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AAAE ACE Airfield Operations > Module 1 > Flashcards

Module 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Class I Airports serve ____.

A
  1. Scheduled Large Air Carrier Aircraft
  2. Unscheduled Large Air Carrier Aircraft
  3. Scheduled Small Air Carrier Aircraft
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2
Q

Class II Airports serve ____.

A
  1. Unscheduled Large Air Carrier Aircraft

2. Scheduled Small Air Carrier Aircraft

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3
Q

Class III Airports serve ____.

A

Scheduled Small Air Carrier Aircraft

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4
Q

Class IV Airports serve ____.

A

Unscheduled Large Air Carrier Aircraft

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5
Q

AFFF is ____.

A

Aqueous Film Forming Foam

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6
Q

Part 139 Certification requirements does not apply to ____.

A
  1. Airports serving scheduled air carrier operations only by reason of being designated as an alternate airport.
  2. Airports operated by the United States.
  3. Airports located in the State of Alaska that only serve scheduled small air carrier aircraft

4 Airports located in the State of Alaska during periods of time when not serving operations of large air carrier aircraft.

  1. Heliports
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7
Q

For certification the operator of an airport that is required to be certificated under Part 139 must prepare and submit to the Regional office a ____ and ____.

A

Form 5280-1 Application for Certification and two copies of the ACM

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8
Q

The ____ is the only organization authorized to modify the Class Certificate of an airport.

A

FAA

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9
Q

An airport inspection may be needed when ____ AOC and not needed when ____ the AOC.

A

Upgrading, Downgrading

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10
Q

The certificate holder can face ____ and ____ if the Airport inspection is interfered with or refused.

A

Violate of Part 139 Regulations

Legal Enforcement Action

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11
Q

The FAA takes several factors into consideration to determine the appropriate Class for an airport. These include:

A
  1. Letter of Intent from the air carrier
  2. Aircraft size, number of passenger seats, and numbers of operations per day or within a 3-month period
  3. ARFF requirements for the aircraft and intended operations
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12
Q

An airport without air carrier service requiring certification under Part 139 can be certificated and placed in ____.

A

Inactive Status

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13
Q

To return to Active Status, the airport must be:

A
  1. Scheduled to resume air carrier service

2. Undergo a full airport inspection by the FAA

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14
Q

An airport certificated under Part 139, which does not have air carrier service and is unable to comply with the provisions of the current Part 139, may ____ its AOC to the FAA with no adverse conditions affecting a future certification.

A

Surrender

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15
Q

An AOC is valid and effective until the certificate holder surrenders the certificate, or the Administrator ____ or ____ the certificate.

A

Suspends, Revokes

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16
Q

The certificate holder of an airport in “Inactive Status” must notify the Administrator in writing of resumption of scheduled or unscheduled air carrier activity at least ____ days in advance of such activity.

A

90 Days

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17
Q

A ____ must be conducted to remove the airport from “Inactive Status” prior to the resumption of air service at the airport.

A

Complete Inspection

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18
Q

A deviation from the approved ACM must be reported the FAA ____ and the certificate holder provides the notification in writing when requested.

A

as soon as possible but at least within 14 days of the emergency

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19
Q

Except as otherwise authorized by the Administrator, each certificate holder must include in the ACM a description of ____.

A

Operating Procedures
Facilities and Equipment
Responsibility assignments
And any other information needed by Airport personnel

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20
Q

Part 139.203 lists the ____.

A

Contents of the Airport Certification Manual

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21
Q

Part 139.201 lists the ____.

A

General Requirements for the Airport Certification Manual

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22
Q

Part 139.205 lists the ____.

A

Amendments of the Airport Certification Manual

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23
Q

The airport should be inspected at least daily during times when aircraft activity is minimal to create the least impact on airport operations.

A

Regularly Scheduled Inspection

24
Q

Those activities and facilities that have been identified to require continuous surveillance should be inspected any time personnel are in the air operations area. Hazardous conditions can occur at any time and in a short period of time.

A

Continuous Surveillance Inspection

25
Q

Inspection of activities and facilities can be conducted on a regularly scheduled basis, but less frequently than daily. The time interval could be weekly, monthly, or quarterly.

A

Periodic Condition Inspection

26
Q

Inspection of activities and facilities should be conducted after receipt of a complaint or when an unusual condition or event occurs on the airport, such as a significant meteorological event or an accident or other incident.

A

Special Inspection

27
Q

At least ____ are conducted during each 24-hour period to enable personnel to inspect during both daytime and nighttime conditions

A

Two Self-inspections

28
Q

Airport self-inspection records must be maintained for ____.

A

12 Months

29
Q

Part ____ deals with Airport Security for airport operators who service and facilitate domestic air carriers, foreign air carriers, and both domestic and foreign air carriers.

A

Part 1542

30
Q

ASP stands for ____.

A

Airport Security Plan

31
Q

Part 139 airports are also required to have a ____ that is reviewed and approved by the FAA Airport District Office/Certification Inspectors.

A

Marking, Signage, and Lighting Plan

32
Q

VMC stands for ____.

A

Visual Meteorological Conditions- 1,000ft ceiling and 3 miles visibility

33
Q

IMC stands for ____.

A

Instrument Meteorological Conditions

34
Q

The degree of hotness or coldness as measured on some definite scale by means of various types of thermometers.

A

Temperature

35
Q

The pressure exerted by the atmosphere as a consequence of gravitational attraction exerted upon the “column” of air lying directly above the point in question.

A

Atmospheric Pressure (A.K.A Barometric Pressure)

36
Q

The temperature to which a sample of air must be cooled, while the mixing ratio and barometric pressure remain constant, in order to attain saturation with respect to water.

A

Dew Point (A.K.A dew-point temperature)

37
Q

An ____ is a continuous broadcast of recorded information in selected terminal areas such as meteorological conditions.

A

ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information System)

38
Q

PIREP stands for ____.

A

Pilot Report

39
Q

A METAR report includes:

A
  1. Airport Identifier
  2. Time of observation
  3. Wind
  4. Visibility
  5. Runway Visual Range (RVR)
  6. Present Weather phenomena
  7. Sky Conditions
  8. Temp
  9. Dewpoint
  10. Altimeter Setting
40
Q

A more sophisticated observing system with a higher level of computer processing and more quality control checks and funded federally.

A

ASOS

41
Q

An older system with less sophistication and funded at the state or municipal level.

A

AWOS

42
Q

Any sudden change in wind velocity or direction and is usually associated with weather conditions.

A

Wind Shear

43
Q

LLWAS stands for ____.

A

Low Level Windshear Alert System

44
Q

____ is a system of guidance, control, and regulation of all aircraft, ground vehicles, and personnel on the movement areas during low visibility conditions.

A

SMGCS (Surface Movement Guidance Control Plan)

45
Q

SMGCS plans are required at airports where scheduled air carriers are authorized to conduct operations when the visibility is ____.

A

Less than 1,200 feet RVR

46
Q

Guidance and regulation of aircraft and vehicles during low visibility conditions are accomplished through:

A
  1. Taxiway Centerline Lights
  2. Surface Markings
  3. Stop Bar Lights
  4. Clearance Bar Lights
  5. Elevated and In-pavements Runway Guard Lights
  6. Hold Position Lights
47
Q

U.S. airlines operating domestic flights from a permitting aircraft can not remain on the tarmac for more than ____ without deplaning passengers.

A

Three Hours

48
Q

IROPs plans must be updated and submitted every ____.

A

Five Years

49
Q

____ refers to the ability of an airport component to handle a given volume or magnitude of traffic within a specified time period.

A

Capacity

50
Q

Airfield Capacity is affected by:

A
  1. Aircraft Mix
  2. Annual Service Volume
  3. Weather Conditions
  4. Demand
  5. Gates
  6. Location and type of exit taxiways
  7. Arrival and departure mix
  8. Type of NAVAIDs available
  9. Percent of touch-and-go operations
  10. Runway-use configuration
51
Q

Conducted when an aircraft either takes off, lands, or makes an approach and is unable to land.

A

Operation

52
Q

Length of time an operation is postponed from its expected schedule.

A

Delay

53
Q

Rate at which aircraft can operate without regard to any delay.

A

Throughput Capacity

54
Q

Number of aircraft operations an airfield can accommodate with no more than some agreed upon or acceptable amount of average delay.

A

Practical Capacity

55
Q

Used to hold traffic at the departure airport when airspace or airfield capacity is expected to be reduced at the destination airport.

A

Ground Delay

56
Q

Used as a last resort, because aircraft are held on the ground for an unknown period of time.

A

Ground Stop

57
Q

A block of time allocated to an airport user to perform an aircraft operation.

A

Slot

AAAE ACE Airfield Operations (3 decks)

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