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AAAE ACE Airfield Operations > Module 2 > Flashcards

Module 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Airports must provide sufficient and qualified____ to comply with its ACM requirements.

A

Personnel

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2
Q

The two types of airfield pavement are ____ and ____.

A

Flexible, Rigid

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3
Q

Tends to compress under load.

A

Flexible

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4
Q

Resists compression under load.

A

Rigid

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5
Q

Types of flexible pavement

A

Grass, dirt, gravel, and asphalt

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6
Q

Airport pavements are designed, constructed, and maintained for _____ and ______.

A
  1. To support the critical loads imposed on them

2. To produce a smooth, skid resistant, and safe-riding surface.

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7
Q

Two factors contributing to pavement deterioration are ____ and ____.

A
  1. Weathering

2. Aircraft Loads

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8
Q

Flexible Pavement Cracking-

A 
Longitudinal and transverse
Block 
Reflection
Alligator or fatigue
Slippage
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9
Q

Flexible Pavement Disintegration-

A 
Raveling
Weathering
Potholes
Asphalt stripping
Jet blast erosion
Patching and utility cut patch
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10
Q

Flexible Pavement Distortion-

A 
Rutting
Corrugation
Shoving
Depressions
Swelling
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11
Q

Flexible Pavement Loss of Skid Resistance-

A

Polished aggregate
Contaminants
Bleeding
Fuel or Oil Spillage

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12
Q

Rigid Pavement Cracking-

A 
Longitudinal, transverse and diagonal
Corner Breaks
Durability 
Shrinkage
Shattered slab
Intersecting
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13
Q

Rigid Pavement Disintegration-

A 
Scaling
Map Cracking
Alkali-Silica Reactivity (ASR)
Joint Spalling
Corner Spalling
Blowups
Popouts
Patching
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14
Q

____ is any condition that enables incompressible foreign material such as soil or rocks to accumulate in the joints or that allows infiltration of water.

A

Joint seal damage

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15
Q

Rigid Pavement Distortion-

A

Pumping
Settlement
Faulting

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16
Q

Rigid Pavement Loss of Skid Resistance-

A

Polished aggregates

Contaminants

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17
Q

____ is a blend of asphalt and well-graded aggregates.

A

Hot-mix Asphalt

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18
Q

____ is a light application of emulsified asphalt applied to an existing pavement to provide a bond with an overlying course, such as and HMA overlay.

A

Tack Coat

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19
Q

____ is a blend of Portland cement, fine and coarse aggregate, and water, with or without additives.

A

Concrete

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20
Q

Part 139.305 (a) (1) requires pavement lips be no more than ____ in difference in elevation

A

Three inches

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21
Q

A hole on the airfield must not be greater than ____, ____ and ____.

A

Five inches wide, three inches deep and has a slope greater than 45 degrees

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22
Q

Aircraft landing distances may be increased by ____ or more on wet pavement.

A

15 percent

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23
Q

Occurs on any surface, generally at high speed. Water builds up in front of a rolling tire, which allows it to ride on a cushion of water, losing contact with the runway surface.

A

Dynamic Hydroplaning

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24
Q

Occurs at lower speeds, when a tire encounters a slippery surface from oils, grease, dirt and rubber combine with water or other liquid.

A

Viscous Hydroplaning

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25
Q

Caused by rubber heat build up under a tire due to friction. Mainly happens during landing.

A

Rubber Reversion

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26
Q

Examples of ways to mitigate hydroplaning and skids

A
  1. Pavement Grooving
  2. Porous Friction Course
  3. Wire Combing
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27
Q

Rubber can removed from runways using the ____ methods.

A

High-pressure water spray
Chemical Solvents
High-velocity abrasive impact techniques
Mechanical Grinding

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28
Q

Provides a spot check of the pavement surface, rather than a continuous graphic record of friction.

A

Decelerometers

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29
Q

Eliminates potential human error by automatically computing and recording friction averages for each one-third of the runway.

A

Electronic Decelerometer

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30
Q

Used as a backup. Requires longer runway down times and do not provide automatic friction averages.

A

Mechanical Decelerometer

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31
Q

Recommended for pavement surfaces covered with contaminants, as they provide a continuous graphic record of the pavement surface friction with averages for each one-third zone of the runway. May be self-contained or towed.

A

Continuous Friction Measuring Equipment (CFME)

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32
Q

Mu reading of ____ or below on normal runways require corrective action.

A

40

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33
Q

Any object, live or not, located in an inappropriate location in the airport environment that has the capacity to injure airport or air carrier personnel and damage aircraft.

A

Foreign Object Debris (FOD)

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34
Q

Four Components of a FOD Management Program

A
  1. Prevention
  2. Detection
  3. Removal
  4. Evaluation
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35
Q

____ are typically conducted as part of an airport’s FOD promotion and awareness campaign.

A

FOD Walks

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36
Q

Removes debris with a powered brush.

A

Power Sweeper

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37
Q

Uses air flow as the primary means of object retrieval.

A

Vacuum System

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38
Q

Directs a stream of air to remove debris. Also also accompanied by a debris collection mechanism.

A

Jet Air Blower

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39
Q

Towed behind a vehicle that employs a series of bristle brushes and friction to sweep FOD into capture scoops.

A

Friction Mat Sweepers

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40
Q

These are suspended beneath tugs and trucks to pick up metallic material. Should be cleaned regularly as to not cause FOD itself.

A

Magnetic Bars

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41
Q

Long devices that positioned on the pavement to dislodge FOD from vehicles that drive over them. No longer widely used as a FOD removal system.

A

Rumble strips (FOD Shakers)

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42
Q

The distinction between movement and non-movement areas at airports is based on two factors, ____ and ____.

A

Operational Control

FAA Design Standards

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43
Q

The AOA encompasses both movement and non-movement areas and includes ____.

A 
Runway
Taxiway
Ramps
Aprons
Grass Landing Strips
Aircraft Parking Areas
Helipad
Tie-down Areas
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44
Q

When the aircraft wingspan and tail height for an aircraft fall in different groups, the ____ group is used.

A

Higher

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45
Q

Taxiway safety area widths vary from ____ to ____.

A

49 feet to 262 feet

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46
Q

Factors affecting the location and orientation of runways are:

A 
Wind
Airspace Availability
Environmental Factors
Obstructions to Air Navigation
Topography
Airport Traffic Control Tower Visibility
Wildlife Hazards
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47
Q

Runways will normally have a ____ to ____ cross section grade.

A

1% to 1.5%

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48
Q

Runway safety area widths vary from ____ to ____.

A

120 feet to 500 feet

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49
Q

Displacement of a runway threshold may be required in three instances:

A
  1. When an object obstructs the airspace needed for landing aircraft
  2. When there are environmental considerations, such as noise abatement.
  3. When runway safety area dimensions or obstacle-free area lengths are needed.
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50
Q

A ____ is a portion of an aircraft parking area used for access between taxiways and aircraft parking positions or may be used as a “taxiway” not under ATC control.

A

Taxilane

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51
Q

Runway safety area lengths vary from ____ to ____.

A

240 feet to 1,000 feet

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52
Q

The main reasons for the use of artificial turf at airports are:

A

Mitigate soil erosion
Minimize maintenance and management of turf
Control Wildlife
Enhance visual aesthetics

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53
Q

____ is composed of a porous cellular cement bed area at the end of a runway that deforms under the weight of a heavy aircraft, resulting in major drag and decelerations of the aircraft.

A

EMAS (Engineered Material Arresting System)

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54
Q

Safety Areas must be maintained

A
  1. Free of hazardous ruts, humps and depressions
  2. Have proper drainage
  3. Be capable of supporting snow removal equipment, ARFF and aircraft
  4. Be free of objects, except those needed by function
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55
Q

The airspace below 150 feet above the established airport elevation and along the runway and extended runway centerline that is required to be clear of all objects, except NAVAIDs.

A

Obstacle Free Zone

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56
Q

The ____ extends 200 feet beyond each end of the runway.

A

Runway Obstacle Free Zone

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57
Q

The airspace above a surface centered on the extended runway centerline. It applies to runways with an approach lighting system.

A

Inner-approach Obstacle Free Zone

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58
Q

The airspace above the surfaces located on the outer edges of the runway OFZ and the inner approach OFZ. It applies to runways with approach visibility minimums lower than 3/4 statute mile.

A

Inner-transitional Obstacle Free Zone

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59
Q

The volume of airspace above an area beginning at the runway threshold, at threshold elevation, and centered on the extended runway centerline, 200 feet long by 800 feet wide.

A

Precision Obstacle Free Zone

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60
Q

An area on the ground centered on a runway provided to enhance the safety of aircraft operations by having the area free of objects, except objects required to be there for air navigation or aircraft ground maneuvering purposes.

A

Runway Object Free Area

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61
Q

Trapezoidal in shape and centered about the extended runway centerline. Designed to enhance the protection of people and property on the ground.

A

Runway Protection Zone

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62
Q

A defined rectangular area beyond the end of a runway cleared or suitable for use in lieu of runway to satisfy takeoff distance requirements.

A

Clearway

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63
Q

A defined rectangular surface beyond the end of a runway, centered on the extended runway centerline and at least as wide as the runway, able to support an aircraft, during an aborted takeoff.

A

Stopway

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64
Q

An area centered on the taxiway and taxilane centerlines. The clearing standards prohibit service vehicle roads, parked airplanes, and above ground objects, except for objects that need to be located there for air navigation or aircraft ground maneuvering purposes.

A

Taxiway and Taxilane Object Free Area

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65
Q

In cases where it is impractical for airports to meet the standard RSA and EMAS is not feasible, an alternative method allows for determination of safe distances and operating areas, ____ is used.

A

Declared Distances

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66
Q

The runway length declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane taking off.

A

Takeoff Run Available

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67
Q

The takeoff run available plus the length of any remaining runway or clearway beyond the far end of the takeoff run available.

A

Takeoff Distance Available

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68
Q

The runway plus stopway length declared available and suitable for the acceleration and deceleration of an airplane aborting a takeoff.

A

Accelerating-stop Distance Available

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69
Q

The runway length declared available and suitable for a landing airplane. Usually the same as the TORA, except when a displaced threshold is present.

A

Landing Distance Available

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70
Q

Runway without an existing or planned straight-in instruments approach procedures. The approach and landing to the runway are made solely under Visual Flight Rules.

A

Visual Approach Runway

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71
Q

Runway with only horizontal, non-precision navigational guidance provided by any number of specific NAVAIDs.

A

Non-precision Approach Runway

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72
Q

Runways with both vertical and horizontal approach navigational guidance provided by an instrument landing system, precision approach radar, or GPS based Wide Area Augmentation System or Ground Based Augmentation System.

A

Precision Approach Runway

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73
Q

FAR Part 139.311

A

Marking, Signs and Lighting

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74
Q

Two proven techniques to help enhance the conspicuity of surface markings are____

A
  1. Outlining surface markings with black borders on concrete pavements and light-colored pavements.
  2. Placing glass beads in paint.
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75
Q

Glass beads are not to be used in ____, including numerals and inscriptions.

A

Black Paint

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76
Q

Type ____ glass beads are not to be applied to red or pink paint.

A

Type III

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77
Q

Striated Markings are never used on ____ and ____ runways

A

Category II and Category III Runways

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78
Q

The runway order of precedence is ____.

A
  1. Precision Approach Runway Category III
  2. Precision Approach Runway Category II
  3. Precision Approach Runway Category I
  4. Non-precision Approach Runway
  5. Visual Runway
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79
Q

____ identifies the physical center of the runway and provides alignment guidance to pilots.

A

Runway Centerline Marking

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80
Q

The ____ closely identifies the actual beginning point of the runway threshold used for landings.

A

Runway Threshold Marking

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81
Q

The ____ identifies the touchdown zone along a precision runway in 500ft increments.

A

Runway Touchdown Zone Markings

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82
Q

The ____ provides enhanced visual contrast between the runway edge and the surrounding terrain or runway shoulders and delineates the width of suitable paved area for runway operations.

A

Runway Edge Marking

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83
Q

The ____ delineates the beginning section of the runway available for landing from the unusable section on the approach side of the displaced threshold.

A

Runway Displaced Threshold Marking

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84
Q

The ____ delineates a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway, or aligned taxiway that precedes the runway.

A

Runway Demarcation Bar Marking

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85
Q

____ identify paved blast pads, stopways, and EMAS in relation to the end of the runway.

A

Chevron Markings

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86
Q

____ is used, when needed, as a supplement to further delineate a paved runway shoulder that pilots have mistaken or are likely to mistake as usable runway.

A

Runway Shoulder Marking

87
Q

The purpose of ____ is to prevent aircraft and vehicles from entering into critical areas associated with runways and navigational aids, as well as control traffic at the intersection of taxiways.

A

Holding Position Marking

88
Q

All taxiways must have a ____.

A

Centerline Marking

89
Q

For Part 139 Airports, all taxiways that intersect a runway must have a ____ and ____.

A

Surface Painted Runway Holding Position Marking and Enhanced Taxiway Centerline Marking

90
Q

____ are installed as necessary to separate the taxiway from a pavement that is not intended for aircraft use.

A

Taxiway Edge Marking

91
Q

Taxiway Centerline Markings are ____.

A

Yellow

92
Q

An ____ is designed to alert pilots of an upcoming runway holding position marking so that the potential for runway incursions is minimized.

A

Enhanced Taxiway Centerline Marking

93
Q

Taxiway centerlines are enhanced for ____ prior to a runway holding position marking.

A

150 feet

94
Q

The ____ is a dual continuous or dashed marking that is yellow and is used to alert pilots where the demarcation line exists for taxi operations and edges of usable pavement.

A

Taxiway Edge Markings

95
Q

Used to delineate the taxiway edge from the shoulder or some other contiguous paved surface that is not intended for use by pilots.

A

Continuous Taxiway Edge Marking

96
Q

Used where there is an operational need to define the edges of a taxi route on, or contiguous to, a sizable paved area that permits pilots to cross over this surface marking.

A

Dashed Taxiway Edge Marking

97
Q

____ are designed to supplement signage by alerting pilots and vehicle drivers of an upcoming holding position location and associated runway.

A

Surface Painted Holding Position Signs

98
Q

____ are used with an arrow to provide directional guidance at an intersection when it is not possible to provide signage or at a troublesome taxiway intersection.

A

Surface Painted Taxiway Direction Signs

99
Q

____ are painted and used to enable pilots and ground vehicle operators to identify the taxiway upon which they are located.

A

Surface Painted Taxiway Location Signs

100
Q

____ is used, when necessary, to assist pilots in locating their position along the edges of a large, continuous apron serving the terminal gates.

A

Surface Painted Apron Entrance Points Signs

101
Q

The ____ is designed to assist pilots with confirming holding points or reporting their location while taxiing during periods of low-visibility.

A

Geographic Position Marking

102
Q

The ____, which is optional, is used to facilitate the local ramp tower or the FAA airport traffic control tower in the movement of aircraft and vehicles to designated areas of ramps, aprons, and other paved areas between non-movement areas and movement areas.

A

Ramp Control Marking

103
Q

Ramp Control Markings can either be ____ or ____ in shape.

A

Circular or Triangular

104
Q

____ are used to delineate roadways on paved areas used by aircraft.

A

Vehicle Roadway Markings

105
Q

Vehicle Roadway Markings are ____, and all vehicle roadway markings are ____ when crossing any taxiway and runway markings.

A

White, Interrupted

106
Q

Roadway edge lines can be either ____ or ____.

A

Solid, Zipper-style

107
Q

The ____ is used at airports with a VOR located on-site, and this allows pilots to check their aircraft instruments with the VOR signal.

A

VOR Receiver Checkpoint Marking

108
Q

The ____ is used to differentiate between movement and non-movement areas.

A

Non-movement Area Boundary Marking

109
Q

____ are indicated by the use of an “X” marking.

A

Permanently closed runways and taxiways

110
Q

For closed runways, solid yellow “X” markings should be painted at each end of the runway and _____ intervals along the length of the runway.

A

1,000 ft

111
Q

For closed taxiways, a yellow “X” marking is placed ____of the closed taxiway.

A

At each entrance

112
Q

For temporary closed runways, the airport operator has two options when it is necessary to provide a visual indication that a runway is temporarily closed. These are:

A
  1. Use a raised-lighted “X” on each runway end to indicate the runway is temporarily closed.
  2. Place an “X” only at each end of the runway over the runway designation markings or, when required by construction activity, just off the runway end.
113
Q

For temporarily closed taxiways, there are two options available to provide a visual indication of the temporary closure. These are:

A
  1. Usually this type of closure is treated as a hazardous area.
  2. The airport operator may install the same yellow “X” specified earlier for those entrances leading into the temporarily closed taxiway.
114
Q

Physical removal of markings is achieved by ____, ____, ____, ____, or other acceptable means that do not harm the pavement.

A

Water Blasting
Shot Blasting
Sand Blasting
Chemical Removal

115
Q

The AC makes it clear that the airport operator is responsible for determining:

A
  1. The need for a visual indication that a runway or taxiway or taxiway is temporarily closed.
  2. Th safest place to put the “X” or “X”s or other indicators per the AC.
116
Q

Mandatory Instruction Signs consist of the following type:

A

Holding Position Signs for:

  1. Taxiway or Runway Intersections
  2. Runway or Runway Intersections
  3. ILS Critical Areas/POFZ Boundary
  4. Runway Approach Areas
  5. CAT II/III Operations
  6. Military Landing Zones
  7. No Entry Sign
117
Q

The purpose of ____ is to identify the taxiway or runway upon which an aircraft or vehicle is located.

A

Location Signs

118
Q

____ are used to identify the boundary of the RSA/OFZ or ILS critical area for a pilot exiting the runway.

A

Boundary Signs

119
Q

____ indicate directions of other taxiways leading out of an intersection.

A

Direction Signs

120
Q

The ____ indicates the end of a taxiway. This sign is appropriate when normal visual cues, such as marking and lighting, are inadequate.

A

Taxiway Ending Marker

121
Q

____ indicate the general direction to a remote destination.

A

Destination Signs

122
Q

____ consists of standard highway stop signs on vehicle roadways where the roadway intersects with a runway or taxiway.

A

Vehicle Roadway Signs

123
Q

At controlled airports, unless there is a letter of agreement with ATCT allowing drivers to cross taxiways without clearance, ____ signs should be install on vehicle roadways.

A

“DO NOT PROCEED CONTACT ATC”

124
Q

____ may include taxiway guidance signs or runway distance remaining signs.

A

Information Signs

125
Q

____ are used to provide distance remaining information to pilots during takeoff and landing operations.

A

Runway Distance Remaining Signs

126
Q

A ____ is only used in the takeoff direction on unpaved runways less than 3,000 feet in length where both ends of the runway are not readily visible.

A

One-Half Distance Remaining Signs

127
Q

The oldest lamp type in use, with either a bayonet or screw type insertion into the fitting.

A

Incandescent

128
Q

A variation of incandescent lamps in the method that it produces light. Commonly called a “quartz lamp”. Sensitive to temperature variation and lens contamination.

A

Tungsten-Halogen

129
Q

These lamps generate light through low pressure gas discharge. Used mostly at airports where low ambient temperatures are not routinely experienced.

A

Fluorescent

130
Q

Produces a brighter emitting light, has a longer lamp life, and has much lower power consumption. Does not produce heat and may sometimes require supplemental heater coils in colder installations.

A

Light Emitting Diode (LED)

131
Q

____ define the edge of the runway. May either be LIRL, MIRL or HIRL

A

Runway Edge Lights

132
Q

Runway edge lights emit white light, except in the caution zone, which is ____.

A

The last 2,000 feet or one-half the runway length, whichever is less and are yellow/amber in color.

133
Q

____ are designed to signify the runway threshold. They emit green light outward from the runway and emit red light toward the runway to mark the end of the runway.

A

Threshold and Runway End Lights

134
Q

____ are unidirectional red lights oriented toward the takeoff direction of the runway. They are placed along the full length of the stopway in two parallel rows that are equidistant from the runway centerline and coincide with the runway edge lights.

A

Stopway Edge Lights

135
Q

____ are required for CAT II and CAT III runways and for CAT I runways used for landing operations below 2,400 feet RVR.

A

Runway Centerline Lights

136
Q

The last ____ portion of the runway centerline lighting system is color coded to warn pilots of the impending runway end.

A

3,000 foot

137
Q

____ consist of 2 rows of transverse light bars located symmetrically about the runway centerline. Each light bar consists of 3 unidirectional lights facing the landing threshold.

A

Touchdown Zone Lights

138
Q

____ are installed to indicate the location of hold-short points on runways approved for land and hold short operations.

A

Land and Hold Short Lighting Systems

139
Q

A ____ consists of a row of six or seven in-pavement unidirectional pulsing white lights installed across the runway at the hold-short point.

A

Land and Hold Short Lighting System

140
Q

____ define the edge of the taxiway and are blue in color.

A

Taxiway Edge Lights

141
Q

Taxiway Edge Reflectors may be installed ____ or ____.

A
  1. in lieu of taxiway edge lights

2. to enhance taxiway edge lights

142
Q

Taxiway lighting systems such as taxiway centerline lights, RGLs, stop bars, and clearance bars are designed to facilitate taxiing and may be required for ____.

A

Airport Operations during low visibility conditions

143
Q

____ provide taxi guidance between the runway and apron areas. Consists of unidirectional or bidirectional in-pavement lights installed parallel to the centerline of the taxiway.

A

Taxiway Centerline Lights

144
Q

____ provide a visual indication to pilots and ground vehicle operators approaching the runway holding position that they are about to enter an active runway.

A

Runway Guard Lights

145
Q

____ provide a distinctive “stop” signal to a pilot or ground vehicle operator approaching a runway, in the form of a row of unidirectional in-pavement red lights and an elevated red light on each side of the taxiway.

A

Stop Bars

146
Q

Stop Bars are required for operations below ____ on illuminated taxiways that provide access to the active runway.

A

600 feet RVR

147
Q

Clearance Bars are designed to ____ and ____, and consists of a row of three in-pavement yellow lights.

A
  1. Advise pilots and vehicle drivers that they are approaching a hold point
  2. Advise pilots and vehicle drivers that they are approaching an intersecting taxiway
148
Q

____ is used to reduce the number and severity of runway incursions without interfering with normal airport operations.

A

Runway Status Lights System (RWSL)

149
Q

For civil land airports only, the beacon flashes an alternating ____ and ____ at ____ flashes per minute.

A
  1. Green and White

2. 24-36

150
Q

Part 139 requires that an airport have a ____ that visually provides surface wind direction information to pilots.

A

Wind Cone

151
Q

If the airport is open for air carrier operations at night, the wind cones must be ____.

A

Lighted

152
Q

____ are installed on all obstructions that present a hazard to air traffic, warning pilots of the presence of an obstruction during hours of darkness and limited daytime visibility.

A

Obstruction Lights

153
Q

The components that make up the Instrument Approach Lighting System are:

A 
Sequence Flashing Lights
Approach Lights
Crossbar Lights
Runway End Identifier Lights
Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI) or Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)
154
Q

A typical MALSF system consists of the ____.

A

9 Light Bars with 5 White Lights each
5 Sequencing Flashing White Fixtures
18 Threshold Bar Steady Green Lights

155
Q

____ provides visual guidance for circling, offset, and straight-line approaches to non-precision runways.

A

Omni-Directional Approach Lighting System (ODALS)

156
Q

____aids in early identification of the runway and runway end.

A

Runway End Identifier Lights (REILS)

157
Q

____ system provides visual approach slope guidance to assist pilots in flying a stabilized approach.

A

Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)

158
Q

The four-box PAPI is installed on runways accommodating ____ aircraft.

A

Jet

159
Q

The Airport’s Snow and Ice Control Plan must include instructions and procedures for:

A
  1. Prompt removal or control, as completely as practical, of snow, ice, and slush on each movement area.
  2. Positioning snow off the movement area surfaces so all air carrier aircraft propellers, engine pods, rotors, and wing tips will clear any snowdrift and snowbank as the aircraft’s landing gear traverses any portion of the movement area.
  3. Selection and application of authorized materials for snow and ice control to ensure that they adhere to snow and ice sufficiently to minimize engine ingestion
  4. Timely commencement of snow and ice control operations
  5. Prompt notification, in accordance with Part 139.339, of all air carriers using the airport when any portion of the movement area normally available to them is less than satisfactorily cleared for safe operation by their aircraft.
160
Q

At certificated airports where there is a question if the airport needs and SICP, the ____ will determine whether it is required.

A

FAA

161
Q

Usually ____ days prior to snow season each piece of snow removal equipment should be inspected and prepared.

A

30 to 60

162
Q

Airports that are required to have a SICP are also required to have a ____.

A

Snow and Ice Control Committee (SICC)

163
Q

After each snow season a ____ is typically held to review the snow season issues and recommendations for changes.

A

Snow and Ice Control Committee meeting

164
Q

The ____ should describe the overall staffing and procedures in place and responsibilities for each department during a snow event.

A

Snow and Ice Control Plan

165
Q

The ____ is a centralized facility for coordinating all snow and ice control activities.

A

Snow Control Center or Snow Desk

166
Q

At a minimum, the Snow Control Center will perform the following functions:

A
  1. Managing snow clearing operations
  2. Serving as the prime source for initiating FICONS, Closures and Openings
  3. Informing ATCT, Air Carriers, Air Taxis, and other users of airport conditions
  4. Issuing NOTAMs
  5. Any additional functions the SCC performs at the airport
167
Q

____ are areas to be cleared which are the most critical portions of the aircraft movement area and supporting facilities. Would normally include primary runways with associated turnoffs, access taxiways leading to the terminal, the terminal and cargo aprons, ARFF emergency roads, gates and NAVAIDs.

A

Priority 1 Areas

168
Q

____ are areas of less importance than Priority 1 areas. These would include crosswind and secondary runways and associated taxiways, remaining aircraft movement areas and commercial ramp areas.

A

Priority 2 Areas

169
Q

____ are at some airport’s areas not essential to flight operations or not used on a daily basis.

A

Priority 3 Areas

170
Q

Most jet aircraft flight manuals limit particular aircraft to landing on runways with no more than 1 inch of ____ and to be taking off on runways with no more than ____.

A

1 inch of slush or standing water; 1/2 inch accumulation

171
Q

All snow, ice, and slush should be removed as expeditiously as possible so as to maintain runways, highspeed turnoffs, and taxiways in a ____ condition.

A

” no worse than wet”

172
Q

The normal trigger point for commencement of snow removal operations is prior to an accumulation of ____.

A

1 inch of dry snow

173
Q

When runway contaminants exist, but overall coverage within the area of the runway that is being maintained is ____ or less, the contaminants will still be reported. However, a ____ will not be generated.

A

25 percent or less; runway condition code

174
Q

List the possible contaminants for surfaces:

A
  1. Ash
  2. Compacted Snow
  3. Dry Snow
  4. Frost
  5. Ice
  6. Layered Contaminant
  7. Mud
  8. Multiple Contaminants
  9. Oil
  10. Sand
  11. Slush
  12. Water
  13. Wet Ice
  14. Wet Snow
175
Q

____ is a proactive approach in which chemical is applied to the pavement surface either before any precipitation or just as it is starting in an effort to prevent a bond from forming between the pavement surface and the frozen precipitation.

A

Anti-Icing

176
Q

____ is a reactive approach in which chemical is applied to the top of an accumulation of snow, ice, or frost that has already bonded with the pavement surface.

A

Deicing

177
Q

Two methods are available to increase the friction coefficient of an iced or snow-packed surface:

A
  1. Scarify the ice with a serrated blade

2. Apply granular material (abrasives) to the surface

178
Q

Pavement surface condition sensing instruments serve three functions:

A
  1. To provide a precise measure of the pavement temperature
  2. To indicate the presence of water, ice, or other contaminants
  3. To transmit this information to the Snow Control Center for incorporation into the decision-making process for the most appropriate snow and ice control strategy
179
Q

You may raise a RwyCC to no higher than a ___ when all requirements are met to do so.

A

3

180
Q

Data obtained from such runway friction surveys are only considered to be reliable when the surface is contaminated under any of the following conditions:

A
  1. Ice or wet ice
  2. Compacted snow at any depth
  3. Dry snow 1 inch or less
  4. West snow or slush 1/8 inch or less
181
Q

Friction assessments should be conducted if any of the following occurs:

A
  1. When the central portion of the runway, centered longitudinally along the centerline, is contaminated 500 feet or more
  2. After any type of snow removal operations or chemical application (Including sanding)
  3. Immediately following any aircraft incident or accident on the runway
  4. Or any additional triggers an airport may have locally
182
Q

The contaminants that won’t generate a RwyCC are ____.

A

Ash
Oil
Sand
Rubber

183
Q

For a Slippery When Wet Runway, the airport will issue a RwyCC of ____ for the entire runway.

A

3

184
Q

Runway receiving a ____ braking report are unsafe for aircraft operations and will be closed immediately when this unsafe condition exist.

A

NIL

Can either be pilot reported or by assessment by the airport

185
Q

Mechanical methods for removing and ice are:

A
  1. Rotary Plows AKA snow blowers
  2. Displacement Plows AKA snow plows
  3. Broom or Snow Sweepers
  4. Material Spreaders
186
Q

The ____ is primarily used to cast heavy concentrations of plowed snow away from airport operational areas such as runways and taxiways.

A

Rotary Plows

187
Q

____ are designed to quickly move snow across the blade by shearing the snow from the pavement and cast the snow to the side.

A

Displacement Plows

188
Q

____ are primarily used to clean up the residue left on the pavement surface by a plow or blower.

A

Broom or Snow Sweepers

189
Q

____ provide a continuous, unrestricted, accurately metered flow of sand and solid or liquid deicers or anti-icers to a pavement surface over a predetermined area.

A

Material Spreaders

190
Q

Part ____ defines the manner by which the ARFF Index is determined for an airport.

A

Part 139.315

191
Q

The Index is based on ____ and ____.

A

The length of the most demanding aircraft serving the airport and the number of average daily departures.

192
Q

The Indexes for airport are classified as:

A

A, B, C, D, and E

193
Q

Aircraft length for Index A is ___.

A

Less than 90 feet in length

194
Q

Aircraft Length for Index B is ____.

A

At least 90 feet but less than 126 feet

195
Q

Aircraft Length for Index C is ____.

A

At least 126 feet but less than 159 feet

196
Q

Aircraft Length for Index D is ____.

A

At least 159 feet but less than 200 feet

197
Q

Aircraft Length for Index E is ____.

A

At least 200 feet

198
Q

Part ____ specifies the required equipment and agents for that index.

A

Part 139.317

199
Q

Index A requirements are:

A

One Vehicle

Agents:

500 pounds of sodium-based dry chemical, halon 1211, or clean agent; or

450 pounds of potassium-based dry chemical and water with a commensurate quantity of AFFF to total 100 gallons for simultaneously dry chemical and AFFF application.

200
Q

Index B requirements are:

A

One Vehicle

Agents: At least 500 pounds of sodium-based dry chemical, halon 1211, or clean agent and 1,500 gallons of water and the commensurate quantity of AFFF for foam production; or

Two Vehicles

Agents: One vehicle carrying the extinguishing agents as specified in Part 139.317 and one vehicle carrying an amount of water and the commensurate quantity of AFFF so the total quantity of water for foam production carried by both vehicles is at least 1,500 gallons.

201
Q

Index C requirements are:

A

Two Vehicles

Agents: One vehicle carrying the extinguishing agents as specified in Part 139.317; and One vehicle carrying water and the commensurate quantity of AFFF so the total quantity of water for foam production carried by both vehicles is at least 3,000 gallons; or

Three Vehicles

Agents: One vehicle carrying the extinguishing agents as specified in Part 139.317 and Two vehicles carrying an amount of water and the commensurate quantity of AFFF so the total quantity of water for foam production carried by all three vehicles is at least 3,000 gallons.

202
Q

Index D requirements are:

A

Three Vehicles

Agents: One vehicle carrying the extinguishing agents as specified in Part 139.317; and Two vehicles carrying an amount of water and the commensurate quantity of AFFF so that the total quantity of water for foam production carried by all three vehicles is at least 4,000 gallons.

203
Q

Index E requirements are:

A

Three Vehicles

Agents: One vehicle carrying the extinguishing agents as specified in Part 139.317; and Two vehicles carrying an amount of water and the commensurate quantity of AFFF so that the total quantity of water for foam production carried by all three vehicles is at least 6,000 gallons.

204
Q

AFFF stands for ____.

A

Aqueous Film Forming Foam

205
Q

FP in ARFF operations stands for ____.

A

Fluoroprotein Foam

206
Q

FFFP in ARFF operations stands for ____.

A

Film Forming Fluoroprotein Foam

207
Q

____ should never be used around the magnesium material found in aircraft wheels or engines due to its potential to cause a chemical reaction.

A

Water

208
Q

Part 139.319 requires ARFF vehicles to be available ____ before an air carrier operation and ____ after and air carrier operation.

A

15 minutes

209
Q

A ____ should be issued if an airport’s ARFF Index has to be temporarily reduced.

A

NOTAM

210
Q

Index ____ airports must meet the ARFF capability at all times or otherwise preclude any air carrier activity.

A

Index A

211
Q

Part 139.319 requires one ARFF vehicle to reach the ____ of the furthest air carrier runway from its assigned post within ____ from the time the alarm is sounded and begin application of extinguishing agents.

A

Midpoint; Three minutes

212
Q

After the first ARFF vehicle arrives, all other ARFF vehicles must arrive in ____ and begin application of extinguishing agents.

A

Four Minutes

213
Q

Once the inside cabin temperature reaches ____, the cabin is no longer considered survivable.

A

400 degrees Fahrenheit

214
Q

Part 139.319 requires training records for ARFF crews be maintained for ____.

A

24 months

AAAE ACE Airfield Operations (3 decks)

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