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BMSC 210 > Module 12: Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Module 12: Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Sexually transmitted disease are caused by:

A
  • bacteria
  • viruses
  • protists
  • fungi
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2
Q

Pathogens of sexually transmitted diseases are generally only found in body fluids from the ______________ that are exchanged during sexual activity.

A

genitourinary tract

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3
Q

Rates of a disease are

A

the number/100,000.

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4
Q

What is the causative organism and recommended treatment of Gonorrhea?

A
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • ceftriaxone + azithromycin
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5
Q

What is the causative organism and recommended treatment of Syphilis?

A
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Benzathine penicillin
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6
Q

What is the causative organism and recommended treatment of Chlamydia?

A
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • tetracycline or azithromycin
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7
Q

This disease is another manifestation of infection with Chlamydia trachomatis.

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

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8
Q

What seven groups are at a higher risk for STIs?

A
  • men who have sex with men
  • injection drug users
  • sex trade workers and their clients/partners
  • partners of those with a known case of syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia, etc.
  • people diagnosed with another STI
  • people who have sexual contact in or with partners from endemic areas
  • people with multiple partners
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9
Q

____________ is an intracellular pathogen that is the #1 STI in the world

A

Chlamydia

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10
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae in females is characterized by ____________. If left untreated it can lead to __________ , ___________ & ____________.

May also have: ________ & ________ infections.

A
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae* in females is characterized by mild vaginitis. If left untreated it can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility and eptopic pregnancy.
  • pharyngeal and rectal infections
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11
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae symptoms in males inclue:

A
  • urethral discharge
  • painful infection of the urethral canal
  • pharyngeal and rectal infections
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12
Q

Diagnosis of N. gonorrhoeae via:

A
  • microscopy in symptomatic men with urethral discharge
  • culture – growth on Thayer Martin medium
  • nucleic amplification tests – via urine specimen
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13
Q

True or False. T. pallidum can be transmitted from an infected woman to the fetus during pregnancy.

A

True (congenital syphilis)

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14
Q

Having _______ can increase chances of acquiring an HIV infection by 3-5x.

A

syphilis

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15
Q

What are the three stages of syphilis?

A
  • primary
  • secondary
  • tertiary
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16
Q

Rates of syphilis are _______; rates of gonorrhea are _________.

A

rising; rising

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17
Q

Symptoms of untreated syphilis in each of the three stages:

A
  • primary - chancre appears from weeks to a couple months after infection
  • secondary - rash, fever, swollen glands, hair loss
  • tertiary - benign gummatous, cardio-vascular and late-neuro syphilis.
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18
Q

Diagnosis of T. pallidum (syphilis)

A
  • blood test - serology (agglutination, EIAs, etc)
  • tests that look for anti-treponemol antibodies as well as non-treponemal antibodies
  • point of care tests
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19
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis causes these three diseases:

A
  • Chlamydia trachomatis infections
  • Nongonococcal urethritis
  • Lymphogranuloma venereum
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20
Q

This disease has a unique and complex biphasic life cycle; it is only infectious during one life stage.

A

Chlamydia

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21
Q

The elementary body form of Chlamydia is adapted for ___________ survival, while the reticulate body form is involved in __________ growth and replication.

A

extracellular, intracellular

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22
Q

A group of closely related microorganisms distinguished by a characteristic set of antigens.

A

Serovars

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23
Q

Life cycle of Chlamydia

A
  1. elementary body attacks host cell
  2. phagocytosis of elementary body
  3. conversion to reticulate body
  4. multiplication of reticulate bodies
  5. conversion to elementary bodies
  6. release of elementary bodies
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24
Q

The following are symptoms of what disease:

  • infection and inflammation of the reproductive tract, urethritis, proctitis and epididymitis in men
  • urethritis, endometritis, and cervicitis in women that can lead to cervical cancer
A

Chlamydia

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25
Q

This infection can be passed to newborns during childbirth resulting in conjunctivitis or pneumonia.

A

Chlamydia

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26
Q

Diagnosis of Chlamydia trachomatis is done via:

A
  • nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs)
  • some POC tests
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27
Q

This virus infects epithelial cells around the mouth and lips causing cold sores.

A

Herpes simplex 1 virus (HSV-1)

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28
Q

Guanin analogue acyclovir drugs are successful in controlling the infectious blister stage and inhibit replication of this virus.

A

Herpes simplex 2 virus (HSV-2)

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29
Q

Diagnosis of primary genital herpes:

A
  • usually clinical
  • lab tests may include staining, direct immunofluorescence or EIA testing
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30
Q

This disease is caused by the protist.

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

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31
Q

This disease is generally transmitted by sexual contact but may also be transmitted by contaminated toilet seats, paper towel, etc.

A

Trichomoniasis

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32
Q

This disease is typically asymptomatic in males; in females it is characterized by vaginal discharge, vaginitis, and painful urination.

A

Trichomoiasis

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33
Q

Diagnosis of trichomoniasis occurs via:

A
  • direct microscopic observation
  • cell culture
  • immunological techniques
  • PCR assay
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34
Q

Metronidazole is the treatment for this disease, with cure rates of 85-95%.

A

Trichomoniasis

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35
Q

This small icosahedral non-enveloped DS DNA virus has over 100 types.

A

Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

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36
Q

More than ____ % of sexually active Canadian men and women will have a sexually transmitted HPV infection at some point.

A

70%

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37
Q

This disease can cause anal and genital warts; and more serious consequences like cervical, penile and anal cancers.

A

Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

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38
Q

What are the two HPV vaccines available in Canada and how many types of HPV does each immunize against?

A
  • Cervarix (2 types)
  • Gardasil (9 types)
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39
Q

What is the causative agent of Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)?

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

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40
Q

Since the beginning of the epidemic, __________ people have become infected with HIV and ________ people have died from AIDS-related illnesses.

A
  • 80 million
  • 35 million
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41
Q

HIV rates in Canada are _______ in men. Female rates are slowly ________.

A
  • higher
  • increasing
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42
Q

HIV-1 is _______ virulent than HIV-2.

A

more

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43
Q

__________ infections are common in AIDS patients.

A

opportunistic

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44
Q

The most common opportunistic infection in AIDS patients is:

A

pneumonia

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45
Q

A frequent non-microbial disease in AIDS patients is _________.

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

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46
Q

An atypical cancer caused by co-infection of HIV and herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8).

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

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47
Q

Retrovirus is an ____________ virus, with two copies of _________ genome that uses the enzyme ___________ to transfer info from RNA to DNA.

A
  • enveloped
  • ssRNA
  • reverse transcriptase
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48
Q

This virus can integrate into DNA of cells and remain there as a latent virus.

A

retrovirus

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49
Q

HIV infects cells that containt the _____ cell surface protein, most commonly infecting _______ and _______ cells.

A
  • CD4
  • macrophages
  • T-helper
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50
Q

HIV _____ and ____ binds CD4 receptor and CCR5 receptor.

A
  • gp120
  • gp41
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51
Q

Once inside the host cell, HIV replicates. An altered form of _____ that recognizes ____ on Th1 cells is made so that when the viruses are released from the cells they can go on to infect T-helper cells.

A
  • gp120
  • CXCR4
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52
Q

HIV infection results in a progressive decline in CD4 cells, ________ production falls, leading to a reduction of the immune response.

A

cytokine

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53
Q

In HIV diagnosis, ______ testing predominates.

A

serological

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54
Q

These drug classes delay the symptoms of AIDS and prolong the life of those infected with HIV.

A
  • nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  • non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  • protease inhibitors
  • fusion inhibitors
  • integrase inhibitors
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55
Q

__________ is used, mostly in developed countries as HIV treatment. (3 drugs taken simultaneously)

A

Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART)

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56
Q

___________ infections kill ~ 4 million people per year.

A

Respiratory

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57
Q

List 5 pathogens that cause upper respiratory infections.

A
  • staphylcoccus aureus
  • neisseria menigitidis
  • streptococcus pyrogenes
  • corynebacterium diptheriae
  • haemphilus influenzae
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58
Q

List six pathogens that cause lower respiratory infections.

A
  • influenza virus
  • coccidioides immitis
  • bordetella pertusis
  • streptococcus pneumoniae
  • coxiella burnetii
  • chlamydophila psittaci
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59
Q

What determines where pathogen particles come to rest in the respiratory tract?

A

size and speed

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60
Q

Streptococcus classified based on hemolytic properites: __________ oxidase iron in hemoglobin in RBCs; __________ complete rupture of RBCs.

A
  • alpha-hemolytic
  • beta-hemolytic
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61
Q

Only encapsulated strains of this pathogen are pathogenic.

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

62
Q

The virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae is its:

A

capsule

63
Q

An invasive lung infection that generates a strong inflammatory response.

A

pneumonia

64
Q

Treatment for Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

penicillin

65
Q

This Gram+ firmicute grows in chains, causes beta-hemolysis, and is further classified based on carbohydrate on cell wall (Lancefield type).

A

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Strep)

66
Q

This pathogen is the causative agent of: strep throat, middle ear infections, impetego, erysipelas, cellulitis, necrotizing fasciitis, pneumonia and toxic shock.

A

Streptococcus pyrogenes

67
Q

Group A Strep may carry a ______________ that encodes streptococcal pyrogenic __________.

A
  • lysogenic bacteriphage
  • exotoxins
68
Q

Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins of GAS are responsible for symptoms of _________ and ________.

A

toxic shock syndrome and scarlet fever

69
Q

Diagnosis of Streptococcal diseases by:

A
  • culture on blood agar followed by serology for Lancefield type
  • antigen detection (rapid tests)
70
Q

A severe respiratory disease in children that forms irregular shaped rods during growth.

A

Diptheria

71
Q

Pathogenic strains of Corynebacterium diptheriae lysogenized by _________ produce a powerful ________ .

A

bacteriophage beta; exotoxin

72
Q

___________ toxin inhibits protein synthesis.

A

Diphtheria

73
Q

Diphtheria toxin causes:

A
  • tissue death
  • appearance of pseudomembrane in the patient’s throat
74
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae is isolated from the throat and grown on Blood agar with ______.

A

tellurite (loeffler’s medium)

75
Q

Treatment includes antibiotics: penicillin, erythromycin, gentamicin

A

Diphtheria

76
Q

Acute, highly infectious respiratory disease caused by Bordetella pertussis.

A

Whooping Cough (pertussis)

77
Q

Bordetella pertussis produces pertussis exotoxin (AB toxin) after attaching to cells up upper respiratory tract, this then:

A
  • induces cAMP
  • produces endotoxin
78
Q

Increases in pertussis activity due to:

A
  • waning immunity
  • reduced natural immune boosting
  • higher rates of detection
  • genetic changes in the bacteria
  • clustering of unvaccinated individuals
79
Q

Diagnosis of Pertussis

A
  • fluorescent antibody staining of nasopharyngeal swab specimen
  • culture of the organism
80
Q

Antibiotic treatment of this pathogen includes ampicillin, tetracycline or erythromycin.

A

Pertussis

81
Q

All mycobacterium are _________ due to the waxy mycolic acid content of their cell wall.

A

acid fast

82
Q

Tuberculosis is caused by

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

83
Q

Hansen’s disease (leprosy) is caused by

A

Mycobacterium leprae

84
Q

Cell-mediated immunity plays a critical role in the prevention of active disease after infection of this disease.

A

Tuberculosis

85
Q

This infection is classified as a primary infection or post-primary infection.

A

Tuberculosis

86
Q

In tuberculosis, the primary infection ___________ the patient to the bacteria and alters the individuals response to ______________.

A

hypersensitizes; subsequent exposures

87
Q

A diagnostic skin test that measures hypersensitivity.

A

tuberculin test

88
Q

Reinfection from bacteria dormant in the lung.

A

Post-primary tuberculosis infection

89
Q

Chronic tuberculosis often results in a gradual spread of ____________ in the lungs.

A

tubercular lesions

90
Q

What are tubercular lesions?

A

aggregates of activated macrophages

91
Q

A common complication of those with HIV infections.

A

tuberculosis

92
Q

Treatment of this disease involves antimicrobial therapy with isoniazid and other antibiotics – usually requires a 9 month regimen.

A

tuberculosis

93
Q

Antibiotics for tuberculosis treatment cause the bacteria to lose its acid fast properties by:

A

affecting the synthesis of mycolic acid in mycobacteria

94
Q

This pathogen causing this disease grows in schwann cells that insulate nerves.

A

Leprosy

95
Q

The armadillo is the only experimental animal successfully used to grow this organism.

A

Mycobacterium leprae

96
Q

Transmission of this disease by both direct contact and respiratory routes. Has an incubation period that ranges from several weeks to years.

A

Leprosy

97
Q

Leprosy is treated with:

A

antibiotics

98
Q

Inflammation of the meninges, membranes that line the central nervous system, especially the spinal cord and brain.

A

Meningitis

99
Q

Gram-negative, nonsporulating, obligately aerobic, oxidase-positive, encapsulated diplococcus.

A

Neisseria menengitides

100
Q

Diagnosis of Meningitis via

A

Thayer Martin medium

101
Q

A condition characterized by intravascular coagulation and tissue destruction, shock and death in over 10 percent of cases.

A

meningococcemia

102
Q

13 pathogenic strains of Neisseria meningitides are recognized based on differences in their ______________.

A

capsular polysaccharides

103
Q

The most prevalent human infections are _______.

A

viruses

104
Q

Measles is cause by

A

paramyxovirus

105
Q

This is one of the most contagious diseases there is – requires 95% of the population to be immunized in order to reach herd immunity.

A

Measles

106
Q

A single-stranded, minus-sense RNA virus that enters the nose and throat by airborne transmission.

A

paramyxovirus

107
Q

Caused by a positive-strand RNA virus of the togavirus group.

A

Rubella (German measles)

108
Q

Mumps is caused by

A

paramyxovirus

109
Q

Characterized by inflammation of the salivary glands.

A

Mumps

110
Q

An attenuated combined vaccine covers these three disease:

A

measles, mumps, rubella (MMR vaccine)

111
Q

A herpesvirus which is highly contagious and transmitted by infectious droplets.

A

varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

112
Q

Varicella-zoster virus causes this childhood disease.

A

Chickenpox

113
Q

The varicella zoster virus occasionally migrates to the skin surface, causing a painful skin eruption called

A

Shingles

114
Q

Varicella-zoster virus can be immunized against with _________ or ________.

A

attenuated virus or recombinant vaccine

115
Q

The most common infectious diseases.

A

Colds

116
Q

Colds are viral infections transmitted via

A

airborne droplets

117
Q

Colds are commonly caused by

A

rhinoviruses

118
Q

Positive-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses with nearly 150 different strains identified.

A

rhinoviruses

119
Q

Approximately ¼ of all colds are due to infections with other viruses: _________ and ________.

A

adenoviruses and coronaviruses

120
Q

_________ viruses contain a single-stranded, negative-sense, segmented RNA genome surrounded by an envelope composed of protein, a lipid bilayer, and external glycoproteins.

A

Influenza

121
Q

Each strain of influenza A virus can be identified by a unique set of surface glycoproteins: __________ and _________.

A

hemagglutinin (HA)

neuraminidase (NA)

122
Q

Each influenza A virus has one type of HA and one type of NA on its __________ and is named for the antigens it contains.

A

viral capsid

123
Q

The HA antigen is important in:

A

attaching the influenza virus to host cells

124
Q

The NA antigen is instrumental in:

A

releasing the virus from host cells

125
Q

Influenza outbreaks occur annually because of the

A

plasticity of the influenza genome

126
Q

__________ of the genes of the influenza virus is facilitated by the fact that the genome is ________

A

reassortment; segmented

127
Q

Minor change in influenza virus antigens due to gene mutation.

A

Antigenic drift

128
Q

Major change in influenza virus antigen due to gene reassortment

A

Antigenic Shift

129
Q

Gram-negative, spiral-shaped bacterium associated with ulcers, gastritis and gastric cancer.

A

Helicobacter pylori

130
Q

Colonizes the non-acid-secreting mucosa of the stomach and upper intestinal tract.

A

Helicobacter pylori

131
Q

Helicobacter pylori is diagnosed via ____ and treatable with _______.

A

PCR; antibiotics

132
Q

Ebola hemorrhagic fever is caused by _______, a negative strand RNA virus.

A

filovirus

133
Q

Case fatality of this disease ranges from 35-75%.

A

Ebola

134
Q

Arthropod-transmitted bacterial disease

A

Lyme disease

135
Q

Caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Lyme disease

136
Q

One of only a handful of Bacteria that contain a _______ chromosome.

A

linear

137
Q

Lyme disease is spread primarily by the ______.

A

deer tick

138
Q

Neurological disease in chronic stage lyme disease mimics _______.

A

syphillis

139
Q

Prime mammalian reservoirs of lyme disease are _______ and _______.

A

deer; white-footed field mouse

140
Q

Has caused more human deaths that any other bacterial disease in recorded history.

A

Plague

141
Q

Among all infectious diseases, only ______ and ______ have killed more than the plague.

A

small pox; measles

142
Q

Caused by Yersinia pestis, a Gram-negative, facultatively aerobic rod-shaped bacterium.

A

Plague

143
Q

______ are intermediate hosts and vectors that spread plague between mammalian hosts.

A

Fleas

144
Q

______ plague is enzootic among rodents

A

sylvatic plague

145
Q

Most common form of plague is _______ plague, so called because of the ______ that develop in the infected individual.

A

bubonic; buboes

146
Q

Buboes in bubonic plague are filled with

A

Yersinia pestis

147
Q

In this disease, local hemorrhages produce dark splotches on the skin and eventual tissue necrosis.

A

bubonic plague

148
Q

_______ plague occurs when Yersinia pestis reaches the lungs.

A

Pneumonic

149
Q

_______ plague is the rapid spread of Yersinia pestis throughout the body.

A

septicemic

150
Q

Plague can be treated with _____ and _____ if it is rapidly diagnosed.

A

gentamycin streptomycin

BMSC 210 (12 decks)

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