module 2A Flashcards

1
Q

how many quadrants can the abdomen be divided into

A

4 but there are subdivisions of the 4

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2
Q

the surface of the anterior abdominal wall is subdivided into..

A

nine regions

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3
Q

what are the 9 regions

A
  1. epigastric region
  2. umbilical region
  3. hypogastric region
  4. left hypochondriac region
  5. left lumbar region
  6. left inguinal region
  7. right hypochondriac region
  8. right lumbar region
  9. right inguinal region
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4
Q

what is anterior abdominal wall protected by

A

soft tissue

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5
Q

what are the layers of the anterior abdominal wall from superficial to deep

A
  • skin
  • superficial fascia
  • investing fascia
  • external oblique
  • internal oblique
  • transversus abdominis
  • transversalis fascia
  • extraperitoneal fat
  • parietal peritoneum
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6
Q

where is the liposuction occur in the layers of the abdomen

A

superficial fascia

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7
Q

the rectus sheath

A

is a layer of fascia that envelops the rectus abdominis muscles

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8
Q

rectus abdominis Diastasis

A
  • condition where the rectus abdominis muscles become separated due to thinning and widening of the linea alba
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9
Q

what can RAD result from

A

any number of conditions that weaken the linea alba, resulting in protrusion of abdominal contents
- this conditions is characterized by a protruding midline and can also cause lower back pain

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10
Q

how many arteries supply the anterior abdominal wall

A

2
- superior epigastric artery
- inferior epigastric artery

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11
Q

superior epigastric artery

A
  • is the terminal branch of the internal thoracic (mammary) artery
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12
Q

where does the superior epigastric artery enter

A

the rectus sheath posteriorly and anastomoses with the inferior epigastric artery

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13
Q

inferior epigastric artery

A

is a branch of the external iliac artery

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14
Q

rectus sheath hematoma

A
  • result of bleeding into the rectus sheath from damage to the superior and/or inferior epigastric arteries and/or their branches
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15
Q

how could rectus sheath hematoma result

A

from a direct tear of the rectus sheath or of the abdominal muscles
- blood collects in the anterior abdominal wall causing bruising, tenderness, pain, and bulding of the abdomen

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16
Q

what might be affected from a rectus sheath hematoma

A
  • anterior wall muscles, liver, intestines, stomach, pancreas, because of the pressure through the collection of blood superifically
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17
Q

what are the 2 groups responsible for lymph node draining

A
  • superficial lymphatic drainage
  • deep lymphatic drainage
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18
Q

superficial lymphatic drainage

A

drainage to the axillary nodes form above the umbilicus and to the superficial inguinal nodes below the umbilicus

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19
Q

deep lymphatic drainage

A

drainage to the external iliac, common iliac and lumbar nodes

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20
Q

what is the inguinal canal

A

clinically important passageway, which is approx 4-6cm in lenght, located in the lower anterior abdominal wall

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21
Q

location of inguinal canal

A

between the abdominal region and the pelvic region

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22
Q

inguinal rings what are they?

A

2 ends of the canal
- can be thought as the doorway for contents to enter and exit the inguinal canal

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23
Q

superficial inguinal ring + location

A

is an opening in the external oblique aponeurosis
- lies superior to the pubic tubercle

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24
Q

deep inguinal ring + location

A

invagination of the transversalis fascia
- lies superior to the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

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25
Q

contents of the inguinal canal: females main structure:

A

round ligament of the uterus

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26
Q

contents of the inguinal canal: males main structure:

A

spermatic cord

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27
Q

round ligament of the uterus

A

a fibromuscular band attached to the uterus on either side in front of and below the opening of the fallopian tube and passing through the inguinal canal to the labia majora

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28
Q

spermatic cord

A

a collection of vessels, nerves and ducts that run from the abdomen through the inguinal canal to the testes

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29
Q

contents of the inguinal canal regardless of gender

A
  • ilioinguinal nerve
  • exiting through the superficial inguinal ring
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30
Q

what does the ilioinguinal nerve supply for females

A

skin of the upper labia majora and mons pubis

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31
Q

what does the ilioinguinal nerve supply for males

A

the skin of the upper scrotum and root of the penis

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32
Q

what does the what does the ilioinguinal nerve supply for both genders

A

skin of the adjacent upper thigh

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33
Q

inguinal hernia

A

occur when contents of the abdominal cavity protrude into the inguinal canal

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34
Q

female inguinal hernia

A

where the round ligament of the uterus attaches to the tissue surrounding the pubic bone

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35
Q

male inguinal hernia

A

where the spermatic cord enters the scrotum

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36
Q

symptoms of inguinal hernias

A

generalized pain in the anterior abdominal wall
- bruising, budling, pain when bending over, lifting objects, coughing, weakness in abdominal wall

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37
Q

what is the posterior abdominal wall

A
  • musculoskeletal wall with numerous blood vessels and nerves supply it
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38
Q

posterior abdominal wall: superior muscles

A

made up by diaphragm
- muscular extensions of the diaphragm, right and left crus insert onto the lumbar vertebrae
- larger right cura oringates from the bodies of lumbar vertebra 1-3 and the smaller left cura originates from the bodies of lumbar 1-2

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39
Q

posterior abdominal wall : inferior muscles

A
  • psoas major, iliacus, quadratus lumborum
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40
Q

psoas major oringinates

A

on the lumber vertebrae and together with the iliacus merges to form iliopsoas

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41
Q

what forms the iliopsoasa

A

psoas major and iliacus

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42
Q

where does the psoas major attach

A

lesser trochanter of the femur

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43
Q

where does the quadratus lumborum oringate

A

on the iliac crest (of innominate bone) and lumbar vertrae

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44
Q

where does quadratus lumborum inserts

A

on rib 12

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45
Q

tight quadratus lumborum

A

increase the load on a few anatomical structures
- muscle on one side of the posterior wall becomes tight it may life the corresponding site of ones pelvis causing misalignment
- might pull at ribs limiting reaching and breathing
- if both of them are tight cause compression on the spine resulting in back pain

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46
Q

what is the lumbar plexus

A

network of nerve fibers responsible for supplying innervation to the skin and musculature of the lower limb

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47
Q

where is the lumbar plexus formed

A

in the psoas major muscle from the ventral (anterior) rami of lumbar spinal nerves 1-4

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48
Q

where do the branches of the lumbar plexus emerge

A

from the psoas major and further divide into serval cords

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49
Q

what are the nerves of the lumbar plexus

A
  • iliohypogastric nerve
  • ilioinguinal nerve
  • genitofemoral nerve
  • lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
  • femoral nerve
  • obturator nerve
  • lumbosacral trunk
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50
Q

iliohypogastric nerve

A

(spinal nerve L1) supplies the skin and muscles of the lower anterior abdominal wall

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51
Q

ilioinguinal nerve

A

(spinal nerve L1)
- runs through the inguinal canal, emerging from the superfiical inguinal ring supplying skin of the upper medial thigh, root of penis, and anterior scrotum, or skin of the mon pubis and labium majus

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52
Q

genitofermoral nerve

A

(spinal nerves L1 and 2)
- divides into 2 branches

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53
Q

what does the genitofemoral branch into?

A

genital branch
femoral branch

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54
Q

genital branch

A

enters the inguinal canal

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55
Q

femoral branch + genital branch supply?

A

supplies a small aera of skin on the upper anterior thigh

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56
Q

lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

A

of the thigh (spinal nerves L2 and 3) supplies the skin of the anterolateral thigh

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57
Q

femoral nerve

A

(spinal nerves L2-L4)
- supplies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the thigh, hip, and knee joints and skin of the anterior thigh

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58
Q

obturator nerve

A

(spinal nerves L2-L4)
- supplies the muscles of the medial compartment of the thigh, hip, and knee joints and the skin of the medial thigh

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59
Q

lumbosacral trunk

A

is formed by L4 that joins with L5
- joins S1-4 ventral rami to form the sacral plexus

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60
Q

what does the lumbosacral truck join

A

S1-4

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61
Q

femoral nerve entrapment

A
  • pinching of the femoral nerve at some point along its course
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62
Q

symptoms of femoral nerve entrapment

A
  • pain
    numbness or weakness along the front of the tight
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63
Q

cause of femoral nerve entrapment

A

is a disc herniation at vertebral level L2/3 or L3/4 as the disc bulges it impinges the femoral nerve
- lifting heavy things or obesity can cause herniated disc

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64
Q

neuropathy

A

referring to the damage or dysfunction of nerves

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65
Q

etiological

A

causing or contributing to the development of a disease or condition

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66
Q

sympathic innervation: autonomic nerves

A

the lumbar sympathetic trunk runs down the posterior abdominal wall lateral to the vertebral column

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67
Q

parasympathetic : autonomic nerves what supplies it?

A
  • branches of the left and right vagus nerves “vagal trunks” carry parasympathetic fibers to the aortic plexus
  • spinal nerves from S2-4 called “pelvic splanchnic nerves” carry parasympathic fibers to the superior hypogastric plexus
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68
Q

how many autonomic plexuses are in our bodies

A

5

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69
Q

aortic (prevertebral plexus)

A
  • associated with aortic plexus are prevertebral ganglia
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70
Q

prevertebral ganglia

A
  • celiac
  • superiormesenteric
  • inferior mesenteric
  • aorticorenal ganglia
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71
Q

what does the aortic (prevertebral plexus) innervate

A
  • stomach
  • small + large intestine
  • kidneys
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72
Q

superior hypogastric plexus

A

the aortic plexus continues inferiorly until it reachs the bifurcation of the descending aorta (forming this plexus)

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73
Q

superior hypogastric plexus what does it innervate

A
  • uterus
  • prostate
  • bladder
  • rectum
  • perineum
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74
Q

diabetic gastroparesis

A

impaired innervation to the abdominal viscera, dysmotility can result
- no structural abnormalities within the gut
- no inflammation

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75
Q

symptoms of diabetic gastroparesis

A
  • bloating
  • abdominal pain
  • nausea
  • vomiting
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76
Q

what is the aortic plexus formed by

A

anterior and posterior vagal truncks of vagus nerve

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77
Q

dysmotility

A

a condition when peristalsis becomes disordered

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78
Q

what are gonads a component of

A

the endocrine and reproductive system

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79
Q

gonads produce what

A

gametes but also produce reproductive hormones that regulate gametogenesis

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80
Q

during childhood and gonads

A
  • only produce small quantities of these reproductive hormones
  • the production of sex hormones increase once the gonads receive a “start signal at puberty”
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81
Q

where does the signal come from at puberty

A

the brain specifically from the hypothalamus and pituitary glands

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82
Q

what is considered the regulatory center for the endocrine system

A

hypothalamus and pituitary gland
- synthesis and release of hormones that control important organ systems in the body

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83
Q

what is the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis (HPG axis)

A

the hormonal pathway regulating the maturation and function of the reproductive system

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84
Q

about the HPG axis

A

major signaling pathway between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, gonads which regulates the productive of specific hormones that direct the function of the reproductive system

85
Q

hormones in the HPG axis

A
  • gonadotropin releasing hormone
  • Luteinzing hormone
  • follile-stimulating hormone
86
Q

what does the hypothalamus release?

A

gonadotropin releasing hormone

87
Q

gonadotropin releasing hormone

A

at around age 10-12 GnRH neurons receive signals to start producing GnRH

88
Q

what does GnRH induce?

A

the release of gonadotropins

89
Q

gonadotropins

A

hormones that regulate sexual development and reproductive function

90
Q

what does the anterior pituitary release

A

luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone

91
Q

anterior pituitary : GSP axis

A
  • once GnRH is released, travels towards the anterior pituitary and binds secretory cells (gonadotrophs), causing them to produce gonadotrophins (LH and FSH)
92
Q

examples of 2 gonadotrophins

A

luteinizing hormone
follicle-stimulating hormone

93
Q

gonads: GSP axis

A
  • ## LH and FSh released by pitutiary gland into the bloodstream (to produce different effecting in each sex)
94
Q

function of HPG axis in males

A
  • regulation of testosterones production
  • spermatogenesis
95
Q

function of HPG axis females

A
  • regulation of menstrucal cycle
96
Q

steps of the HPG axis

A
  1. hypothalamus ->GmRH
  2. anterior pitutiary-> LH + FSH
  3. Gonads
97
Q

what modulate GnRH and gonadotropin release

A

feedback circuit in the HPG axis

98
Q

males and females GnRH releasing

A

from the hypothalamus in a pulsatile manner
- frequency and size of the GnRH pulses determine the synthesis and secretion of gonadotropins (which determines the synthesis of sex hormones in the gonads)

99
Q

secretion of GnRH in males

A
  • GnHR pulses have a relatively constant frequency throughout the day
100
Q

secretion of GnRH in females

A

the frequency pulses varies depending on the stage of the menstrual cycle

101
Q

frequency and amplitude of GnRH pulses

A

critical for normal gonadotropin release
- to avoid the down regulation of the GnRH receptor in the pituitary, maintaining the heightened sensitivity of the receptor

102
Q

GnRH self regulation

A

via a negative feedback signal from the gonads

103
Q

inhibin

A
  • protein secreted by granulosa (female) and sertoli (male) cells in response to FSH acculation
  • major function is the negative feedback control of pituitary FSH secreation
104
Q

what does GnRH down regulate

A

FSH synthesis and FSH secretion

105
Q

how many cycles does the ovarian cycle consist of

A

2
- follicular phase
- luteal phase
which are separated by ovulation

106
Q

hormones in the follicular phase

A

FSH
LH
estrogen

107
Q

follicular phase: FSH

A
  • FSH levels continue to rise from the last few days of the previous cycle and peak during the first weak of the follicular phase
108
Q

what does the rise in FSH do : follicular phase

A
  • stimulates 5-7 primary oocytes to begin their maturation
109
Q

what does FSH induce: follicular phase

A
  • the proliferation of granulosa cells in the follicles, the production of inhibin, and the expression of LH receptors on theca cells
110
Q

LH: follicular phase

A
  • before LH levels increase, one or 2 of the developing follicles emerge as dominant
  • LH binds to the LH receptors on theca cells to induce the production of estrogen precursors, which diffuse into the neighboring granulosa cells
  • LSH binds granulosa cells to produce estrogen from these precursors
111
Q

estrogen follicular phase

A
  • secretion of the dominant follicle leads to a slight decrease in the levels of LH and FSH, causing the atresia of the other recruited follicles
  • thus only one of the follicles will prevail and reach maturity, containing a mature oocyte
112
Q

hormones in the ovulatory phase

A
  • LH
  • estrogen
113
Q

estrogen: ovulatory phase

A
  • continues to rise as the follicle matures
  • estrogen exerts a positive feedback action on the anterior pituitary to cause a surge in LH secretion
114
Q

LH: ovulatory phase

A
  • increase in LH (surge) mature fallicle ruptures, releasing the oocyte into the oviduct, also causes the reinitiation of meiosis in the oocyte, leading to formation and release of secondary oocytes
  • reasons for rupture: proteolytic enzyme activity , ovarian smooth muscle contractions to increase intrafollicular pressure, vascular alterations of perifollicular vessels
115
Q

hormones of the luteal phase

A
  • FSH
  • LH
  • progesterone
  • estrogen
116
Q

what do FSH and LH cause in luteal phase

A
  • the empty follucle to transform into the corpus luteum
  • ## corpus luteum then releases progesterone (more) and some estrogen
117
Q

what does the release of progesterone and estrogen do to LH and FSH

A

inhibits the production of them

118
Q

what does progesterone affect in luteal phase

A

uterine lining, so it is receptive to implanatation

119
Q

if ferilization occur : luteal phase

A

implantation occurs, the corupus luteum will continue to produce progesterone in response to hormonal signals from the implanting embryo

120
Q

what does the corpus luteum produce

A

hormones that inhibit the secretion of FSH and LH

121
Q

what happens if no fertilization : luteal phase

A
  • inhibition of FSH and LH production will cause the corpus luteum to atrophy and become the corpus albicans
  • decreasing progesterone and estrogen increasing FSH and recruitment of follicles for the next cycle
122
Q

what are the 3 phases of the uterine cycle

A
  • menses
  • proliferative
  • secretory
123
Q

menses phase : uterine cycle

A
  • where the cycle restarts
  • implanatation does not occur
  • decrease in estrogen and progesterone at end of luteal phase causes endometrial growth to cease
  • lining that was prepared for implanation shed due to release of local prostaglandins that constrict blood supply and result in tissue death
124
Q

what does prostaglandins cause

A
  • shedding (blood supply contrition)
  • rhythmic contractions of the myometrium (dislodge the uterine lining)
125
Q

proliferative phase : uterine cycle

A
  • start of this phase endometrium consists of only a few layers of cells and is less than 1mm thick
  • estrogen secreation increases due to newly developing follicle, causing repair and growth of the endometrium 3-5mm in thickness
  • coincides with the latter part of the ovarian follicular phase
126
Q

secretory phase: uterine cycle

A
  • uterine endometrium is receptive to implantation
  • coincides with the luteal phase of the ovaries when the oocyte has been released and the corpus luteum is producing progesterone
  • progesterone increases the blood supply to the uterine lining and reduce the contractility of smooth muscle in the uterus
  • no implantation: uterine lining is shed and cycle restarts
127
Q

hormones in the male cycle

A

LH and FSH which affect the function of the testes

128
Q

luteinizing hormone

A

LH enters the testes and stimulates interstitial Leydig cells to make and release testoerone into the testes and blood

129
Q

follicle stimulating hormone

A

FSH enters the testes and stimulates sertoli cells to produce androgen-binding protein (ABP) and inhibin

130
Q

ABP

A

is a protein that specifically binds testosterone to help concentrate it in the luminal fluid of the seminferous tubules

131
Q

inhibin males

A

will go to pituitary gland and downregulate FSH production

132
Q

male cycle regulation

A
  • continuous
  • regulated by a negative feedback system
  • rising levels of testosterone and inhibin act on hypothalamus and pituitary inhibiting the release of GnRH, FSH and LH
  • once testerone and inhibin levels decrease again the cycle restarts
133
Q

when does the males cycle repeat

A

between 4 and 8 times every 24hours

134
Q

steroidogenesis pathway

A

vitial biological pathway by which steroid hormones are synthesized in the body
- thus reproductive hormones also play vital regulatory roles in other body systems

135
Q

why do males and females produce different amount of sex hormones

A
  • biological synthetic pathway is the same
  • sex hormones are steroid hormones
  • steroids have wide range of function in the body
  • large hormone pathway
  • which hormone is produced depends on the organ producing it
  • all these hormones have extra effect in the body such as metabolism
136
Q

what else to hormones help with

A

inducing development of secondary sexual characteristics after onset of puberty

137
Q

HPG axis disorders

A
  • disruptions in normal sex hormones production and metabolism can result in a variety of disorders depending on the timing of the disruption (fetal or adult) and the type of disruption (which hormone, how much, which part of the pathway)
138
Q

hypogonadism : males

A
  • decreased production of gonadal hormones leads to below-normal function of the gonads and retardation of sexual growth and development in children
  • males the body does not produce enough testerone , which play keys role in masculine growth and puberty
139
Q

gynecomastia

A

excessive development of male breasts that can be caused by a variety of endocrine disorders

140
Q

hyperandrogenism female

A

excessive secretion of androgens by the adrenal cortex, ovaries, testes
- males kinda of unsure so typically used in female

141
Q

polycystic ovarian syndrome

A
  • hormonal condition
  • results in infrequent or prolonged menstrual periods and the development of small collection of fluid (follicles) in the ovaries which leads to the failure of regular egg release
142
Q

the abdominal aorta where does it descend into

A

the abdomen through the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm at T12

143
Q

where does the abdominal aorta bifurcates

A

at L4/L5 vertebral level into left and right common iliac arteries which then bifurcates into external iliac arteries and internal iliac arteries

144
Q

what would prolonged hypertension result in?

A

weakened abdominal aorta

145
Q

what is the largest and thickest blood vessel in the body

A

abdominal aorta

146
Q

what are the 3 important unpaired arteries that supply the gastrointestinal tract

A
  • celiac artery
  • superior mesenteric artery
  • inferior mesenteric artery
147
Q

where does the celiac artery form

A

at the level of T12

148
Q

how many branches does the celiac artery have? + what are they

A
    • left gastric
    • common hepatic
    • splenic arteries
149
Q

what does the celiac artery + branches supply

150
Q

foregut

A
  • refers to the division of the gastrointestinal tract from the distal esophagus to the proximal duodenums
  • includes pancreas, liver, gallbladder
151
Q

superior mesenteric artery (SMA) forms?

A

at the level L1

152
Q

branches of the superior mesenteric artery

A
  • inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
  • jejunal artery
  • ileal artery
  • middle and right colic arteries
153
Q

what does the SMA supply?

154
Q

midgut

A

the division of the gastrointestinal tract spanning from the distal duodenum to the proximal half of the transverse colon

155
Q

where does the inferior mesenteric artery form

A

vertebral level L3

156
Q

how many branches + what are they off the IMA

A
  • left colic artery
  • sigmoidal arteries
  • superior rectal (hemorrhoidal) artery
157
Q

what does the IMA supply

158
Q

hindgut

A

division of the gastrointestinal tract spanning from the distal third of the transverse colon to the rectum

159
Q

what arises from the lateral sides of the aorta

A

three paired viscerla branches

160
Q

what are the 3 paired visceral branches

A
  • suprarenal arteries
  • renal arteries
  • gonadal arteries
161
Q

location of suprarenal artey

162
Q

where are right and left suprarenal arteries formed

163
Q

where does renal artery form

164
Q

where are the left and right renal arteries formed

A

between the level L1 and L2

165
Q

where does the gonadal artery form

166
Q

where does the right and left gonadal (testicular or ovarian) arteries form

167
Q

what do the posterior parietal branches supply

A

musculoskeletal structures of the posterior abdominal wall

168
Q

what are the posterior parietal branches

A
  • right and left inferior phrenic arteries
  • lumbar arteries
169
Q

right and left inferior phrenic arteries

A

arise just below the aortic hiatus

170
Q

what do the right and left inferior phrenic arteries supply

A

inferior surface of the diaphragm

171
Q

lumbar arteries

A

run in series with the intercostal arteries and supply the posterior abdominal wall

172
Q

splenic artery infarction

A

the artery is obstructed
- severse pain in upper left quadrant
- slow to develop (pain)

173
Q

how is the inferior vena cava formed ?

A

union of the right and left common iliac veins at L5

174
Q

how does the inferior vena cava ascends

A

through the caval opening of the diaphragm to return blood to the heart

175
Q

what are the tributaries of the inferior vena cava

A
  • right and left renal veins
  • hepatic veins
  • inferior phrenic
  • lumbar veins
  • left suprarenal
  • right gonadal veins
176
Q

what is inferior vena cava syndrome

A

results from obstruction of the inferior vena cava due to compression and/or infarction of its major tributaries

177
Q

if there was inferior vena cava compression where would there be swelling?

A

below the diaphragn, specifically lower limbs

178
Q

what could an obstruction be from

A

blood clot or tumor

179
Q

what are the 2 layers of the peritoneum

A

parietal and visceral

180
Q

parietal peritoneum

A

lines the inferior surface of the diaphragm, the abdominal and pelvic walls, and forms a roof over the pelvic viscera

181
Q

visceral peritoneum

A

covers organs so when their visceral surfaces are in contact with each other or with the parietal peritoneum the serous fluid between the peritoneal surfaces allows for free movement

182
Q

peritonitis

A

inflammation of the peritoneum that is usually caused by a bacterial infection
- rapid progressive disease of the abdominal cavity which can be fatal if left untreated

183
Q

symptoms of peritonitis

A

abdominal pain, weight loss, and tenderness of the abdomen

184
Q

what is the peritoneum

A

serous membrane that help support the organs in the abdominal cavity and also allows nerves, blood vessels, and lymph vessels to pass through to the organs

185
Q

what does the peritoneum form

A

peritoneal cavity

186
Q

peritoneum cavity

A

a potential space containing a small amount of serous fluid
- is the space between the parietal and viseral layers of the peritoneum

187
Q

which sex has incomplete closure of the peritoneal cavity

A
  • females
  • have communication with the exterior by the opening of the fallopian tubes
188
Q

what are the 2 structures formed by the tissues of the peritoneum

A

double folds
- omenta
- mesenteries

189
Q

what is the omenta

A
  • large double fold of peritoneum
  • consisting of the greater (hanging below the stomach) and the lesser (between the stomach and liver) portions
190
Q

what does the omenta help do

A

cushion the intestines and act as a protective barrier for infection and trauma of the underlying abdominal organs

191
Q

what is mesenteries

A

double folds of peritoneum anchor the abdominal organs to the posterior abdominal wall, helping keep those organs in place while still allowing for some mobility

192
Q

what are organs considered in the cavity

A

intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal

193
Q

what are intraperitoneal organs

A

almost completely covered by the peritoneum
- parts of the gut which require mobility
- anchored to the posterior abdominal wall by a double-fold of peritoneum (the mesentery)

194
Q

what are retroperitoneal organs

A

found behind the peritoneum and are only covered anteriorly
example kidney

195
Q

what are the 2 parts to the peritoneal cavity with the abdomen

A

greater sac
lesser sac

196
Q

lesser sac

A

(omental bursa)
- lies behind the stomach, extending upward to the diaphragm (superior recess), downward between the layers of greater momentum (inferior recesses), left as the spleen and right where it communicates with the greater sac

197
Q

how does the lesser sac communicate with the greater sac

A

through the epiploic (omental) foramen (of winslow)

198
Q

the greater sac

A

extends from the diaphragm to the pelvis

199
Q

nerve supply: partietal peritoneum

A
  • phrenic nerves
  • lower intercoastal nerves
  • and more
200
Q

nerve supply visceral peritoneum

A
  • visceral sensory nerves that accompany autonomic nerve
201
Q

pain: parietal peritoneum

A

well localized sensitivity to pain

202
Q

pain: visceral peritoneum

A

pain is poor localized

203
Q

why is parietal peritoneum more sensitive to localized pain?

A
  • because it receives the same somatic nerve supply as the region of the abdominal wall that it lines: therefore, pain from the parietal peritoneum is well localized
204
Q

reactive lymphadenopathy

A

occurs when lymph nodes become swollen due to an immune response from lymphocytes

205
Q

symptoms of reactive lymphadenopathy

A

tenderness, pain, and warmth upon touch in the region of the affected lymph nodes

206
Q

pre-aortic lymph nodes: location

A

anterior surface of the aorta in close proximity to the major unpaired branches of the aorta

207
Q

where/what do the pre-aortic lymph drain

A

from the foregut, midgut, and hindgut structures

208
Q

para-aortic lymph nodes (lumbar lymph nodes) location

A

along the length of the aorta, on the right and left

209
Q

what/where do the para-aortic lymph nodes drain

A

from the posterior abdominal wall, kidneys, suprarenal glands, ureters, gonads (ovaries and testes), uterus, and uterine tubes