Module 2 Part 1- Nausea, Vomiting, and Diarrhea Flashcards

1
Q

when is it considered to be ‘diarrhea’

A
  • increased frequency of BM (more than 3 per day)
  • increased amount of stool (more than 200g/day)
  • altered consistency (increased liquidity)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is diarrhea associated with

A

urgency, perianal discomfort, incontinence or combination of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what can produce diarrhea

A

any condition that causes increased intestinal secretions, decreased mucosal absorption or altered motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

list some common underlying diseases that cause diarrhea

A

IBS, IBD, and lactose intolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T or F: diarrhea is chronic

A

FALSE. It can be acute OR chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how long does acute diarrhea last for

A

7-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how long does chronic diarrhea last for

A

longer than 2-3 weeks and may return sporadically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what can be the potential cause of chronic diarrhea

A

certain medications, certain tube-feeding formulas, metabolic and endocrine disorders, and viral/bacterial infectious processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are other disease processes that are associated

A

include nutritional and malabsorptive disorders (eg. Celiac disease), anal sphincter defect, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, paralytic ileus, intestinal obstruction, and AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the 5 types of diarrhea

A
  1. secretory
  2. osmotic
  3. malabsorptive
  4. infectious
  5. exudative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe secretory diarrhea

A

usually high volume, often associated with bacterial toxins and neoplasms and caused by increased production and secretion of water/electrolytes by the intestinal mucosa into the intestinal lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

describe osmotic diarrhea

A

occurs when water is pulled into the intestines by the osmotic pressure of unabsorbed particles, slowing the reabsorption of water. Can be caused by lactase deficiency, pancreatic dysfunction or intestinal hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe malabsorptive diarrhea

A

combines mechanical and biochemical actions, inhibiting effective absorption of nutrients manifested by markers of malnutrition that include hypoalbuminemia. Low serum albumin levels lead to intestinal mucosa swelling and liquid stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

describe infectious diarrhea

A

results from infectious agents invading the intestinal mucosa. C-diff is most commonly identified agent in antibiotic-associated diarrhea in hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe exudative diarrhea

A

caused by changes in mucosal integrity, epithelial loss, or tissue destruction by radiation or chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

list the mnfts (theres alot)

A

• Abdominal cramps
• Distention
• Intestinal rumbling (borborygmus)
• Anorexia
• Thirst
• Painful spasmodic contractions of anus and ineffective straining may occur with defecation
• Other symptoms depend on cause/severity but are r/t dehydration and to fluid/electrolyte imbalances
• Watery stools are a characteristic of disorders of small bowel
• Loose, semisolid stools are associated with large bowel usually
• Voluminous, greasy stools suggest intestinal malabsorption
• Presence of blood, mucus, pus in stools suggests inflammatory enteritis or colitis
• Oil droplets on toilet water almost always mean pancreatic insufficiency
-Nocturnal diarrhea may be a mnft of diabetic neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Dx testings for diarrhea

A
  • CBC
  • serum chemistries
  • urinalysis
  • routine stool exam
  • endoscopy or barium enema may assist in identifying the cause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what would you look for in a stool exam

A

infectious or parasitic organisms, bacterial toxins, blood, fat, electrolytes, and WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are complications for diarrhea

A
  • potential for cardiac dysrhythmias (b/c of fluid loss and electrolyte loss)
  • urinary output less than 30mL per house for 2-3 consecutive hours
  • muscle weakness
  • paresthesia
  • hypotension
  • anorexia
  • drowsiness (with K+ less than 3.5 must be reported)
  • chronic diarrhea (results in skin care issues r/t irritant dermatitis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are gerontologic considerations for diarrhea

A
  • older patients become dehydrated quickly and develop low potassium levels
  • nurse observes for muscle weakness, dysrhyth., decreased peristaltic motility
  • older patient taking digitalis (digoxin) must be aware of how quickly dehydration and hypokalemia can occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tx for diarrhea (non pharm)

A
  • controlling symptoms
  • preventing complications
  • eliminating or treating the underlying disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tx for diarrhea (pharm)

A
  • antibiotics
  • anti-inflm
  • anti-diarrheals (loperamide, diphenoxylate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

is loperamide or diphenoxylate preferred?

A

loperamide is the medication of choice because it has fewer side effects than diphenoxylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the nursing management for diarrhea

A
  • assessing and monitoring characteristics and patterns of diarrhea
  • obtain stool samples for testing
  • encourage bed rest, liquids and foods low in bulk until acute attack subsides
  • recommend bland diet of solid and semisolid foods
  • avoid caffeine and carbonated drinks, and very hot/cold
  • administer anti-diarrheals
  • monitor serum electrolytes closely
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the major functions of the GI system

A

break down and digest foods so that the nutrients may be absorbed through the digestive tract and waste products may be eliminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what happens with the GI system during fetal development

A

GI system begins to form during the fourth week of the embryonic stage, starting with the mouth and anal tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

define growth failure

A

weight consistently below the third percentile,BMI below the fifth percentile, or a decrease from established growth pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

define spitting up or regurgitation

A

passive transfer of gastric contents into the esophagus or mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

define encopresis

A

involuntary overflow of incontinent stool causing soiling or incontinence secondary to fecal retention or impaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

describe adsorbents: Bismuth, subsalicylate, activated charcoal

A
  • bind to toxins that cause diarrhea
  • does not stop dehydration
  • for more mild cases
  • may blacken stools/tongue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

describe bulk forming agents (methyl cellulose)

A
  • causes stools to be less watery

- does not effect volume of stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

describe anticholinergics (atropine)

A
  • can relieve cramping
  • does not change the consistency or volume of stool
  • undesirable side effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

describe opioids (diphenoxylate)

A
  • last resort
  • decrease motility and pain
  • increase in time in stool is in the bowel=increased absorptive nutrients, H2O, electrolytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the MOA, use, side effects of a serotonin antagonist (5-HT3 receptor)? and give an example

A

• Mechanism: block serotonin receptor in the GI, CTZ, and VC
• Use: N/V from chemotherapy or radiation, PONV
• Side effects: headache, diarrhea, rash, prolonged QT interval
Example: ondansetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the MOA, use, side effects of a benzodiazepine with example

A

• Mechanism: depress CNS
• Use: as adjunct. Can be used to help manage N/V from triggers related with the cerebral cortex
• Side effects: sedation, amnesia
Example: lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the MOA, use, side effects of a dopamine antagonist (D2 receptor) with example

A

• Mechanism: block dopamine in the CTZ and may also block Ach. Calms CNS
• Use: N/V from chemo, radiation, psychotic disorders, intractable hiccups
• Side effects: orthostatic hypotension, extrapyramidal symptoms, tardive dyskinesia, headache, dry eyes/mouth, constipation, urinary retention, akathisia (restlessness)
Example: prochlorperazine

37
Q

what is diphenoxylate? and what is atrophine?

A
  • diphen: an opioid and helps to slow peristalsis

- atro: anticholinergic and slows peristalsis and reduces gastric secretions

38
Q

what is the MOST COMMON drug for motion sickness

A

scopolamine (anticholinergics)

39
Q

what is the MOA, use, side effects of anticholinergics with example

A

• Mechanism: block acetylcholine (Ach) receptors in the vestibular nuclei and in the reticular formation
• Use: motion sickness and PONV
• Side effects: sedation, dry mouth, constipation, difficult urination, blurred vision
Example: scopolamine

40
Q

what is the MOA, use, side effects of antihistamines (H1 Receptor Antagonist) with example

A

• Mechanism: blocks H1 receptors, preventing Ach from binding to receptor in the vestibular nuclei (labyrinth)
• Use: motion sickness, non productive cough, sedation, rhinitis, allergies
• Side effects: sedation, dry mouth, urinary retention, blurred vision
Example: dimenhydrinate (Gravol), diphenhydramine

41
Q

what is the MOA, use, side effects of prokinetics with example

A

• Mechanism: stimulates peristalsis. Blocks dopamine receptors in the CTZ, desensitizing it to impulses from the GI tract
• Use: delayed gastric emptying, GERD, N/V from chemotherapy, PONNV
• Side effects: hypotension, sedation, headache, dystonia, dry mouth, diarrhea
Example: metoclopramide

42
Q

what is the MOA, use, side effects of THC with example

A

• Mechanism: inhibitory effects on the reticular formation, thalamus and cerebral cortex
• Use: N/V from chemotherapy, stimulates appetite in patients with AIDS, cancer
• Side effects: drowsiness, dizziness, anxiety, confusion, euphoria, visual disturbances, dry mouth
Example: marijuana

43
Q

how are corticosteroids used

A
  • Usually not given alone but with one or more other category of antiemetic
  • Used as adjunct for nausea caused by chemotherapy
44
Q

what is the term related to nausea and vomiting in pregnancy

A

Hyperemesis Gravidarum (HG)

45
Q

describe HG

A

• Severe, debilitating N/V
• Greater than 5% weight loss in early pregnancy
• Usually during first trimester only
• HG effects women in many aspects of their lives
-Unknown cause, a theory is it is d/t high HCG levels

46
Q

symptoms of HG

A
• Dehydration
• Malnutrition
• Metabolic disorders
• Stress and extreme fatigue
• Fetal growth restriction
DVT
47
Q

list holisitc interventions for HG

A

• May need to be hospitalized
• Therapeutic communication and active listening
• Reduce odours, noises, fresh air, encourage woman to move slowly
• Important to avoid isolation/depression
-Monitor weight and electrolytes, nutritional status

48
Q

Tx for HG

A
  • IV rehydration: Electrolytes especially Na, K; B1 (thiamine), B6 (pyridazine) added. May require enteral feeding, TPN in severe cases
  • Medication: Antiemetics, Folic acid, thiamine, LMWH
49
Q

whats the Et of HG

A
  • No conclusive pathogenesis
  • Maternal genetics
  • Placental factors (hCG, estrogen, progesterone etc)
  • increased placental mass and elevated hCG levels
  • hCG (stimulates upper GI secretory processes)
  • estrogen (delayed gastric emptying)
50
Q

Dx of HG

A

typical presentation and exclusion of other causes of N+V

51
Q

S+S of HG

A
  • Persistent N&V
  • Dehydration
  • Ketonuria
  • Weight loss of 5% or more of body weight
  • Negatives psychosocial effects
  • Decreased QOL
  • Increased cost: lifestyle modifications, prescribed therapies, complementary and alternative therapies
52
Q

complications of HG

A
  • Hyponatremia
  • Central pontine myelinolysis
  • Vitamin B6
  • Vitamin B12 deficiency
  • Mallory weiss tears
  • Venous thromboemolism
  • Retinal detachment
  • Esophageal rupture
  • Pneumomediastinum
  • Splenic avulsion
53
Q

risk factors for HG

A
  • Gestational trophoblastic disease
  • Female fetal sex
  • Multifetal pregnancy
  • Conceived with assisted reproductive technologies
  • Hx of HG
  • Gestational trophoblastic disease
  • Helicobacter pylori
  • Maternal family hx
  • Allergies and restrictive diets = longer duration of symptoms
  • Maternal age of >30yrs and smoking = decreased risk
54
Q

list associated co-morbidities with HG

A
  • Psychiatric illness
  • Migraines
  • Asthma
  • Pre-existing diabetes
  • Hyperthyroid disorders
  • Gastrointestinal disorder
55
Q

what are the maternal outcomes for HG

A
  • May protect the mother and fetus from food-borne pathogens
  • Decreased risk of miscarriage
  • Psychological morbidity
  • Postpartum period, posttraumatic stress and breast-feeding self-care
  • Fears of pregnancy
56
Q

offspring outcomes for HG

A
•	Low birth rate
•	Born preterm
•	Small for gestational age
•	Anomalies:
(Undescended testicles, Hip dysplasa, Trisomy 21, CNS, Skeletal anomalies)
57
Q

what is the explanation for a 6 month old baby who isn’t crying?

A

wont hear crying because infant is too dehydrated and fatigued

58
Q

what is normal number of stools for an infant

A

approx. 10-15 soft/pasty small amounts of stool per day

59
Q

what are the most common causes of acute diarrhea

A
  • Drugs
  • Infection- bacteria, virus, protozoa
  • Nutritional factors
60
Q

Why would you avoid giving antidiarrheals if the suspected cause is infection?

A

Your normal body mechanisms would try to flush out bacteria on own and can cause infectious diarrhea if you treat it with antidiarrheals

61
Q

what do you have to watch for with someone taking anti-diarrheals and why??

A

all anti-diarrheals don’t prevent dehydration so you need to watch for this with labs***

62
Q

what type of assessment would you take for someone experiencing diarrhea

A

• Think OPQRSTUV but for diarrhea
• Thorough history of normal bowel habits
• Amount, consistency and “quality” of stool
• Ins/outs and weights
• Signs of dehydration
○ VS
○ Physical exam
○ Lab work (electrolytes (Na, K), hematocrit, WBC’s, CBC’s with differentials
• For pediatrics the most accurate way to determine how much fluid is lost, you weigh them**
-Ask if they’ve changed their diet

63
Q

list nursing diagnoses for someone with diarrhea

A
• Risk of:
	○ Deficit fluid volume
	○ Imbalanced nutrition
	○ Acute pain
	○ Activity intolerance
	○ Ineffective coping
	○ Impaired skin integrity
Electrolyte imbalance
64
Q

what are the top three interventions for a child with diarrhea?

A
  1. rehydration*** golden rule
  2. treat cause
  3. treat electrolyte imbalance
65
Q

what are given to rehydrate a child?

A

ORS (oral rehydration solutions) or IV fluids

66
Q

what is a side effect you’d expect to see with Diphenoxylate and Atropine and what is this significance

A

○ Constipation, respiration depression, if pt has delirium, check LOC*. Is it the drug causing more delirium or the diarrhea etc

67
Q

what is the significance of children with immature kidneys

A

children under age of 2 cannot retain water as well as adults

68
Q

do children or adults have a greater body surface area? what does this mean

A

CHILDREN DO. they have greater insensible losses (more likely for diarrhea)

69
Q

what can dehydration in children lead to?

A

kidney failure, cardiac collapse, death

70
Q

what are early assessment findings for children

A

• Dry mouth

71
Q

what are late assessment findings for children

A
• Sunken fontanelles in babies
• Loss of tears when crying
• Sunken eyes
• Rapid, deep respirations (acidosis)
• Cold extremities
• Rapid weak pulse
• Cyanosis
• Loss of skin turgor
-Coma
72
Q

what is nursing care for child with diarrhea

A

• IV fluids are based on weight
• Advance diet slowly (yes popsicles count)
• Daily weights
• Strict intake and output (weight diapers)
• Pre and post feed weights
• Bloodwork done as little as possible
-Nurses must make sure the mother is well hydrated if the baby is breast fed

73
Q

is nausea subjective or objective

A

subjective

-Subjective sensations of feeling like you’re going to puke

74
Q

what is vomiting

A

its the defence mechanism to get rid of toxic mechanisms in body

75
Q

what is nausea the result from

A

result from stimulation of the vomiting centre (VC) in the medulla

76
Q

complications of N+V

A

• Aspiration pneumonia (unconscious, stroke, seizures, MS/ALS, dysphagia patients)
• Dehydration
• Malnutrition (of electrolytes and PO intake is limited/no PO d/t N+V)
• Disruption of the surgical site (dehiscence, or evisceration if really bad N+V)
• Metabolic disturbances
• Increased intracranial pressure
-Stress/anxiety

77
Q

what are the 4 pathways to the vomiting centre (VC)

A
  1. Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)
  2. GI tract
  3. Labyrinth (inner ear)
  4. Cerebral cortex
78
Q

describe the first pathway chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) and what are the neurotransmitters

A

• Outside the BBB (blocking all toxins before it reaches CNS so they can’t enter)
• CTZ located under the medulla oblongata and activated when there are any toxic substances/hormones that can harm the region
• Site of ‘systemic’ triggers of vomiting
• Triggers: drugs, hormones, toxins, metabolic abnormalities
Neurotransmitters: dopamine, serotonin

79
Q

describe the second pathway GI tract and what are the neurotransmitters

A

• Some triggers of N+V
○ Distention (overeating, indigestion, chronic small bowel obstruction)
○ Obstruction
○ Infection
Neurotransmitters: serotonin, dopamine, PG’s

80
Q

describe the third pathway vestibular and labyrinth (inner ear) and what are the neurotransmitters

A

• Stimulated by:
○ Motion sickness (d/t labyrinth stimulation that activates CTZ and then experience N+V), vertigo
○ Opioids exert some influence on this route
• Fluid in inner ear causes dizziness in elevators
Neurotransmitters: histamines, acetylcholine

81
Q

describe the fourth pathway cerebral cortex

A
• Psychological component of nausea
• Triggers:
	○ Emotions
	○ Smells
	○ Anticipatory nausea
	○ Taste
        -Gag reflex
82
Q

what is the implementation for vomiting (pharmaceutical modalities)

A

• Match the trigger or cause with the right drug or therapy
• Many types of antiemetics (gravol, ondansetron)
• Know your nursing considerations with each medication
-Often given IM, IV, or rectal suppository route as PO may be ineffective

83
Q

what is the implementation for vomiting (holistic and alternative modalities)

A

• Gentle diet (BRAT-Bananas Rice Applesauce Toast)
• Ginger, peppermint
• Relaxation, music, distraction
• Cool cloths
• Positioning (side lying if they prefer to lay down**)
• TENS (transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation-they use low voltage for pain relief), acupressure, acupuncture
-Aromatherapy

84
Q

what is the MOA, use and SE of ondansetron

A

MOA: Serotonin antagonist-block serotonin in the GI, CTZ and in VC
use: Nausea from chemo, radiation, PONV *HG (after other preferred meds)
SE: Headache, diarrhea/constipation, prolonged QT interval

85
Q

what is the MOA, use and SE of dimenhydrinate

A

MOA: Antihistamine-blocks receptors, preventing ACh from binding to receptor in the vestibular nuclei
use: Motion sickness, vertigo
SE: Sedation, dry mouth, urinary retention, blurred vision

86
Q

what is the best route to give dimenhydrinate

A

IM, subQ

87
Q

what is the MOA, use and SE of scopolamine

A

MOA: Anticholinergic-potent effects on vestibular nuclei
use: Motion sickness, PONV
SE: Sedation, dry mouth, constipation, difficult urination, blurred vision

88
Q

what is the MOA, use and SE of prochlorperazine

A

MOA: Antidopaminergic-block dopamine in CTZ and may also block Ach
use: Can be used for many types of nausea, chemo, radiation, PONV
SE: Orthostatic hypotension, extrapyramidal symptoms, tardive dyskinesia, headache, dry eyes/mouth, constipation, urinary retention