Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

BMSC 210 > Module 11: Infectious Disease - Diagnosis and Epidemiology > Flashcards

Module 11: Infectious Disease - Diagnosis and Epidemiology Flashcards

1
Q

A subdiscipline of microbiology whose focus is diagnosing infectious diseases by identifying pathogenic microbes and advising medical providers on treatment.

A

Clinical Microbiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Six rules of microbiology laboratory safety standards:

A
  • restrict access
  • practice good personal hygiene
  • use PPE
  • vaccinate
  • handle specimens safely
  • decontaminate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A local or systemic infection acquired at a healthcare facility.

A

nosocomial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

These infections are frequently resistant to antibiotics.

A

hospital acquired infections

(nosocomial infections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Search for antibodies or antigens using agglutination, immunofluorescence, EIA, etc.

A

Immunological Assays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Search for microbial or virus antigens using fluorescent antibody, EIA, etc.

A

Antigen Assays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Search for pathogen genes by gene amplification.

A

Molecular Assays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The reliability of any test is based on it ____________ and ______________.

A
  • specificity
  • sensitivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The ability to recognize the target pathogen, minimizing false positives.

A

Specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The minimum amount of a pathogen needed for the test to detect it, minimizing false negatives.

A

Sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

One of several selective media used for primary isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Thayer-Martin (MTM) agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Gram stain can positively identify this pathogen in samples taken from males – while female samples have a positive identity in 60% or less.

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An isolate is often tentatively identified by observing ______________ on various media, followed by more detailed tests to make a positive identification.

A

colony characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Support growth of most aerobic and facultatively aerobic organisms .

A

General-purpose media

(e.g. blood agar, chocolate agar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Contain specific growth factors that enhance growth of certain fastidious pathogens.

A

Enriched media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

This type of media inhibits growth of some bacteria while support growth of others.

A

Selective media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This agar inhibits growth of Gram + and supports growth of Gram - organisms.

A

EMB agar

(eosin methylene blue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This type of media allows for identification based on growth, colour and appearance.

A

Differential media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This media contains bile salts and crystal violet – inhibits Gram +, contains sugars to differentiate Gram -, is both selective and differential.

A

MacConkey agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

_____________ is a selective medium because it contains antibiotics that inhibit the growth of other bacteria.

A

Thayer Martin Agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The isolation, growth and identification of _________________ can be complicated by specimen contamination and the need to maintain anoxic conditions.

A

obligate anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A method for assessing antimicrobial susceptibility to antibiotics.

A

Disc diffusion test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The lowest concentration of antimicrobial agent that completely inhibits growth.

A

Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Two methods to determine MIC

A
  • antibiotic dilution assay
  • Etest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Non-diffusion-based antimicrobial susceptibility testing method that uses a preformed and predefined gradient of an antimicrobial agent immobilized on a plastic strip.
Etest
26
This process uses fluorescent probes to label PCR amplicons, thereby allowing the accumulation of target DNA to be visualized.
Quantitative real-time PCR (qPCR)
27
Binds non-specifically to double-stranded DNA and fluoresces only when bond.
SYBR Green
28
Uses pathogen-specific RNA to produce complementary DNA directly from patient samples.
reverse transcription PCR | (RT-PCR)
29
Uses labeled hybridization primers that are incorporated into an amplicon product of a qPCR reaction. Determines presence but not amount of pathogen DNA.
Qualitative PCR
30
What are the steps of a dipstick assay?
1. Lyse and denature sample in NaOH. 2. Hybridize sample to probes (probe has reporter, region of complementary DNA to target, capture sequence) in solution. Nucleases destroy unhybridized probe. 3. Capture with dipstick.
31
The study of antigen-antibody reactions in vitro.
Serology
32
Three example reactions of a serological reactions used for diagnostic immunology tests:
* neutralization * precipitation * agglutination
33
As antibody titer rises, body temperature \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
drops
34
Use antibodies specific for pathogens or their products for in vitro tests designed to detect specific infectious agents.
Immunoassays
35
A quantitative measure of antibody level – defined at the highest dilution (lowest concentration) of serum at which an antigen-antibody reaction is observed.
Antibody titer
36
Serological reactions often use __________ antibodies.
monoclonal
37
Antibodies for a single epitope.
Monoclonal antibodies
38
This pathogen does not elicit an immune response that can be measured.
*N. gonorrhoeae*
39
A specific region on an antigen that the antibody binds to.
epitope
40
An antigen that has multiple epitopes.
Polyclonal antibody
41
An interaction of a soluble antigen and antibody, that produces a visible antigen-antibody reaction.
Precipitin Reaction
42
The visible clumping of a particulate antigen when mixed with antibodies specific for the particulate antigens.
Agglutination
43
Agglutination tests are typically ______ sensitive than precipitin tests.
more
44
Results when soluble antibody causes clumping due to interaction with an antigen that is an integral part of the surface of a cell or other insoluble particles.
Direct Agglutination
45
The agglutination of soluble antigens or antibodies that have been absorbed or chemically coupled to cells or insoluble particles.
Passive Agglutination
46
\_\_\_\_\_\_ agglutination reactions can be up to five times more sensitive that _____ agglutination tests.
passive, direct
47
This immunoassay can be used for the classification of antigens found on the surface of red blood cells.
Direct Agglutination
48
The interaction of antibody with antigen to block or distort the antigen sufficiently to reduce or eliminate its biological activity.
Neuralization
49
In this immunofluorescence method, the antibody targeted against the surface antigen is covalently linked to the fluorescent dye.
Direct Immunofluorescence
50
In this immunofluorescence, the presence of a nonfluorescent antibody on the surface of a cell is detected by use of a fluorescent antibody directed against the nonfluorescent antibody.
Indirect Immunofluorescence
51
Antibodies chemically modified with fluorescent dyes to help detect antigens on intact cells.
Immunofluorescence
52
Two common fluorescent dyes:
* rhodamine B (red) * fluorescein isothiocyanate (yellow-green)
53
This is a protein-based immunoblot.
Western Blot
54
Steps of the Western Blot
* antigen is bound to nitrocellulose membrane * primary antibody to the antigen is added (antibody is specific to protein of interest) * secondary antibody with enzyme conjugate is added * substrate and enzyme interaction creates colour change for detection
55
Immunoblot methods detect:
antibodies specific to antigens or antigens themselves.
56
Three EIA (Enzyme Immunoassay) methodologies and what they detect:
* Direct EIA - detection of antigen * Indirect EIA - detection of antibody * Sandwich - detection of antibodies
57
Employ covalently bonded enzymes attached to antibody molecules.
EIAs
58
This EIA uses an immobilized pathogen specific antibody and an enzyme labelled pathogen specific antibody to detect antigen from patient.
Direct EIA
59
This EIA uses an immobilized pathogen, antigen and enzyme labelled pathogen antigen to detect antibody in serum.
Sandwich EIA
60
This EIA uses an immobilized antigen, adding patient sera and anti-antibody to detect an antibody.
Indirect EIA
61
The study of the occurrence, distribution, and determinants of health and disease in a population.
Epidemiology
62
The health of a population as a whole.
Public Health
63
A major goal of epidemiology:
Identifying the nature of a disease and its transmission.
64
Epidemiologists rely on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_: the observation, recognition and reporting of diseases as the occur.
surveillance
65
Diseases that must be reported for surveillance purposes.
notifiable diseases
66
The number of new cases of the diseases in a given period of time.
incidence of a disease
67
The total number of new and existing cases in a population in a given time.
prevalence of a disease
68
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a indicator of infection risk.
disease incidence
69
A disease that occurs in a large number of people in a population at the same time is
epidemic
70
A disease that is widespread, usually worldwide.
pandemic
71
A disease that is constantly present in a population, usually at low incidences.
endemic
72
Individuals that are infected with a pathogen that causes endemic disease are called
reservoirs
73
Disease individuals who show no or mild symptoms have
subclinical infections
74
What are the stages of disease?
* infection * incubation period * acute period * decline period * convalescent period
75
During this stage of disease, the organisms invades and colonizes the host.
Infection
76
The time between infection and onset of symptoms is called
incubation period
77
When the disease is at its height, it is called
acute period
78
During this stage of disease, disease symptoms are subsiding.
decline period
79
During this stage of disease, patient regains strength and returns to normal.
convalescent period
80
The incidence of death in a population.
mortality
81
Incidence of disease, including fatal and nonfatal diseases.
morbidity
82
Qualitatively measures disease burden in terms of lost years due to the disease, disability due to disease and premature death.
Disability-Adjusted Life Year (DALY)
83
The resistance of a group to infection due to immunity of a high proportion of the group.
Herd Immunity
84
When an infected individual transmits a disease directly to a susceptible host without the assistance of an intermediary this is called.
direct host-to-host transmission
85
When transmission is facilitated by a living or nonliving agent this is called
indirect host-to-host transmission
86
Living agents of transmission are called
vectors
87
Nonliving agents of transmission are called
fomites
88
Sites in which infectious agents remain viable and from which individuals can become infected.
reservoirs
89
Any disease that primarily infects animals but is occasionally transmitted to humans.
Zoonosis
90
A ___________ epidemic usually arises from contamination of water or food – disease incidence rises sharply with onset of epidemic and has a sharp decline as well.
Common-source epidemic
91
A _____________ epidemic, disease shows a slow, progressive rise and a gradual decline.
Host-to-host epidemic
92
Pathogen-infected individuals showing no signs of clinical disease.
carriers
93
The number of expected secondary cases of a given disease from each single case.
Basic Reproduction Number (R0)

BMSC 210 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions