Module 2

Question 1

How is it possible for SA node fibers to generate their own action potentials?

a.) they release their own excitatory neurotransmitters
b.) voltage gated sodium channels open when the fiber is at its resting membrane potential
c.) the opening of ligand gated sodium channels
d.) epinephrine opens calcium channels

Answer 1

b.) voltage gated sodium channels open when the fiber is at its resting membrane potential

Question 2

What allows for the action potentials to spread between cardiac muscle fibers?

a.) voltage gated sodium channels
b.) desmosomes
c.) voltage gated calcium channels
d.) gap junctions

Answer 2

d.) gap junctions

Question 3

What is one way that cardiac and skeletal muscle fibers differ in terms of the process of contraction?

a.) calcium for contraction comes mostly from the SR in cardiac muscle fibers
b.) there is no DHP receptor in the T-tubule in cardiac muscle fibers
c.) calcium for contraction comes mostly from the extracellular fluid in cardiac muscle fibers
d.) DHP and ryanodine receptors are physically attached in cardiac muscle fibers

Answer 3

c.) calcium for contraction comes mostly from the extracellular fluid in cardiac muscle fibers

Question 4

What pathway is activated when adrenergic receptors on the SA node fibers are stimulated?

a.) calcium calmodulin
b.) PIP2
c.) IP3
d.) cAMP

Answer 4

d.) cAMP

Question 5

How does the activation of the cAMP pathway result in an increase in heart rate?

a.) by opening sodium and calcium channels
b.) by closing potassium channels
c.) by closing sodium and calcium channels
d.) by opening potassium channels

Answer 5

a.) by opening sodium and calcium channels

Question 6

How does stimulation of adrenergic receptors on ventricular cardiac muscle fibers result in them producing more force?

a.) by opening sodium channels
b.) by increasing the amount of intracellular calcium
c.) by decreasing the calcium ATPase rate on the SR
d.) by opening potassium channels

Answer 6

b.) by increasing the amount of intracellular calcium

Question 7

Regarding RER, if someone is consuming much more oxygen than carbon dioxide is being produced, what macronutrient are their muscle cells mostly consuming for the production of ATP?

a.) carbs
b.) protein
c.) fatty acids

Answer 7

c.) fatty acids

Question 8

At lower exercise intensities, RER is typically closer to .7. Which statement is accurate based on this fact?

a.) most intermediate fast twitch muscle fibers are active, which mostly rely on a combination of aerobic and anaerobic metabolism.
b.) all muscle fiber types are likely active
c.) mostly fast twitch muscle fibers are active, which rely on anaerobic metabolism.
d.) most slow twitch muscle fibers are active, which mostly rely on aerobic metabolism.

Answer 8

d.) most slow twitch muscle fibers are active, which mostly rely on aerobic metabolism.

Question 9

As exercise intensity increases, RER will get closer to 1. What is mostly contributing to this shift in RER?

a.) fast twitch muscle fibers are being recruited, which rely more heavily on aerobic and anaerobic glycolysis.
b.) fast twitch muscle fibers have been recruited, which means the body completely stops using fat as an energy source.
c.) mostly slow twitch muscle fibers are active, which mostly rely on aerobic metabolism.
d.) type IIa muscle fibers have been recruited, which rely almost exclusively on anaerobic metabolism.

Answer 9

a.) fast twitch muscle fibers are being recruited, which rely more heavily on aerobic and anaerobic glycolysis.

Question 10

During prolonged steady state low intensity exercise, fatty acids progressively get more utilized by the working muscle cells. What is one factor that accounts for this shift?

a.) rising blood levels of lactate
b.) rising blood levels of hydrogen ions.
c.) fast twitch fibers are initially recruited, but are then “shut off”
d.) rising body temperature and blood levels of epinephrine

Answer 10

d.) rising body temperature and blood levels of epinephrine

Question 11

One theory regarding fatigue during long duration endurance events is that glycogen becomes depleted within the muscle cells, making the cells almost entirely reliant on fatty acids. What is one of the reasons that this may cause fatigue?

a.) ketones are produced, which are acidic
b.) higher quantities of hydrogen ions will be produced.
c.) there is a lack of fatty acids in the blood to sufficiently meet ATP demand
d.) pyruvate is needed to make Krebs cycle intermediates, that are used to break down fatty acids at a sufficient rate to meet ATP demand

Answer 11

d.) pyruvate is needed to make Krebs cycle intermediates, that are used to break down fatty acids at a sufficient rate to meet ATP demand

Question 12

With regard to the length-tension relationship, at what elbow joint angle should the sarcomeres within biceps muscle fibers produce the most force?

a.) 30 degrees
b.) 90 degrees
c.) 0 degrees
d.) 145 degrees

Answer 12

b.) 90 degrees

Question 13

Why does shortening velocity within a fiber increase as force decreases?

a.) less myosin can be bound to actin at a given time
b.) the sarcomere is moved into a suboptimal position
c.) the cycling rate of myosin decreases
d.) increased velocities decrease how much calcium can bind to actin

Answer 13

a.) less myosin can be bound to actin at a given time

Question 14

What is one possible explanation why type IIx fibers can produce more force at a given velocity than type IIa fibers?

a.) they are less fatigue resistant
b.) they use anaerobic metabolism to a greater degree
c.) they have a higher myosin cycling rate
d.) they have much greater specific force/tension

Answer 14

c.) they have a higher myosin cycling rate

Question 15

What type of muscle fiber is most resistant to fatigue?

a.) Type I
b.) Type IIx
c.) Type IIa

Answer 15

a.) Type I

Question 16

Which type of muscle fiber has the highest myosin ATPase rate?

a.) Type I
b.) Type IIx
c.) Type IIa

Answer 16

b.) Type IIx

Question 17

What does a high myosin ATPase rate tell you about Type IIx fibers?

a.) it takes a lot of time to produce peak force.
b.) they resist fatigue well.
c.) they have a great ability to oxidize fatty acids
d.) they shorten fast

Answer 17

d.) they shorten fast

Question 18

During very low intensity endurance exercise, what would you expect to happen?

a.) primary motor cortex neurons would fire frequently enough to activate small, medium and large sized alpha motor neurons
b.) there would not be activation of any motor neurons at this intensity
c.) primary motor cortex neurons would only fire frequently enough to activate small alpha motor neurons
d.) primary motor cortex neurons would fire frequently enough to activate small and medium sized alpha motor neurons

Answer 18

c.) primary motor cortex neurons would only fire frequently enough to activate small alpha motor neurons

Question 19

Why would the primary motor cortex neuron only fire frequently enough to activate small alpha motor neurons during very low intensity exercise?

a.) we need activation of all types of muscle fibers.
b.) we only need activation of type I and type IIa muscle fibers
c.) we only need activation of type I muscle fibers
d.) we only need activation of type IIa muscle fibers

Answer 19

c.) we only need activation of type I muscle fibers

Question 20

Why is there a steady but not significant rise in lactate from 20-60% of VO2max (lower intensity exercise)?

a.) cells are always producing some lactate, this is just chance
b.) type IIa fibers have been recruited and are producing some lactate, but not enough of serious significance
c.) type I fibers are being pushed towards their upper limit and are relying more on anaerobic glycolysis
d.) type IIa fibers have been recruited, which always produce lactate

Answer 20

b.) type IIa fibers have been recruited and are producing some lactate, but not enough of serious significance

Question 21

At what exercise stage is lactate threshold hit?

a.) 2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d.) 5

Answer 21

b.) 3

Question 22

What is the likely explanation for what causes lactate threshold?

a.) type IIx fibers have been recruited, which produce ATP mostly through anaerobic glycolysis
b.) type IIa fibers have become very reliant on anaerobic metabolism at this point and type IIx fibers have also been recruited (which rely almost exclusively on anaerobic glycolysis)
c.) type IIa fibers have just began to produce lactate at this intensity
d.) type IIx fibers have reached an intensity at lactate threshold where they transition from aerobic to anaerobic glycolysis

Answer 22

b.) type IIa fibers have become very reliant on anaerobic metabolism at this point and type IIx fibers have also been recruited (which rely almost exclusively on anaerobic glycolysis)

Question 23

Why does fatigue typically occur around lactate threshold?

a.) type IIx fibers are now involved and fatigue always occurs once they are activated
b.) the accumulation of lactate in the fibers is causing fatigue
c.) this is the point where the ATP demand is likely rising above supply in type IIa as well as type IIx fibers
d.) the accumulation of lactate in the blood is making the body acidic

Answer 23

c.) this is the point where the ATP demand is likely rising above supply in type IIa as well as type IIx fibers

Question 24

How does training right around lactate threshold influence the active fibers?

a.) they will get better at buffering lactate
b.) type I muscle fibers will be adapt to using glycolysis
c.) they will get better at making ATP through anaerobic glycolysis
d.) they will become better at meeting ATP demand by improving their ability to run aerobic metabolism

Answer 24

d.) they will become better at meeting ATP demand by improving their ability to run aerobic metabolism

Question 25

What is the equation for cardiac output?

a.) HR x a-VO2 difference
b.) SV x a-VO2 difference
c.) HR x SV
d.) aortic pressure x TPR

Answer 25

c.) HR x SV

Question 26

Cardiac output continues to rise as exercise intensity rises, despite a plateau in SV. What is the explanation for this plateau?

a.) excessive heat
b.) decreased filling time with higher heart rates
c.) loss of blood plasma
d.) diminished sympathetic activation

Answer 26

b.) decreased filling time with higher heart rates

Question 27

Why might a plateau be observed in SV and not a decrease in an untrained individual?

a.) decrease in aortic pressure
b.) increased sympathetic stimulation of cardiac muscle fibers
c.) increased venous return to due respiratory and muscle pump
d.) increase in HR

Answer 27

b.) increased sympathetic stimulation of cardiac muscle fibers

Question 28

How is it possible for cardiac output to continue to rise with higher intensity exercise despite the plateau in SV?

a.) decrease in aortic pressure
b.) increased sympathetic stimulation of cardiac muscle fibers
c.) increased venous return to due respiratory and muscle pump
d.) increase in HR

Answer 28

d.) increase in HR

Question 29

Why does SV continue to rise with higher intensity exercise in very well trained athletes?

a.) they have a better ability to return blood to the heart through the respiratory and muscle pump
b.) they have greater stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
c.) they have increased ability to regulate aortic pressure
d.) TPR drops to a greater degree

Answer 29

a.) they have a better ability to return blood to the heart through the respiratory and muscle pump

Question 30

What does a-VO2 difference look at?

a.) total peripheral resistance during exercise
b.) the amount of CO2 produced divided by the amount of O2 consumed
c.) the difference in arterial and venous blood oxygen content
d.) HR x SV

Answer 30

c.) the difference in arterial and venous blood oxygen content

Question 31

What is the most likely explanation for why cardiovascular drift must occur?

a.) increased parasympathetic activation
b.) increased sympathetic activation
c.) decreased filling time with higher heart rates
d.) loss of blood plasma decreases stroke volume

Answer 31

d.) loss of blood plasma decreases stroke volume

Question 32

What will the release of metabolites like CO2, ADP, H+, etc. from working muscles result in with regard to the cardiovascular system?

a.) contraction of smooth muscle within blood vessels around the working muscles
b.) relaxation of smooth muscle within blood vessels around the working muscles
c.) decreased blood flow
d.) an increased mean arterial pressure and consequently increased afterload

Answer 32

b.) relaxation of smooth muscle within blood vessels around the working muscles

Question 33

Exercise hyperemia is an increased flow of blood to the working muscles (and less to other organs) during exercise. What allows for this to occur?

a.) constriction of all blood vessels in systemic circulation
b.) increased cardiac output
c.) dilation of all blood vessels in systemic circulation
d.) dilation of blood vessels specifically next to working muscle

Answer 33

d.) dilation of blood vessels specifically next to working muscle

Question 34

What is one possible explanation for cardiovascular drift?

a.) blood plasma is lost through sweating
b.) decreased body temperature
c.) stroke volume decreases due to increase parasympathetic activation
d.) inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system

Answer 34

a.) blood plasma is lost through sweating

Question 35

Aortic pressure does not change much even with high intensity exercise. How is this possible?

a.) cardiac output increases with exercise
b.) total peripheral resistance decreases with exercise
c.) the aorta dilates with exercise
d.) stroke volume decreases

Answer 35

b.) total peripheral resistance decreases with exercise

Question 36

How is it possible that the total peripheral resistance decreases with exercise?

a.) due to CO2, H+, etc. binding to the aorta
b.) due to the sympathetic nervous system becoming more active
c.) due to the dilation of the vessels around the working muscle
d.) due to increased afterload

Answer 36

c.) due to the dilation of the vessels around the working muscle

Question 37

During development of the resting membrane potential, why does more potassium exit the cell than sodium enter the cell?

a.) the cell is more permeable to sodium
b.) the equilibrium potential is higher
c.) the cell is more permeable to potassium
d.) the equilibrium potential is lower

Answer 37

c.) the cell is more permeable to potassium

Question 38

During the development of the resting membrane potential, what happens to the interior of the cell if potassium exits the cell at a greater rate than sodium enters?

a.) the exterior becomes negative
b.) the interior becomes negative
c.) a chemical driving force develops
d.) an action potential occurs

Answer 38

b.) the interior becomes negative

Question 39

What is the impact on sodium and potassium if potassium is exiting the cell at a greater rate than sodium enters, causing the interior to become negative?

a.) it increases the rate sodium enters and decreases the rate potassium exits
b.) it increases the rate sodium enters and potassium exits
c.) it decreases the rate sodium enters and potassium exits
d.) it decreases the rate sodium enters and increases the rate potassium exits

Answer 39

a.) it increases the rate sodium enters and decreases the rate potassium exits

Question 40

What occurs with regard to sodium and potassium movement when the interior is -70mV (the resting membrane potential?)

a.) an action potential occurs
b.) sodium enters at a greater rate than potassium exits
c.) sodium enters at the same rate that potassium exits
d.) sodium enters at a slower rate than potassium exits

Answer 40

c.) sodium enters at the same rate that potassium exits

Question 41

What type of transport works to maintain the concentrations of sodium and potassium inside the cell?

a.) simple diffusion
b.) secondary active
c.) facilitated diffusion
d.) primary active

Answer 41

d.) primary active

Question 42

Why does ACh binding to the receptors on the dendrites of the post-synaptic neuron result in a depolarization (more positive)?

a.) it increases the rate of the sodium/potassium pumps
b.) it allows sodium to enter
c.) it allows chloride to enter
d.) it allows potassium to quickly exit

Answer 42

b.) it allows sodium to enter

Question 43

What happens in the hillock when threshold is reached?

a.) voltage gated sodium channels open
b.) voltage gated potassium channels open
c.) ligand gated chloride channels open
d.) ligand gated calcium channels open

Answer 43

a.) voltage gated sodium channels open

Question 44

What must occur in the axon terminal button for neurotransmitters to be released into the extracellular fluid?

a.) voltage gated sodium channels must open
b.) ligand gated sodium channels must open
c.) voltage gated calcium channels must open
d.) ligand gated calcium channels must open

Answer 44

c.) voltage gated calcium channels must open

Question 45

Graded potentials are known as decremental while action potentials are non-decremental. What does this mean?

a.) action potentials dissipate (lose voltage) over time
b.) graded potentials increase in size (voltage) over time
c.) action potentials increase in size (voltage) over time
d.) graded potentials dissipate (lose voltage) over time

Answer 45

d.) graded potentials dissipate (lose voltage) over time

Question 46

What is a receptor?

a.) afferent neuron
b.) dendrite
c.) the first “thing” that senses the stimulus
d.) sensory neuron

Answer 46

c.) the first “thing” that senses the stimulus

Question 47

What is the function of sensory (afferent) neurons that are wrapped around muscle spindles?

a.) they travel to the spinal cord and activate alpha motor neurons of the muscle being stretched
b.) they travel to the spinal cord and activate neurons within the primary motor cortex
c.) they travel to the spinal cord and activate alpha motor neurons of the antagonistic muscle
d.) they travel to the spinal cord and inhibit alpha motor neurons of the muscle being stretched

Answer 47

a.) they travel to the spinal cord and activate alpha motor neurons of the muscle being stretched

Question 48

Which statement is true about reciprocal inhibition?

a.) the sensory neuron will also activate alpha motor neurons of the antagonistic muscle
b.) the sensory neuron will also inhibit the alpha motor neurons being stretched
c.) the sensory neuron will also inhibit alpha motor neurons of the antagonist muscle
d.) the sensory neuron will also inhibit neurons within the primary motor cortex

Answer 48

c.) the sensory neuron will also inhibit alpha motor neurons of the antagonist muscle

Question 49

What is the function of the golgi tendon organ and associated sensory neurons?

a.) sense high levels of tension within tendons and inhibit the alpha motor neurons of the active muscle
b.) sense touch within the tendon and activate the alpha motor neurons of the active muscle
d.) sense high levels of tension within tendons and activate the alpha motor neurons of the antagonist muscle

Answer 49

a.) sense high levels of tension within tendons and inhibit the alpha motor neurons of the active muscle

Question 50

What is the function of chemoreceptors?

a.) sense chemical changes in the blood
b.) sense mechanical stimuli
c.) sense tension within tendons
d.) sense heat

Answer 50

a.) sense chemical changes in the blood

Question 51

Which protein covers the myosin binding sites on actin?

a.) tropomyosin
b.) the myosin tail
c.) troponin
d.) the myosin head

Answer 51

a.) tropomyosin

Question 52

With regard to the power stroke and myosin filament, what actually results in the pulling of actin towards the M-line?

a.) the tilting of the myosin head
b.) ADP being released
c.) inorganic phosphate being released
d.) the recoiling (contraction) of the neck or hinge region

Answer 52

d.) the recoiling (contraction) of the neck or hinge region

Question 53

What is the T-Tubule?

a.) where all the RyR receptors are located
b.) an extension of the plasma membrane (sarcolemma)
c.) the binding location for ACh
d.) a storage site for calcium

Answer 53

b.) an extension of the plasma membrane (sarcolemma)

Question 54

What direct/immediate purpose does ACh serve within the synapse between the alpha motor neurons and muscle fibers (neuromuscular function)?

a.) to allow calcium out of the SR
b.) to allow sodium to enter into the muscle fiber
c.) to allow myosin to interact with calcium
d.) to allow potassium out of the muscle fiber

Answer 54

b.) to allow sodium to enter into the muscle fiber

Question 55

What is the direct/immediate purpose of the AP spreading down the sarcolemma and T-tubule?

a.) to allow myosin and actin to interact
b.) to shift tropomyosin off the binding sites on actin
c.) to open DHP/RyR receptors
d.) to allow calcium to be reuptaken into the SR

Answer 55

c.) to open DHP/RyR receptors

Question 56

Why is there a suboptimal amount of force produced within the muscle fiber during a muscle twitch?

a.) inorganic phosphate is preventing myosin and actin interaction
b.) calcium is reuptaken before maximal amounts of myosin can bind to actin
c.) calcium release is exceeding reuptake but not by enough
d.) the release of calcium is significantly exceeding reuptake but ATP is lacking

Answer 56

b.) calcium is reuptaken before maximal amounts of myosin can bind to actin

Question 57

What is the term used to describe when an alpha motor neuron generates more frequent action potentials to cause a muscle fiber to produce more force?

a.) excitation contraction coupling
b.) temporal summation
c.) the power stroke
d.) spatial summation

Answer 57

b.) temporal summation

Question 58

If you want to activate more and larger alpha motor neurons that go to a particular muscle, what must happen?

a.) the upper motor neuron must generate stronger APs
b.) the lower motor neuron must lower its threshold
c.) the lower motor neuron must increase its threshold
d.) the upper motor neuron must generate more frequent APs

Answer 58

d.) the upper motor neuron must generate more frequent APs

Question 59

What allows for the larger alpha motor neurons to be “activated?”

a.) less neurotransmitter is now required in their synaptic clefts over time to hit threshold
b.) less neurotransmitter is released into their synaptic clefts over time, allowing them to hit threshold
c.) more neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic clefts over time, allowing them to hit threshold

Answer 59

c.) more neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic clefts over time, allowing them to hit threshold

Question 60

_____________ is the process of activating more alpha motor neurons so the whole muscle can produce more force by way of more muscle fibers contracting?

a.) spatial summation
b.) excitation contraction coupling
c.) temporal summation
d.) the power stroke

Answer 60

a.) spatial summation

Question 61

What does the term “depolarization” mean?

a.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more positive
b.) anytime the exterior of a neuron becomes more positive
c.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more negative
d.) anytime the exterior of a neuron becomes more negative

Answer 61

a.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more positive

Question 62

What does the term “hyperpolarization” mean?

a.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more positive
b.) anytime the exterior of a neuron becomes more positive
c.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more negative
d.) anytime the exterior of a neuron becomes more negative

Answer 62

c.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more negative

Question 63

____________ is the fatty wrapping around the axon that allows the AP to spread at a faster rate.

a.) Nodes of Ranvier
b.) axon hillock
c.) myelin sheath
d.) synaptic cleft

Answer 63

c.) myelin sheath

Question 64

Voltage gated channels open up in the _____________, allowing sodium to rush in and recharge a myelinated neuron to +30mV.

a.) Nodes of Ranvier
b.) axon hillock
c.) myelin sheath
d.) synaptic cleft

Answer 64

a.) Nodes of Ranvier

Question 65

What is a type of receptor that provides information about muscle length and rate of shortening?

a.) Golgi tendon organs
b.) muscle spindles
c.) Pacinian corpuscles
d.) skeletal muscle chemoreceptors

Answer 65

b.) muscle spindles

Question 66

What is a type of receptor that provides information about muscle force production?

a.) Golgi tendon organs
b.) muscle spindles
c.) Pacinian corpuscles
d.) skeletal muscle chemoreceptors

Answer 66

a.) Golgi tendon organs

Question 67

_____________ results in the inhibition of the motor neurons, that cause contraction of the same muscle experiencing excessive tension to prevent damage to that muscle.

a.) reciprocal inhibition
b.) autogenic inhibition

Answer 67

b.) autogenic inhibition

Question 68

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding the vestibular apparatus?

a.) allows for equilibrium
b.) it is important for adjusting eye movements
c.) it is sensitive to changes in chemical environments
d.) any change in head position can stimulate it

Answer 68

c.) it is sensitive to changes in chemical environments

Question 69

What is the term for the groups of muscle fibers surrounded by the perimysium?

a.) myofibrils
b.) fascicles
c.) sarcomeres

Answer 69

b.) fascicles

Question 70

What is the term for the cylinder shapes that make up repeating segments of sarcomeres that make up the majority of muscle fibers?

a.) myofibrils
b.) fascicles
c.) sarcolemma

Answer 70

a.) myofibrils

Question 71

True or False: myosin is a thick filament line which slightly overlaps actin on both sides.

Answer 71

True

Question 72

True or False: the A-band is where myosin exists without any overlapping actin.

Answer 72

False - correct answer is H-Zone

Question 73

True or False: the I-band is where actin exists without any overlapping myosin.

Answer 73

True

Question 74

What two components are needed for a muscle contraction to happen?

a.) sodium and calcium
b.) sodium and ATP
c.) calcium and ATP
d.) sodium and potassium

Answer 74

c.) calcium and ATP

Question 75

The amount of sodium coming into a small alpha motor neuron will allow it to reach its membrane potential faster than the same amount of sodium coming into a larger alpha motor neuron, which allows for spatial summation to be achieved. This is known as the…

a.) all-or-nothing principle
b.) size principle
c.) Frank Starling mechanism
d.) Fick equation

Answer 75

b.) size principle

Question 76

Which of the following is true when a muscle is at an optimal length?

a.) myosin heads are not binding with actin
b.) myosin and actin are very overlapped
c.) the sarcomeres are so shortened that they inhibit the myosin heads from binding to actin

Answer 76

b.) myosin and actin are very overlapped

Question 77

What type of muscle fiber has the highest amount of mitochondria?

a.) Type I
b.) Type IIx
c.) Type IIa

Answer 77

a.) Type I

Question 78

What type of muscle fiber has the highest speed of shortening (VMax)?

a.) Type I
b.) Type IIx
c.) Type IIa

Answer 78

b.) Type IIx

Question 79

A long-distance runner will typically have more of which type of muscle fibers?

a.) Type I
b.) Type IIx
c.) Type IIa

Answer 79

a.) Type I

Question 80

True or False: lactate threshold is another name for anaerobic threshold.

Answer 80

True

Question 81

Which of the following best describes the oxygen deficit period?

a.) there is not enough oxygen being consumed during the first few minutes of exercise, so aerobic metabolism is utilized to meet the demands
b.) there is not enough oxygen being consumed during the first few minutes of exercise, so anaerobic metabolism and the phosphagen system is utilized to meet the demands
c.) there is not enough oxygen being consumed after the first few minutes of exercise, so anaerobic metabolism and the phosphagen system is utilized to meet the demands

Answer 81

b.) there is not enough oxygen being consumed during the first few minutes of exercise, so anaerobic metabolism and the phosphagen system is utilized to meet the demands

Question 82

Which type of muscle fibers have the least ability to receive and consume oxygen?

a.) Type I
b.) Type IIx
c.) Type IIa

Answer 82

b.) Type IIx