicles operating on the movement areas have radio contact with ATCT or are escorted by a radio-equipped vehicle. This is a requirement of Part 139.329 (b) for certificated airports.
3. Requiring specific procedures for vehicles operations on airports without an operating ATCT.
4. Requiring advanced notice and approval for operating a non-airport owned vehicle on the movement area.
5. Establishing speed limits
6. Establishing procedures to reduce distracted driving.
7. Prohibiting:
   a. Passing other vehicle and taxiing aircraft:
   b. Leaving a vehicle unattended and running;
   c. Driving under an aircraft except when servicing the aircraft;
   d. Driving under passenger bridges
8. Determining when drivers must use vehicle lights
9. Using dedicated vehicle lanes and perimeter roads whenever possible
10. Designating where vehicles may and may not park.
11. Establishing rules of right-of-way (e.g. for aircraft, emergency vehicles and other vehicles.)
12. Designating areas where vehicles may be serviced
13. Establishing procedures for inoperative radios while on a movement area.
14. Require reporting of all accidents involving ground vehicles on the movement and safety areas.
15. Require making the vehicle operator responsible for passenger’s behavior in the movement area.
16. Ensuring each aircraft operator maintains a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) with the airport to conduct tow operations.
    a. Elements of the MOU can include but are not limited to:
    i. Compliance with AC 00-65, Towbar and Towbarless Movement of Aircraft
    ii. Local Operating Conditions
    1. Low Visibility
    2. Weather
    3. Driving Routes
    4. Time Constraints (placed on movement of aircraft
    5. Tug-Type Requirements

Question 112

The FAA suggest planning meetings as an opportunity to review driving rules and regulations, communications and procedures, and air traffic control procedures. These meetings should address:

Answer 112

1. Movement and Safety During Construction
2. Emergency response and mutual aid
3. Snow and ice removal
4. Low-visibility operations
5. Any other non-routine operations

Question 113

Airport operators must develop procedures for enforcing the consequences of non-compliance, including penalties for violations. The AC presents the following control issues that airport operators should address as part of a ground vehicle control program:

Answer 113

1. Implementation of a tiered identification badging system that permits easy recognition of a vehicle operator’s permitted driving area privileges.
2. Prohibition against transfer of registration media to a vehicle other than the one for which originally issued.
3. Policies for surrendering permits to airport management when a vehicle is no longer authorized entry into a facility.
4. Periodic checks to ensure that only properly authorized persons operate vehicles on the airside.
5. System to control the movement of commercial trucks and the conveyance of goods onto and out of the airside of an airport.
6. Briefly or training for delivery drivers if they are permitted direct access to the airside.
7. Implementation of a progressive penalty policy.

Question 114

With respect to vehicular traffic, aircraft safety is endangered by the following four principle causes:

Answer 114

1. Increased traffic volume
2. Non-standard vehicle traffic endangerment patterns
3. Vehicles without radio communication and markings
4. Operators untrained in the airport’s procedures

Question 115

Vehicles that are equipped with ____ can escort vehicles that are not marked and lighted.

Answer 115

Marking and lighting devices

Question 116

A ____ is required at each towered airport to clarify the specific activities allowed in the RSA during air carrier and aircraft operations.

Answer 116

Letter of Agreement (LOA)

Question 117

Any LOA between the airport operator and the ATCT must be included in the airport operator’s ____.

Answer 117

Airport Certification Manual

Question 118

AC 150/521-20A requires the mechanic to provide the airport operator documentation from the mechanic’s employer indicating that the certified A&P mechanic is qualified to ____.

Answer 118

Start, run, taxi, or tow a particular type of aircraft

Question 119

Part 139.329(c) spells out the methods of control necessary when ATCT is in operation. This section of Part 139 spells out three methods of control, requiring airports to choose one of the following:

Answer 119

1. Two-way radio communications
2. An escort with two-way radio communications accompanying any pedestrian or vehicle without a radio
3. Methods such as signs, signals, or guards.

Question 120

____ provides guidance to airports in developing training for ground vehicle operations and pedestrian control on the airside of an airport.

Answer 120

AC 150/5210-20

Question 121

The consequences of violating any rules or procedures must be spelled out in an airport’s ____.

Answer 121

Airport Certification Manual (ACM)

Question 122

A ____ is any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and takeoff of aircraft

Answer 122

Runway Incursion

Question 123

A ____ is an unauthorized or unapproved movement within the designated movement area or an occurrence in that same area associated with the operation of an aircraft that affects or could affect the safety of flight.

Answer 123

Surface Incident

Question 124

The four categories of runway incursions are:

Answer 124

1. Category A
2. Category B
3. Category C
4. Category D

Question 125

An incident characterized by ample time or distance to avoid a collision.

Answer 125

Category C

Question 126

A serious incident in which a collision was narrowly avoided.

Answer 126

Category A

Question 127

An incident in which separation decreases and a significant potential for collision exists, which may result in a time-critical corrective and evasive response to avoid a collision.

Answer 127

Category B

Question 128

An incident that meets the definition of runway incursion such as incorrect presence of a single vehicle, person or aircraft on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and take-off of aircraft but with no immediate safety consequences.

Answer 128

Category D

Question 129

For additional assessment purposes, the FAA groups the primary cause of an incursion or incident into one of the three categories:

Answer 129

1. Operational Incident
2. Pilot Deviation
3. Vehicle/pedestrian deviation

Question 130

Pedestrian or vehicles entering any portion of the airport movement areas without authorization from air traffic control.

Answer 130

Vehicle/pedestrian deviation (V/PD)

Question 131

Action of an Air Traffic Controller that results in: Less than required minimum separation between 2 or more aircraft, or between an aircraft and obstacles, or clearing an aircraft to take off or land on a closed runway.

Answer 131

Operational Incident (OI)

Question 132

Action of a pilot that violates any Federal Aviation Regulation.

Answer 132

Pilot Deviation (PD)

Question 133

The several factors with regard to runway incursion severity are:

Answer 133

1. Available Reaction Time
2. Evasive or corrective Action
3. Environmental Conditions
4. Speed of Aircraft or Vehicle
5. Proximity of Aircraft or Vehicle

Question 134

The three areas of focus that the FAA concentrated on during the C2A relating to runway incursions were:

Answer 134

1. Visual
2. Communication
3. Procedures and Awareness

Question 135

Having an ____ and ____ available in each vehicle to record movement instructions is considered a best practice when communicating with ATCT.

Answer 135

Airport diagram; notepad

Question 136

Adding ____ to vehicles can help to improve situational awareness for both air traffic control and aircraft operators equipped with the ability to receive and display ____ messages.

Answer 136

Automatic Dependent Surveillance- Broadcast (ADS-B) Out Squitter Equipment; ADS-B

Question 137

A ____ is the normal method for identifying and agreeing to operating procedures on those areas that are to be under the control and responsibility of the ATCT, as well as those areas under control of the airport operator.

Answer 137

Letter of Agreement (LOA)

Question 138

At airports without an operating ATCT, procedures, phraseology, and aeronautical communication practices for operating on the airport are found in the _____ or ____.

Answer 138

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM); FAA Order JO 7110.65

Question 139

Personnel should have an aeronautical radio tuned to the airport’s ____ and ____ when there is no ATCT or when the ATCT is closed.

Answer 139

Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF); self-announce position and intentions

Question 140

Part 139 requires that if an object has been determined by the FAA to be an obstruction, it must be ____.

Answer 140

Removed, marked, or lighted

Question 141

Part __ deals with objects affecting navigable airspace.

Answer 141

Part 77

Question 142

One of the main requirements of Part 77 is to report to the FAA proposed construction or altercation that may constitute potential ____, as determined by the criteria found in the regulations.

Answer 142

potential obstructions or create hazards to safe air navigation

Question 143

____ require airport operators to take necessary action to protect the terminal area airspace from hazards to safety of flight.

Answer 143

Federal Grant Assurances

Question 144

An ____ is defined under the regulations as any natural growth, terrain, or permanent or temporary construction or altercation, including equipment or materials used, and apparatus of a permanent or temporary character.

Answer 144

Object

Question 145

The purpose for providing notice to the FAA under Part 77 is so the FAA:

Answer 145

1. Can minimize the adverse effects to aviation by identifying any potential for aeronautical hazards.
2. Be able to reverse published data or issue NOTAMs to alert pilots of the airspace changes resulting from the structure.
3. Be able to recommend appropriate marking and lighting to make the objects visible to pilots.
4. Depict obstacles on aeronautical charts for piloting and safety purposes.

Question 146

Form 7460-1 concerns ____.

Answer 146

Notice of Proposed Requirement Construction or Alteration

Question 147

Form 7460-1 is required when any proposed construction or alteration falls within any of the following:

Answer 147

1. Is greater than 200 feet in height above ground level at its location?
2. Is “near” a public use or military airport, heliport, or seaplane base?
3. Is a traverse way (highway, railroad or waterway) that exceeds standards?
4. Is it located on a public-use or military airport or heliport?
5. Is requested by the FAA?

Question 148

Depending upon the length of the longest runway, a proposed object is “near” a public-use airport if it is within ____ of an airport having runways less than ____, or within ____ if the airport has a runway that is greater than ____. The object requires notice if it exceeds a slope standard of ____ and ____, respectively, for each of the distances.

Answer 148

10,000 feet; 3,200 feet

20,000 feet; 3,200 feet

50:1 and 100:1

Question 149

A ____ advance notice to the FAA is required when filing FAA Form 7460-1.

Answer 149

45-day

Question 150

The principle imaginary obstacle surfaces defined in Part 77 are:

Answer 150

1. Primary
2. Transitional
3. Approach
4. Horizontal
5. Conical

Question 151

The ____ is centered on the runway centerline and extends 200 feet past the runway end. The width of this surface varies from 250 feet to 1,000 feet, depending on the type of approach to the runway. It exists at the same elevation as the runway.

Answer 151

Primary Surface

Question 152

The ____ is a level plane 150 feet above the runway elevation. Its surface is determined by connecting tangents of radii extended from the edges of the primary surface area at the runway ends. The length of the surface area of the radii is dependent upon the approach category for the runway. The area is intended to accommodate the safe operation and maneuvering of aircraft that are performing circle-to-land or missed approaches.

Answer 152

Horizontal Surface

Question 153

The ____ begins 200 feet from the runway end at the edge of the primary surface and extends outward from the end of the primary surface. The slope can vary from 20:1 for a visual runway for a distance of 5,000 feet, to ratios 20:1, 34:1, and 50:1 for a non-precision runway, for a distance of 10,000 feet, or to 50:1 for a precision runway for the first 10,000 feet and 40:1 thereafter to 40,000 feet.

Answer 153

Approach Surface

Question 154

The ____ commences at the edges of the primary surface, perpendicular to the runway centerline, and transition to the horizontal surface. The slops of the surface is 7:1, regardless of the type of runway or approach to that runway.

Answer 154

Transitional Surface

Question 155

The ____ starts at the perimeter of the horizontal surface and continues upward at a slope ratio of 20:1 for a horizontal distance of 4,000 feet. This is similar to a “stadium seating” effect.

Answer 155

Conical Surface

Question 156

Upon receipt of any proposed construction or alteration via FAA Form ____, the FAA conducts a Part ____ airspace study by analyzing the impact and effect it would have on the access to an airport and the safe operation of aircraft, including approaches, missed approaches, traffic patterns, etc..

Answer 156

Form 7460-1 Notice of Proposed Construction or Alteration; Part 77

Question 157

A Part 77 study concludes with one or more of six possibilities, which are:

Answer 157

1. The obstruction to air navigation is a hazard to air navigation
2. The object or activity on or in the vicinity of an airport is objectionable
3. The need exists to alter, remove, mark, or light the object.
4. The airport layout plan is approved (for construction or alteration on airport)
5. The proposed construction, enlargement, or modification to the airport would have an adverse effect on the safe and efficient use of navigable airspace.
6. A change in operational procedure is feasible or required.

Question 158

The authority to prevent construction or alteration is reserved for the ____

Answer 158

States and resides with the local regional or municipal zoning authorities.

Question 159

If an FAA study determines that the construction or alteration of a structure would interfere in the operation of the airspace system, the FAA will seek ____ to the application or will ____ change(s) in the operational use of the affected airport or airspace.

Answer 159

Modifications; Require

Question 160

In regards to the restrictions suggested by the FAA, the airport manager then has the option of ____or ____.

Answer 160

Accepting the restrictions; removing the obstacle if able

Question 161

FAA Form 7460-2 details ____.

Answer 161

Notice of Actual Construction or Alteration

Question 162

When penetration to an approach surface exists, the airport operator must take one of five actions:

Answer 162

1. Remove or lower the object to acceptable threshold siting requirements.
2. Displace the threshold thereby shortening the landing distance.
3. Revise the glide path angle or tower.
4. Raise the visibility minimums on the runway approach.
5. Restrict night operations.

Question 163

Factors that may affect the actions the airport operator can take when an object penetrates an approach surface might be:

Answer 163

1. The types of aircraft that use the runway.
2. The operational disadvantages of higher landing minimums.
3. The cost of removing, relocating, or lowering an object.
4. The effects of reduced landing length when the runway is wet.
5. The cost of extending the runway.
6. The cost and feasibility of relocating any visual or navigational aid.
7. The effects on noise abatement.

Question 164

Unmanned Aircraft systems or “Drones” weighing less than ____ are covered under FAR Part ____.

Answer 164

55 lbs; FAR Part 107

Question 165

For UAS to be legally operated in Class B, C, D or E airspace a waiver or authorization is needed to perform the Part 107 operation. Common request may include the options of:

Answer 165

1. Flying at night.
2. Flying directly over a person or people.
3. Flying from a moving vehicle or aircraft, not in a sparsely populated area.
4. Flying multiple aircraft with only one pilot.
5. Flying beyond the pilot’s visual line-of-sight.
6. Flying above 400 feet.
7. Flying near airports or in controlled airspace.

Question 166

LAANC stands for ____.

Answer 166

Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability

Question 167

____ provides near real-time processing of airspace authorization requests for drone operators nationwide. The system is designed to automatically approve most requests to operate in specific areas of airspace below designated altitudes.

Answer 167

LAANC

Question 168

The FAA website offers guidance for use regarding Laser incidents including:

Answer 168

1. Laser Hazards & Effects
2. Laser News, Laws & Civil Penalties
3. Pilot Safety Information Brochure
4. Law Enforcement Guidance for Identifying and Reporting Unauthorized Laser Illumination Incidents Against Aircraft

Question 169

The three requirements that must be met for any navigational system to be successful are:

Answer 169

1. Integrity
2. Accuracy
3. Availability and reliability

Question 170

____ refers to the ability of the system to show the true position of an aircraft at any time.

Answer 170

Accuracy

Question 171

____ refers to the ability of the system to monitor itself and provide timely warnings to users or shut itself down when it should not be used for navigation.

Answer 171

Integrity

Question 172

____ is the ability for NAVAIDs to provide the navigational services whenever it is needed by the user of the system. It is the percentage of time in a given period that the signal is expected to be received and usable.

Answer 172

Availability

Question 173

____ refers to the continuous reception of the signal.

Answer 173

Reliability

Question 174

The two method types of navigational approaches made by an aircraft to an airport are:

Answer 174

1. Visual reference (Visual Meteorological Conditions- VMC)
2. Use of instruments (Instrument Meteorological Conditions- IMC)

Question 175

A ____ is an approach using horizontal or vertical guidance and is a procedure established by the FAA that outlines the routes and altitudes to be flown by an aircraft for safe flight from takeoff to landing, these approaches can either be precision or non-precision.

Answer 175

An Instrument Approach

Question 176

A ____ is a procedure that results from an instrument approach when the visibility is greater than one mile. In such cases, a pilot is cleared by ATC to make an instrument approach to land, and the pilot then uses visual reference to complete the approach when conditions allow.

Answer 176

A Contact Approach

Question 177

A ____ is an approach when either part or all an instrument approach procedure is not completed (nor initiated) and the approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain. This type of approach can be made anytime ATC approves it, when the destination airport meets visibility requirements of three statue miles or greater, and the cloud ceiling is at least 1,000 feet above the ground level.

Answer 177

A Visual Approach

Question 178

____ are a series of predetermined maneuvers for the orderly transfer of an aircraft under instrument flight conditions from the beginning of the initial approach to a landing or to a point from which a landing may be made visually.

Answer 178

Instrument Approach Procedures

Question 179

A ____ is a preplanned instrument flight rule (IFR) air traffic control departure procedure printed for pilot or controller use in graphic form to provide obstacle clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure.

Answer 179

SID (Standard Instrument Departure)

Question 180

A ____ is a preplanned instrument flight rule air traffic control arrival procedure published for pilot use in graphic or textual form.

Answer 180

STAR (Standard Terminal Arrival)

Question 181

A precision instrument landing system provides both ____ and ____ electronic information to the pilot for purposes of aligning an aircraft with the centerline of a runway at the proper approach angle.

Answer 181

Vertical; Horizontal

Question 182

An ILS (Instrument Landing System) consists of :

Answer 182

1. Localizer
2. Glide Slope
3. Outer Marker
4. Middle Marker
5. Decision Height
6. Approach Light System

Question 183

A standard ILS ____ consists of a localizer, glide scope, Final Approach Fix or compass locator. marker system, and approach light system, and runway marking and lighting.

Answer 183

Category I (CAT I)

Question 184

A ____ approach requires an inner marker, as well as the systems associated with a CAT I ILS and has specific RVR requirements.

Answer 184

Category II (CAT II)

Question 185

A ____ approach is the most stringent and expensive approach.

Answer 185

Category III (CAT III)

Question 186

There are ____ categories for the ILS Category III approach.

Answer 186

Three

Question 187

The ILS CAT ____ approach allows a properly equipped aircraft and certified pilot to land when the visibility is negligible, known as autoland capability.

Answer 187

CAT IIIC

Question 188

RVR stands for ____.

Answer 188

Runway Visual Range

Question 189

____ is an instrumentally derived value, based on standard calibrations, that represents the horizontal distance a pilot will see down the runway from the approach end.

Answer 189

Runway Visual Range (RVR)

Question 190

Both ____ and ____ approaches require an airport to have RVR equipment, while a ____ ILS can use trained use trained visual observers or weather reporting equipment such as AWOS or ASOS.

Answer 190

1. CAT II and CAT III ILS
2. CATI ILS

Question 191

A ____ projects a radio frequency beam down the runway from the departure end toward the approach end.

Answer 191

Localizer or Localizer Directional Aid

Question 192

Localizer antennas are normally located more than ____ past the departure end of the runway having the approach, placing it outside of the runway end object free area.

Answer 192

1,000 feet

Question 193

Aircraft are normally spaced ____ apart due to spacing requirements relating to wake turbulence and signal interference.

Answer 193

3 miles apart

Question 194

The ____ is normally located at least 250 feet on either side of the instrument runway and 1,000 feet past the approach landing threshold. It provides the pilots with vertical height information and transmits a signal that normally results in a three-degree approach slope away from the runway end.

Answer 194

Glideslope

Question 195

The glideslope critical area is normally rectangular in shape and covers an area that is ____ by ____ directly in front of the antenna.

Answer 195

500 feet wide by 1,200 feet long

Question 196

The ____ provides the pilot with range information to the threshold. This is accomplished by their fixed distance location along the localizer approach path.

Answer 196

Marker Beacon System

Question 197

A ____ is used for air navigation primarily where bad terrain exists or if costs considerations dictate its use.

Answer 197

Non-directional Beacon (NDB)

Question 198

A ____ transmits VHF signals in a finite number of compass headings. VHF is used because it is not greatly affected by lightning, static, or reflection from terrain.

Answer 198

Very High Frequency Omni-directional Range (VOR)

Question 199

VOR signals are line of sight and are therefore affected by terrain blockage, or obstructions in close proximity to the station. Close proximity generally means within several thousand feet of the facility. For this reason, a VOR or TVOR located on an airport has a ____ to ____ radius protection zone around it to reduce signal interference.

Answer 199

750 to 1,000-foot

Question 200

A ____ provides course information similar to a localizer, but it is less accurate, while also being more flexible given the surrounding environment.

Answer 200

Simplified Directional Facility (SDF)

Question 201

The ____ is a satellite-based navigation system.

Answer 201

Global Positioning System (GPS)

Question 202

A minimum of ____ satellites is necessary to establish an accurate three-dimensional position.

Answer 202

Four

Question 203

____ is a navigation service using a combination of GPS satellites and the ____ geostationary satellites to improve the navigational service provided by GPS.

Answer 203

Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS)

Question 204

____ is a ground-based augmentation to GPS that focuses its service on the airport area (approx a 20-30 mile radius) for precision approach, DPs, and terminal area operations.

Answer 204

Ground-Based Augmentation System (GBAS)

Question 205

____ is a surveillance technique in which aircraft automatically provide, via a data link, data derived from on-board navigation and position fixing systems, including aircraft identification, four-dimensional position and additional data as appropriate.

Answer 205

Automatic Dependent Surveillance- Broadcast (ADS-B)

Question 206

ADS-B can be used in ____ and can serve to improve situational awareness for both air traffic control and aircraft operators equipped with the ability to receive and display ADS-B messages.

Answer 206

Ground Vehicles

Question 207

____ uses a continually rotating antenna mounted on a tower to transmit electromagnetic waves that reflect, or backscatter, from the surface to aircraft up to 60 miles away.

Answer 207

Primary Surveillance Radar

Question 208

The two types of surveillance radar that covers an airspace is :

Answer 208

1. Search Radar (termed ASR)
2. Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRB or ATCRB secondary radar)

Question 209

Air Route Surveillance Radar and Airport Surveillance Radar are primarily for ____ and ____ aircraft traffic.

Answer 209

Identifying and Separating

Question 210

The two major drawbacks that exist with primary radar systems are:

Answer 210

1. They are very susceptible to atmospheric conditions and the size of the target.
2. They do not provide information about the aircraft’s altitude.

Question 211

____ is designed to enhance safety on the airport during all-weather conditions. It is used by air traffic controllers to augment and confirm information obtained from visual surveillance of the airport surface or verbal reports of aircraft positions.

Answer 211

Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDE)

Question 212

____ is a radar-based that tracks ground movements and provides an automatic visual and audio alert to controllers when it detects potential collisions on airport runways.

Answer 212

Airport Surface Detection Equipment, Model 3/ Airport Movement Area Safety System (ASDE-3/ AMASS)

Question 213

____ purpose if to increase aviation safety by reducing runway incursions and surface collisions in the movement area.

Answer 213

Airport Surface Traffic Automation (ASTA)

Question 214

The five elements that compose the Airport Surface Traffic Automation system are:

Answer 214

1. A runway status light system
2. A surveillance data link
3. Aural and visual warnings
4. Data tags
5. A traffic planner

Question 215

In the event of an aircraft accident involving the use of any navigational aid, the system is immediately shut down until it is rechecked and certified by the ____.

Answer 215

FAA

Question 216

Because of the importance of navigational signals to pilots, Part ____ and Part ____ require airport operations to prevent the placement of objects or the construction of facilities that would affect the operation of an electronic or visual NAVAID or air traffic control facilities on the airport.

Answer 216

Part 139.333 and Part 139.329

Question 217

If a non-federal navigational aid is owned and operated by the airport, a NOTAM must be issued at least ____ hours before shutdown occurs for maintenance and in the case of an emergency, at least ____ hour(s) is able.

Answer 217

5 hours; 1 hour

Question 218

FAR Part ____ states that certificated airports “provide safeguards to prevent inadvertent entry to the movement area by unauthorized persons or vehicles and reasonable protection of persons and property from aircraft blasts.

Answer 218

FAR Part 139.335 (Public Protection)

Question 219

Part 139.337 presents to main requirements of certificated airports. First, in addition to always taking immediate action to alleviate wildlife hazards whenever they are detected, airports must undertake a wildlife hazard assessment when any of the following events occur on or near the airport:

Answer 219

1. An air carrier aircraft experiences multiple wildlife strikes.
2. An air carrier aircraft experiences substantial damage from striking wildlife.
3. An air carrier aircraft experiences an engine ingestion of wildlife.
4. Wildlife of a size, or in numbers, capable of causing any of these events is observed to have access to any airport flight pattern or aircraft movement area.

Question 220

Advisory Circular 15/5200-38 covers the ____.

Answer 220

Protocol for the Conduct and Review of Wildlife Hazard Site Visits, Wildlife Hazard Assessments, and Wildlife Hazard Management Plans

Question 221

A Wildlife Hazard Assessment is defined in Part 139.337 (c) as an ecological study and is conducted by a ____.

Answer 221

Qualified Airport Wildlife Biologists (QAWB)

Question 222

Wildlife Hazard Site Visits can be beneficial for any airport. A Site Visit has three parts that are:

Answer 222

1. Gathering airport information
2. Field Observation
3. A final report with recommendations

Question 223

If the airport is certificated and has had one of the events listed in Part 139.337 (b), then the airport must conduct a(n) ____.

Answer 223

Wildlife Hazard Assessment

Question 224

If a certificated airport has already had an Assessment conducted and a Wildlife Hazard Management Plan developed based on that Assessment, then the airport must evaluate the Plan following an event described in Part 139.337(b)(1)-(3). A QAWB may request the following information, if available, from the airport operator to prepare for a site visit:

Answer 224

1. Personnel and departments responsible for airport operations
2. Number of aircraft operations per year
3. Type of operations (i.e., private, civil, and military)
4. Recent airport construction or airfield changes
5. Past and present land management practices
6. Records of strikes and damage, flight delays, injuries, and fatalities due to strikes. Wildlife strike data may help determine hazardous species on an airport. Data on reported wildlife strikes are available through the FAA National Wildlife Strike Database. Airports may maintain their own local database which can be compared with the National Database. It is recommended that a Site Visit include an analysis of wildlife strike records. If possible, include summaries of strike data by species, time of day, on and off-site airport locations. At minimum, it is recommended that a wildlife strike analysis include, if available:
   a. Bird and mammal species involved
   b. Frequency distribution by month and year
   c. Number per 10,000 aircraft movements
   d. Location on the airfield
7. Any existing wildlife hazard management efforts and related maintenance procedures, if applicable. It is recommended that attempts to exclude, deter, or remove wildlife from the airport be noted. If not already in place, it is recommended that a wildlife log be created and maintained by airport operations to document all wildlife activity observed on the airport.
8. Description of current wildlife hazard threats or concerns
9. Presence or absence of perimeter fence, condition of fence and its effectiveness
10. Any current Federal and State depredation, wildlife control permits and annual permit reports
11. Current U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) topographic maps, airport maps or aerial photographs
12. Other pertinent information present in airport present in airport records.

Question 225

It is recommended that the QAWB provide the airport manager with a letter report summarizing field data and any management recommendations following the Site Visit. The findings in a Site Visit report could lead the FAA to require an Assessment. The Site Visit report should contain:

Answer 225

1. List of wildlife species or wildlife signs, such as deer tracks observed during the visit or identified as wildlife hazards by other sources.
2. Federal and State status of the species observed
3. Habitat features that may encourage wildlife to use the airport
4. Natural and artificial wildlife attractants on or near the airport
5. Strike data analysis
6. Recommendations to:
   a. Reduce wildlife hazards identified
   b. Conduct an Assessment, if needed
   c. Modify an existing Plan, if needed
   d. Improve communication and hazard advisories between Air
   Traffic Control, pilots, airlines, airport operations, and other
   airport users
   e. Consider potential short-term alteration of aircraft operations, if
   feasible, to avoid identified hazardous wildlife concentrations
   f. No action required, if applicable

Question 226

If the recommendation is that the airport needs a ____, then a Wildlife Hazard Assessment should be conducted by a QAWB

Answer 226

Wildlife Hazard Management Plan (WHMP)

Question 227

A Wildlife Hazard Assessment typically takes ____ to complete.

Answer 227

A year

Question 228

Wildlife Hazard Assessments promote an integrated approach for wildlife mitigation to effectively:

Answer 228

1. Modify the environment (e.g., changes in mowing and drainage clearance procedures)
2. Exclude wildlife (e.g., installation of fences, netting and perch excluders)
3. Implement harassment procedures (e.g., pyrotechnics and propane cannons)
4. Remove wildlife (e.g., lethal and capture and relocate methodologies)
5. Communicate wildlife hazard advisories through Air Traffic Control voice communications, Automatic Terminal information Service (ATIS), Pilot Reports (PIREPS), Notices to Airmen (NOTAMS)
6. Direct pilot responses to identified hazards
7. Report strikes or hazardous situations
8. Potentially alter flight routes, traffic patterns, or schedules to avoid locations and times of identified wildlife hazards.

Question 229

According to Part 139.337, the wildlife hazard management plan must include at least the following:

Answer 229

1. A list of individuals having authority and responsibility for implementing each aspect of the plan
2. A list prioritizing the following actions identified in the Assessment and target dates for their initiation and completion
   a. Wildlife population management
   b. Habitat modification
   c. Land use changes
3. Requirements for and, where applicable, copies of local, State, and Federal wildlife control permits
4. Identification of resources that the certificate holder will provide to implement the plan.
5. Procedures to be followed during air carrier operations that at a minimum includes:
   a. Designation of personnel responsible for implementing the procedures
   b. Provisions to conduct physical inspections of the aircraft movement
   areas and other areas critical to successfully manage known wildlife
   hazards before air carrier operations begin
   c. Wildlife hazard control measures
   d. Ways to communicate effectively between personnel conducting wildlife
   control or observing wildlife hazards and the air traffic control tower
6. Procedures to review and evaluate the wildlife hazard management plan every 12 consecutive calendar months or following a triggering event including:
   a. The plan’s effectiveness in dealing with known wildlife hazards on and
   in the airport’s vicinity
   b. Aspects of the wildlife hazards described in the wildlife hazard
   assessment that should be reevaluated
7. A training program conducted by a qualified airport wildlife biologist to provide airport personnel with the knowledge and skills needed to successfully carry out the wildlife hazard management plan

Question 230

If the airport notes the presence of a threatened or endangered species on airport, these extraordinary circumstances will require preparation of either a(n) ____ or a(n) ____ before the Wildlife Hazard Management Plan could receive FAA approval.

Answer 230

Environmental Assessment; Environmental Impact Statement

Question 231

____ contains a ranking of 25 species groups according to the hazard they present to aircraft.

Answer 231

AC 150/5200-33, Hazardous Wildlife Attractants on or Near Airports

Question 232

A wildlife attractant is defined by the FAA as, ____.

Answer 232

“Any human-made structure, land-use practice, or human made or natural geographic feature that can attract or sustain hazardous wildlife within the landing or departure airspace or the airport’s AOA. These attractants can include architectural features, landscaping, waste disposal sites, wastewater treatment facilities, agricultural or aquaculture activities, surface mining, or wetlands.”

Question 233

Other land-use practice on or near airports that potentially attract hazardous wildlife include:

Answer 233

1. Waste disposal operations
2. Water management facilities
3. Wetlands
4. Dredge spoil containment areas
5. Agricultural activities
6. Golf courses, landscaping, and other
7. Synergistic effects of surrounding land uses

Question 234

Wildlife control, generally a significant responsibility of airport operations personnel, consists of the following strategies:

Answer 234

1. Aircraft flight schedule modification
2. Habitat modification and exclusion
   a. Food
   b. Cover
   c. Water
   d. Exclusion techniques
3. Repellent and harassment techniques
4. Wildlife removal

Question 235

____ means changing the environment to make it less attractive or inaccessible to wildlife.

Answer 235

Habitat Modification

Question 236

The most effective means in which to exclude deer, livestock or other large mammals from the AOA is proper fencing. The FAA recommends a ____ to ____ chain link fence with 3-strand barbed wire outriggers.

Answer 236

10 to 12 foot

Question 237

When used repeatedly without added reinforcement, wildlife soon learn that the repellent devices or techniques are ____.

Answer 237

Harmeless

Question 238

Repellent Techniques include:

Answer 238

1. Wildlife patrols and runway sweeps in vehicles
2. Chemical repellents
3. Audio repellents
4. Visual repellents
5. Trained falcons and dogs to repel birds
6. Radio-controlled model aircraft to repel birds
7. Nonlethal projectiles to repel birds

Question 239

Habitat modification, exclusion, and repellent techniques are the first lines of action in any wildlife hazard management plan. However, these actions will not solve every problem; therefore, ____ must sometimes be used.

Answer 239

Wildlife Removal

Question 240

AC 150/5200-36 requires that personnel actively involved in implementing FAA-approved Wildlife Hazard Management Plans receive initial and recurrent training at least eight hours in duration by a qualified wildlife hazard damage management biologist in the following areas:

Answer 240

1. General survey of wildlife hazards to aviation based on the most recent annual FAA National Wildlife Strike Database Serial Report
2. Review of wildlife strikes, control actions, and observations at the airport over at least the past 12 months
3. Review of the airport’s Wildlife Hazard Assessment is to include
   a. Existing wildlife hazards and trends in wildlife abundance
   b. Status of any open or unresolved recommended action items for
   reducing identified wildlife hazards to air carrier operations within the
   past 12 months
4. Review of the airport’s Wildlife Hazard Management Plan, to include the following
   a. Airport-specific wildlife attractants, including man-made and natural
   features and habitat management practices of the last 12 months
   b. Review of the airport’s wildlife permits (local, State and Federal)
   c. Review of other airport-specific items:
   i. Wildlife hazard management strategies, techniques, and tools:
   1. Flight schedule modification
   2. Habitat modification, exclusion
   3. Repelling methods
   4. Wildlife population management
   ii. Responsibilities of airport personnel for:
   1. Reporting wildlife strikes, control actions, and wildlife
   observations
   2. Communicating with personnel who conduct wildlife control
   actions or who see wildlife hazards and air traffic control
   tower personnel and others who may require notification,
   such as airport operations or maintenance departments
   3. Documenting and reporting wildlife hazards seen during
   patrols and inspection and follow-up control efforts
   4. Documenting and reporting when no hazards are seen
   during patrols and inspections
5. Basic bird and mammal identification, stressing local hazardous and rare or endangered species of concern
6. For any airport personnel using pyrotechnics launchers or firearms, training on the following topics from a qualified individual:
   a. Safety, parts, and operation of pyrotechnic launchers
   b. Fundamentals of using pyrotechnics to safely and effectively disperse
   wildlife
   c. Personnel protective equipment
   d. Cleaning, storage, and transport of firearms and pyrotechnic launchers
   e. Applicable local, State, and Federal regulations on firearms,
   pyrotechnics launcher, and pyrotechnics
   f. Live fire training with pyrotechnic launchers including strategies for
   dispersing wildlife away from runways and aircraft movement corridors
   g. For any airport personnel using firearms, live fire training. This training
   is highly recommended from a qualified individual but not a
   requirement for this training program.
7. Any other training required by local, State, or Federal regulations

Question 241

If an aircraft does strike wildlife, the strike should be recorded to enable the airport to evaluate the effectiveness of any wildlife hazard management plan. Additionally, the strike should be reported to the FAA, According to AC 150/5200-32B, Reporting Wildlife Aircraft Strikes, a wildlife strike has occurred when:

Answer 241

1. A strike between wildlife and aircraft has been witnessed
2. Evidence or damage from a strike has been identified on an aircraft
3. Bird or other wildlife remains, whether in whole or in part, are found:
   a. Within 250 feet of a runway centerline or within 1,000 feet of a runway
   end unless reason for the animal’s death is identified or suspected
   b. On a taxiway or anywhere else on or off the airport that you have reason
   to believe was the result of a strike with an aircraft. Examples might be:
   i. A bird found in pieces from a prop strike on a taxiway
   ii. A carcass retrieved within 1 mile of an airport on the final approach
   or departure path after someone reported the bird falling out of the
   sky and a report of a probable wildlife strike
4. The presence of birds or other wildlife on or off the airport had a significant negative effect on a flight (i.e., aborted takeoff, aborted landing, high-speed emergency stop, or the aircraft left the pavement area to avoid collision with wildlife)

Question 242

To provide guidance to airport operators in reporting airport conditions, ____, ____ was developed.

Answer 242

AC 150/5200-28, Notices to Air Missions (NOTAMs) for Airport Operators

Question 243

The NOTAM system is not intended to be used to ____ on airport access for the purpose of controlling or managing noise, or to advertise ____.

Answer 243

Impose restrictions; data already published or charted

Question 244

Airports certification under 14 CFR Part 139 and federally obligated airports have requirements for maintaining records. As part of this requirement, airport operators must maintain a log of ____ they originate, modify, or cancel, so they are aware of how the airport is always represented to the aviation public.

Answer 244

NOTAMs

Question 245

NOTAM stands for ____.

Answer 245

Notices to Air Missions (revised in 2021 from Airmen to Air Missions)

Question 246

A NOTAM should be issued, making known as soon as practical, any condition, existing or anticipated, within ____ from the airport reference point that will ____, ____, or ____ a hazard during the arrival or departure of aircraft.

Answer 246

5 miles; prevent, restrict, or present a hazard

Question 247

Using authorized airport personnel will help expedite NOTAM processing because information obtained from unauthorized personnel will have to be ____ and ____ by the FSS before a NOTAM will be issued.

Answer 247

Confirmed and authenticated

Question 248

The possible elements of a NOTAM sentence, in order of appearance are:

Answer 248

1. Keyword
2. Attribute
3. Surface Segment
4. Facility or Service
5. Location
6. Lower Limit
7. Upper Limit
8. Condition
9. Reason
10. Remarks
11. Schedule
12. Start of Activity
13. End of Validity

Question 249

The mandatory elements in a NOTAM are:

Answer 249

1. Keyword
2. Attribute
3. Condition
4. Start of Activity
5. End of Validity

Question 250

When disseminating airport condition information the three methods available to airport operators are:

Answer 250

1. NOTAM Manager (preferred method)
2. ENII System
3. NOTAM issued via telephone

Question 251

____ NOTAM is used for routine maintenance events such as mowing, snow removal operations, and various types of short-term infrastructure maintenance and repairs.

Answer 251

Work in Progress (WIP)

Question 252

____ NOTAM is required when ARFF equipment is inoperative or unavailable and replacement equipment is not available The airport operator has ____ hours to replace or substitute equipment before the index changes.

Answer 252

Certificated Airport Aircraft Rescue and Fire Fighting; 48 hours

Question 253

Used to describe a temporary or hazard associated with a taxiway, taxiway lighting, markings, helipads, signage, and other attributes associated with a specific taxiway.

Answer 253

TWY (Taxiway) NOTAM

Question 254

Used to describe a temporary change or hazard caused by a moored balloon, kite, tower, crane, stack, obstruction, obstruction lighting outage, obstruction status, telecommunication tower light outage.

Answer 254

OBST (Obstructions, including obstruction lighting outages) NOTAM

Question 255

Used to describe a temporary change or hazard associated with an apron, ramp or taxi lane, lighting, markings, helipad, signage and other attributes associated with a specific apron.

Answer 255

APRON NOTAM

Question 256

Used to describe a temporary change or hazard associated with landing and takeoff surfaces to include runway lighting, signage, and other airport services or attributes associated with a specific runway.

Answer 256

RWY (Runway) NOTAM

Question 257

Used to describe a temporary change or hazard associated with change in service levels, such as operating hours, air traffic management services, or airport services.

Answer 257

SVC (Services) NOTAM

Question 258

Used to describe a temporary change or hazard associated caused by changes in the status of ground-based radio navigational aids and Global Navigation Satellite Systems (GNSS) (except for area navigation (RNAV) approach anomalies).

Answer 258

NAV (Navigation Aids) NOTAM
(NOTE Airport Operators may not have rights to submit NOTAMS using this keyword)

Question 259

Used to describe a temporary change or hazard or potential hazard on or within 5 statue miles of an airport, heliport, or maneuvering areas that is not associated with a specific movement area surface. Such hazards may include aerodrome closures, lighting not associated with a specific movement area surface, aerodrome services (fuel, customs, ARFF), helicopter platforms, wildlife hazards, and meteorological equipment (wind indicators) or services.

Answer 259

AD (Aerodrome) NOTAM
(NOTE When using AD, ensure it is accompanied by the acronym for Airport (AP) if a complete aerodrome closure is implied)

Question 260

Used to describe a temporary change or hazard caused by communication outlet commissioning, decommissioning, outage, unavailability, and air-to-ground frequencies.

Answer 260

COM (Communications) NOTAM
(NOTE Airport Operators may not have rights to submit NOTAMS using this keyword)

Question 261

____ NOTAM is submitted for conditions considered to be hazardous or potentially hazardous to the aircraft operator, such as reporting damage or inoperability of the EMAS installed at the airports.

Answer 261

Engineered Materials Arresting System (EMAS)

Question 262

AC ____ applies mostly to airports during construction.

Answer 262

AC 150/5370-2, Operational Safety on Airports During Construction

Question 263

AC 150-5370-2, Operational Safety on Airports During Construction, is mandatory for those airport construction projects receiving funds under ____.

Answer 263

Airport Improvement Program (AIP)

Question 264

If the FAA requires a Safety Risk Assessment, the airport operator must at a minimum:

Answer 264

1. Notify the appropriate FAA Airports Regional or District Office during the project “scope development” phase of any project requiring a CSPP.
2. Provide documents identified by the FAA as necessary to conduct SRM.
3. Participate in the SRM process for airport projects.
4. Provide a representative to participate on the SRM panel.
5. Ensure that all applicable SRM identified risks elements are recorded and mitigated within the CSPP.

Question 265

For responsibility pertaining to construction activities on the airport, the airport operator must:

Answer 265

1. Develop a Construction Safety and Phasing Plan (CSPP)
2. Require, review and approve the Safety Plan Compliance Document (SPCD) by the contractor that indicates how it will comply with the CSPP and provide details that cannot be determined before contract award.
3. Convene a pre-construction meeting with the construction contractor, consultant, airport employees and, if appropriate, tenant sponsor and other tenants to review and discuss project safety before beginning construction activity.
4. Ensure contact information is accurate for each representative or point of contact identified in the CSPP and SPCD.
5. Hold weekly or, if necessary, daily safety meetings with all affected parties to coordinate activities.
6. Notify users, especially ARFF personnel, and FAA ATO personnel of construction and conditions that may adversely affect the operational safety of the airport via Notices to Air Missions (NOTAM) and other methods, as appropriate. Convene a meeting for review and discussion if necessary.
7. Ensure construction personnel know applicable airport procedures and changes to those procedures that may affect their work.
8. Ensure that all temporary construction signs are located per the scheduled list for each phase of the project.
9. Ensure construction contractors and subcontractors undergo training required by the CSPP and SPCD.
10. Ensure vehicle and pedestrian operations addressed in the CSPP and SPCD are coordinated with airport tenants, the airport traffic control tower (ATCT), and construction contractors.
11. At certificated airports, ensure each CSPP and SPCD is consistent with Part 139.
12. Conduct inspections sufficiently frequently to ensure construction contractors and tenants comply with the CSPP and SPCD and that there are no altered construction activities that could create potential safety hazards.
13. Take immediate action to resolve safety deficiencies.
14. At airport subject to 49 CFR Part 1542, Airport Security, ensure construction access complies with the security requirements of that regulation.
15. Notify appropriate parties when conditions exists that invoke provisions of the CSPP and SPCD (for example, implementation of low-visibility operations)
16. Ensure prompt submittal of a Notice of Proposed Construction or Alteration (Form 7460-1) for conducting an aeronautical study of potential obstructions such as tall equipment (cranes, concrete pumps, other), stock piles, and haul routes. A separate form may be filled for each potential obstruction, or one form may be filed describing the entire construction area and maximum equipment height. In the latter case, a separate form must be filed for any object beyond or higher than the originally evaluated area or original height.
17. Ensure prompt transmission of the Airport Sponsor Strategic Event Submission, FAA Form 6000-26, to assure proper coordination for NAS Strategic Interruption per Service Level Agreement with ATO.
18. Promptly notify the FAA Airports Regional or District Office of any proposed changes to the CSPP prior to implementation of the change. Changes to the CSPP require review and approval by the airport operator and the FAA.

Question 266

According to the AC, the construction contractor is responsible for complying with the CSPP and SPCD. The contractor must:

Answer 266

1. Submit a Safety Plan Compliance Document (SPCD) to the airport operator describing how it will comply with the requirements of the CSPP and supply any details that could not be determined before contract award.
2. Have available at all times copies of the CSPP and SPCD for reference by the airport operator and its representatives, and by subcontractors and contractor employees.
3. Ensure that construction personnel are familiar with safety protocol and regulations on the airport. Provide a point of contact who will coordinate an immediate response to correct any construction-related activity that may adversely affect the operational safety of the airport. Many projects will require 24-hour coverage.
4. Identify in the SPCD the contractor’s on-site employees responsible for monitoring compliance with the CSPP and SPCD during construction. At least one of these employees must be on-site when active construction is taking place.
5. Conduct sufficient inspections to ensure construction personnel comply with CSPP and SPCD and that there are no altered construction activities that could create potential safety hazards.
6. Restrict movements of construction vehicles and personnel permitted construction areas by flagging, barricading, erecting temporary fencing, or providing escorts, as appropriate, and as specified in the CSPP and SPCD.
7. Ensure that no contractor employees, employees of subcontractors or suppliers, or other persons enter any part of the air operations area (AOA) from the construction site unless authorized.
8. Ensure prompt submittal through the airport operator of Form 7460-1 for the purpose of conducting an aeronautical study of contractor equipment such as tall equipment (cranes, concrete pumps, and other equipment), stock piles, and haul routes when different from cases previously filed by the airport operator.
9. Ensure that all necessary safety mitigations are understood by all parties involved, and any special requirements of each construction phase will be fulfilled per the approved timeframe.
10. Participate in pre-construction meetings to review construction limits, safety mitigations, NOTAMs, and understand all special airport operational needs during each phase of the project.

Question 267

According to the AC, if a tenant such as airline operators, fixed base operators, or FAA ATO/Technical Operations are sponsoring construction then they are strongly encouraged to:

Answer 267

1. Develop, or have a consultant develop, a project specific CSPP and submit it to the airport operator. The airport operator may forgo a complete CSPP submittal and instead incorporate appropriate operational safety principles and measures addressed in the advisory circular within their tenant lease agreements.
2. In coordination with its contractor, develop an SPCD and submit it to the airport operator for approval issued prior to issuance of a Notice to Proceed.
3. Ensure that construction personnel are familiar with safety procedures and regulations on the airport during all phases of the construction.
4. Provide a point of contact of who will coordinate an immediate response to correct any construction-related activity that may adversely affect the operational safety of the airport.
5. Identify in the SPCD the contractor’s on-site employees responsible for monitoring compliance with the CSPP and SPCD during construction. At least one of these employees must be on-site when active construction is taking place.
6. Ensure that no tenant or contractor employees, employees of subcontractors or suppliers, or any other persons enter any part of the AOA from the construction site unless authorized.
7. Restrict movement of construction vehicles to construction areas by flagging and barricading, erecting temporary fencing, or providing escorts, as appropriate, as specified in the CSPP and SPCD.
8. Ensure prompt submittal through the airport operator of Form 7460-1 for conducting and aeronautical study of contractor equipment such as tall equipment (cranes, concrete pumps, other), stock piles, and haul routes.
9. Participate in pre-construction meetings to review construction limits, safety mitigations, NOTAMs, and understand all special airport operational needs during each phase of the project

Question 268

Developed concurrently with project design, the CSPP should be formally submitted to the FAA when the project design is 80% to 90% complete, in advance of project commencement. The CSPP should address the following:

Answer 268

1. Coordination
   a. Contractor progress meetings
   b. Scope or schedule changes
   c. FAA Air Traffic Organization (ATO) coordination
2. Phasing
   a. Phase elements
   b. Construction safety drawings
3. Areas and operations affected by construction activity
   a. Identification of affected areas
   b. Mitigation of effects
4. Protection of navigational aids (NAVAIDs)
5. Contractor access
   a. Location of stockpiled construction materials
   b. Vehicle and pedestrian operations
6. Wildlife management
   a. Trash
   b. Standing water
   c. Tall grass and seeds
   d. Poorly maintained fencing and gates
   e. Disruption of existing wildlife habitat
7. Foreign object debris (FOD) management
8. Hazardous materials (HAZMAT) management
9. Notification of construction activities
   a. Maintenance of list of responsible representatives or points
   of contact
   b. Notices to Airmen (NOTAM)
   c. Emergency notification procedures
   d. Coordination with ARFF personnel
   e. Notification to the FAA
10. Inspection requirements
    a. Daily (or more frequent) inspections
    b. Final inspections
11. Underground utilities
12. Penalties
13. Special conditions
14. Runway and taxiway visual aids (Marking, lighting, signs, and visual NAVAIDs)
    a. General
    b. Markings
    c. Lighting and visual NAVAIDs
    d. Signs, temporary, including orange construction signs, and permanent signs
15. marking and signs for access routes
16. Hazard marking and lighting
    a. Purpose
    b. Equipment
17. Work zone lighting for nighttime construction (if applicable)
18. Protection of runway and taxiway safety areas, object free areas, obstacle free zones, and approach and departure surfaces
    a. Runway Safety Area (RSA)
    b. Runway Object Free Area (ROFA)
    c. Taxiway Safety Area (TSA)
    d. Taxiway Object Free Area (TOFA)
    e. Obstacle Free Zone (OFZ)
    f. Runway approach and departure surfaces
19. Other limitations on construction
    a. Prohibitions
    b. Restrictions

Question 269

The SPCD, rather than duplicating information contained in the CSPP, should address the following:

Answer 269

1. Coordination. Discuss details of proposed safety meetings with the airport operator and with the contractor employees and subcontractors
2. Phasing. Discuss proposed construction schedule elements, including:
   a. Duration of each phase
   b. Daily start and finish of construction, including “night only” construction
   c. Duration of construction activities during:
   i. Normal runway operations
   ii. Closed runway operations
   iii. Modified runway “Aircraft reference code” usage
3. Areas and operations affected by the construction activity. These areas and operations should be identified in the CSPP and should not require an entry in the SPCD.
4. Protection of NAVAIDs. Discuss specific methods proposed to protect operating NAVAIDs
5. Contractor access. Provide the following:
   a. Details on how the contractor will maintain the integrity of the airport security fence
   b. Listing of individuals requiring driver training (for certificated airports and as requested)
   c. Radio communications.
   i. Types of radios and backup capabilities
   ii. Who will be monitoring radios
   iii. Who to contact if the ATCT cannot reach the contractor’s
   designated person by radio
   d. Details on how the contractor will escort material delivery
   vehicles
6. Wildlife management. Discuss the following:
   a. Methods and procedures to prevent wildlife attraction
   b. Wildlife reporting procedures
7. Foreign Object Debris (FOD) management. Discuss equipment and methods for control of FOD, including construction debris and dust
8. Hazardous Materials (HAZMAT) management. Discuss equipment and methods for responding to hazardous spills
9. Notification of construction activities. Provide the following:
   a. Contractor points of contact
   b. Contractor emergency contact
   c. Listing of tall or other requested equipment proposed for use
   on the airport and the timeframe for submitting 7460-1 forms
   not previously submitted by the airport operator
   d. Batch plant details, including 7460-1 submittal
10. Inspection requirements. Discuss daily (or more frequently) inspections and special inspection procedures
11. Underground utilities. Discuss proposed methods of identifying and protecting underground utilities
12. Penalties. Penalties should be identified in the CSPP and should not require and entry in the SPCD
13. Special conditions. Discuss proposed actions for each special condition identified in the CSPP
14. Runway and taxiway visual aids. Including marking, lighting, signs, and visual NAVAIDs. Discuss proposed visual aids including the following:
    a. Equipment and methods for covering signage and airfield lights
    b. Equipment and methods for temporary closure markings (paint, fabric, other)
    c. Temporary orange construction signs
    d. Types of temporary Visual Guidance Slope Indicators (VGSI)
15. Marking and signs for access routes. Discuss proposed methods of demarcating access routes for vehicle drivers
16. Hazard marking and lighting. Discuss proposed equipment and methods for identifying excavation areas.
17. Work zone lighting for nighttime construction (if applicable). discuss proposed equipment, locations, aiming, and shielding to prevent interference with air traffic control and aircraft operations
18. Protection of runway and taxiway safety areas, object free areas, obstacle free zones, and approach or departure surfaces. discuss proposed methods of identifying, demarcating, and protecting airport surfaces including:
    a. Equipment and methods for maintaining Taxiway Safety Areas standards
    b. Equipment and methods to ensure the safe passage of aircraft where Taxiway Safe Area or Taxiway Object Free Area standards cannot be maintained
    c. Equipment and methods for separation of construction operations from aircraft operations, including details of barricades
19. Other limitations on construction should be identified in the CSPP and should not require an entry in the SPCD

Question 270

Runways and taxiways should remain in use by aircraft to the maximum extent possible without compromising safety. Pre-meetings with the FAA ATO will support operational simulations and identify areas and operations affected by the construction which helps to determine possible safety problems. The affected areas should be identified in the construction safety drawings for each construction phase. Areas of particular concern are:

Answer 270

1. Closing, or Partial Closing, of Runways, Taxiways and Aprons, and Displaced Thresholds
2. Partially Closed Runways
3. Displaced Threshold
4. Closing of aircraft rescue and firefighting access routes
5. Closing of access routes used by airport and airline support vehicles
6. Interruption of utilities, including water supplies for firefighting
7. Approach or departure surfaces affected by heights of objects
8. Construction areas, storage areas, and access routes near runways, taxiways, aprons, or helipads

Question 271

Establishment of specific procedures is necessary to maintain the safety and efficiency of airport operations. The CSPP must address:

Answer 271

1. Temporary changes to runway or taxi operations
2. Detours for ARFF and other airport vehicles
3. Maintenance of essential utilities
4. Temporary changes to air traffic control procedures. Such changes must be coordinated with the ATO

Question 272

The CSPP must detail the areas to which the contractor must have access and explain how contractor personnel will access those areas. The CSPP must specifically address:

Answer 272

1. Location of stockpiled Construction Materials
   a. Stockpiled materials and equipment storage are not
   permitted within the RSA and OFZ, and if possible, should not
   be permitted within the Object Free Area (OFA) of an
   operational runway
2. Vehicle and Pedestrian Operations
   a. The CSPP should include specific vehicle and pedestrian
   requirements. Vehicles and pedestrians access routes for
   airport construction projects must be controlled to prevent
   inadvertent or unauthorized entry of persons, vehicles, or
   animals onto the AOA. The airport operator should
   coordinate requirements for vehicle operations with airport
   tenants, contractors, and the FAA air traffic manager. In
   regard to vehicle and pedestrian operations, the CSPP
   should include the following, with associated training
   requirements:
   i. Construction Site Parking
   ii. Construction Equipment Parking
   iii. Access and Haul Roads
   iv. Marking and lighting of vehicles in accordance with
   AC 150/5210-5, Painting, Marking, and Lighting of
   vehicles used on an airport
   v. Description of proper vehicle operations on various
   areas under normal, lost communications, and
   emergency conditions
   vi. Required escorts

Question 273

Maintenance of the secured area of the airport during construction includes:

Answer 273

1. Fencing and Gates
   a. Airport operators and contractors must take care to maintain
   security during construction when access points are created
   in the security fencing to permit the passage of construction
   vehicles or personnel
2. Badging Requirements
   a. Airports subject to 49 CFR Part 1542, Airport Security, must
   meet standards for access control, movement of ground
   vehicles, and identification of construction contractor and
   tenant personnel

Question 274

Contractor personnel must be aware of and avoid construction activities that can create wildlife hazards on airports, such as:

Answer 274

1. Trash
2. Food scraps must be collected from construction personnel
3. Standing water
4. Tall grass and seeds
5. Requirements for turf establishment can be at odds with
   requirements for wildlife control
6. Poorly maintained fencing and gates
7. Disruption of existing wildlife habitat
8. While this will frequently be unavoidable due to the nature of the project, the CSPP should specify under what circumstances (location, wildlife type) contractor personnel should immediately notify the airport operator of wildlife sightings

Question 275

Construction contractors must not leave or place ____ on or near active aircraft movement areas.

Answer 275

FOD

Question 276

Contractors operating construction vehicles and equipment on the airport must be prepared to expeditiously ____ and ____ spills resulting from fuel or hydraulic fluid leaks.

Answer 276

Contain; Clean-up

Question 277

The CSPP and SPCD must detail procedures for the immediate notification of airport users and the FAA of any conditions adversely affecting the operational safety of the airport. It must address the notification actions described below:

Answer 277

1. List of Responsible Representatives or points of contact for all involved parties, and procedures for contacting each of them, including after hours.
2. NOTAMs
3. Emergency notification procedures for medical, firefighting, and police response
4. Coordination with ARFF

Question 278

The CSPP must detail procedures for coordinating through the airport sponsor with ARFF personnel, mutual aid providers, and other emergency services if construction requires:

Answer 278

1. The deactivation and subsequent reactivation of water lines or fire hydrants, or
2. The rerouting, blocking and restoration of emergency access routes, or
3. The use of hazardous materials on the airfield

Question 279

Inspections should be conducted at least ____, but more frequently if necessary, to ensure conformance with the ____.

Answer 279

Daily; CSPP

Question 280

The ____ or ____ must include procedures for locating and protecting existing underground utilities, cables, wires, pipelines, and other underground facilities in excavation areas.

Answer 280

CSPP; SPCD

Question 281

The CSPP should detail ____ provisions for noncompliance with airport rules and regulations and the safety plans. I.E. (If a vehicle is involved in a runway incursion.)

Answer 281

Penalty

Question 282

The CSPP must detail any ____ conditions that affect the operation of the airport and will require the activation of any special procedures and other activities requiring construction suspension or resumption. (Low- visibility, snow removal, aircraft accident, etc.)

Answer 282

Special

Question 283

Airport operations personnel should understand the following three most recurring threats to safety during construction:

Answer 283

1. Safety area encroachments
2. Improper ground vehicle operations
3. Unmarked or uncovered holes and trenches in the vicinity of aircraft operating surfaces

Question 284

Requirements for identifying, marking, and lighting construction and other unserviceable areas are to be in a manner authorized by the Administrator, and each certificate holder must:

Answer 284

1. Mark and, if appropriate, light in a manner authorized by the Administration
   i. Each construction area and unserviceable area that is on or
   adjacent to any movement area or any other area of the
   airport on which air carrier aircraft may be operatedii. Each item of construction equipment and each construction roadway, which may affect the safe movement of aircraft on the airport; andiii. Any area adjacent to a NAVAID that, if traversed, could cause derogation of the signal or the failure of the NAVAID; and
2. Provide procedures, such as a review of all appropriate utility plans prior to construction, for avoiding damage to existing utilities, cables, wires, conduits, pipelines, or other underground facilities.

Question 285

With regards to noncomplying conditions, in addition to reporting airport conditions, if conditions cannot be corrected, Part 139.343 requires preventing ____ operations in the affected areas.

Answer 285

Air Carrier

Question 286

Part 139.343 means, for instance, that if proper clearance or restrictions cannot be maintained while construction or maintenance activity is underway, then at a minimum, appropriate action should be taken to:

Answer 286

1. Close runways, taxiways, or aprons
2. Relocate or displace thresholds temporarily
3. Perform work at night or during periods of minimal aircraft activity
4. Close affected areas to certain types of aircraft
5. Restrict aircraft use by weight, wingspan, approach speed, or other characteristics
6. Shut down or restrict use of navigational or approach aids