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BMSC 210 > Module 11: Infectious Disease - Diagnosis and Epidemiology > Flashcards

Module 11: Infectious Disease - Diagnosis and Epidemiology Flashcards

1
Q

A subdiscipline of microbiology whose focus is diagnosing infectious diseases by identifying pathogenic microbes and advising medical providers on treatment.

A

Clinical Microbiology

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2
Q

Six rules of microbiology laboratory safety standards:

A
  • restrict access
  • practice good personal hygiene
  • use PPE
  • vaccinate
  • handle specimens safely
  • decontaminate
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3
Q

A local or systemic infection acquired at a healthcare facility.

A

nosocomial infection

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4
Q

These infections are frequently resistant to antibiotics.

A

hospital acquired infections

(nosocomial infections)

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5
Q

Search for antibodies or antigens using agglutination, immunofluorescence, EIA, etc.

A

Immunological Assays

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6
Q

Search for microbial or virus antigens using fluorescent antibody, EIA, etc.

A

Antigen Assays

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7
Q

Search for pathogen genes by gene amplification.

A

Molecular Assays

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8
Q

The reliability of any test is based on it ____________ and ______________.

A
  • specificity
  • sensitivity
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9
Q

The ability to recognize the target pathogen, minimizing false positives.

A

Specificity

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10
Q

The minimum amount of a pathogen needed for the test to detect it, minimizing false negatives.

A

Sensitivity

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11
Q

One of several selective media used for primary isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Thayer-Martin (MTM) agar

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12
Q

Gram stain can positively identify this pathogen in samples taken from males – while female samples have a positive identity in 60% or less.

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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13
Q

An isolate is often tentatively identified by observing ______________ on various media, followed by more detailed tests to make a positive identification.

A

colony characteristics

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14
Q

Support growth of most aerobic and facultatively aerobic organisms .

A

General-purpose media

(e.g. blood agar, chocolate agar)

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15
Q

Contain specific growth factors that enhance growth of certain fastidious pathogens.

A

Enriched media

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16
Q

This type of media inhibits growth of some bacteria while support growth of others.

A

Selective media

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17
Q

This agar inhibits growth of Gram + and supports growth of Gram - organisms.

A

EMB agar

(eosin methylene blue)

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18
Q

This type of media allows for identification based on growth, colour and appearance.

A

Differential media

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19
Q

This media contains bile salts and crystal violet – inhibits Gram +, contains sugars to differentiate Gram -, is both selective and differential.

A

MacConkey agar

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20
Q

_____________ is a selective medium because it contains antibiotics that inhibit the growth of other bacteria.

A

Thayer Martin Agar

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21
Q

The isolation, growth and identification of _________________ can be complicated by specimen contamination and the need to maintain anoxic conditions.

A

obligate anaerobes

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22
Q

A method for assessing antimicrobial susceptibility to antibiotics.

A

Disc diffusion test

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23
Q

The lowest concentration of antimicrobial agent that completely inhibits growth.

A

Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)

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24
Q

Two methods to determine MIC

A
  • antibiotic dilution assay
  • Etest
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25
Q

Non-diffusion-based antimicrobial susceptibility testing method that uses a preformed and predefined gradient of an antimicrobial agent immobilized on a plastic strip.

A

Etest

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26
Q

This process uses fluorescent probes to label PCR amplicons, thereby allowing the accumulation of target DNA to be visualized.

A

Quantitative real-time PCR (qPCR)

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27
Q

Binds non-specifically to double-stranded DNA and fluoresces only when bond.

A

SYBR Green

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28
Q

Uses pathogen-specific RNA to produce complementary DNA directly from patient samples.

A

reverse transcription PCR

(RT-PCR)

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29
Q

Uses labeled hybridization primers that are incorporated into an amplicon product of a qPCR reaction.

Determines presence but not amount of pathogen DNA.

A

Qualitative PCR

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30
Q

What are the steps of a dipstick assay?

A
  1. Lyse and denature sample in NaOH.
  2. Hybridize sample to probes (probe has reporter, region of complementary DNA to target, capture sequence) in solution. Nucleases destroy unhybridized probe.
  3. Capture with dipstick.
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31
Q

The study of antigen-antibody reactions in vitro.

A

Serology

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32
Q

Three example reactions of a serological reactions used for diagnostic immunology tests:

A
  • neutralization
  • precipitation
  • agglutination
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33
Q

As antibody titer rises, body temperature ________.

A

drops

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34
Q

Use antibodies specific for pathogens or their products for in vitro tests designed to detect specific infectious agents.

A

Immunoassays

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35
Q

A quantitative measure of antibody level – defined at the highest dilution (lowest concentration) of serum at which an antigen-antibody reaction is observed.

A

Antibody titer

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36
Q

Serological reactions often use __________ antibodies.

A

monoclonal

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37
Q

Antibodies for a single epitope.

A

Monoclonal antibodies

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38
Q

This pathogen does not elicit an immune response that can be measured.

A

N. gonorrhoeae

39
Q

A specific region on an antigen that the antibody binds to.

A

epitope

40
Q

An antigen that has multiple epitopes.

A

Polyclonal antibody

41
Q

An interaction of a soluble antigen and antibody, that produces a visible antigen-antibody reaction.

A

Precipitin Reaction

42
Q

The visible clumping of a particulate antigen when mixed with antibodies specific for the particulate antigens.

A

Agglutination

43
Q

Agglutination tests are typically ______ sensitive than precipitin tests.

A

more

44
Q

Results when soluble antibody causes clumping due to interaction with an antigen that is an integral part of the surface of a cell or other insoluble particles.

A

Direct Agglutination

45
Q

The agglutination of soluble antigens or antibodies that have been absorbed or chemically coupled to cells or insoluble particles.

A

Passive Agglutination

46
Q

______ agglutination reactions can be up to five times more sensitive that _____ agglutination tests.

A

passive, direct

47
Q

This immunoassay can be used for the classification of antigens found on the surface of red blood cells.

A

Direct Agglutination

48
Q

The interaction of antibody with antigen to block or distort the antigen sufficiently to reduce or eliminate its biological activity.

A

Neuralization

49
Q

In this immunofluorescence method, the antibody targeted against the surface antigen is covalently linked to the fluorescent dye.

A

Direct Immunofluorescence

50
Q

In this immunofluorescence, the presence of a nonfluorescent antibody on the surface of a cell is detected by use of a fluorescent antibody directed against the nonfluorescent antibody.

A

Indirect Immunofluorescence

51
Q

Antibodies chemically modified with fluorescent dyes to help detect antigens on intact cells.

A

Immunofluorescence

52
Q

Two common fluorescent dyes:

A
  • rhodamine B (red)
  • fluorescein isothiocyanate (yellow-green)
53
Q

This is a protein-based immunoblot.

A

Western Blot

54
Q

Steps of the Western Blot

A
  • antigen is bound to nitrocellulose membrane
  • primary antibody to the antigen is added (antibody is specific to protein of interest)
  • secondary antibody with enzyme conjugate is added
  • substrate and enzyme interaction creates colour change for detection
55
Q

Immunoblot methods detect:

A

antibodies specific to antigens or antigens themselves.

56
Q

Three EIA (Enzyme Immunoassay) methodologies and what they detect:

A
  • Direct EIA - detection of antigen
  • Indirect EIA - detection of antibody
  • Sandwich - detection of antibodies
57
Q

Employ covalently bonded enzymes attached to antibody molecules.

A

EIAs

58
Q

This EIA uses an immobilized pathogen specific antibody and an enzyme labelled pathogen specific antibody to detect antigen from patient.

A

Direct EIA

59
Q

This EIA uses an immobilized pathogen, antigen and enzyme labelled pathogen antigen to detect antibody in serum.

A

Sandwich EIA

60
Q

This EIA uses an immobilized antigen, adding patient sera and anti-antibody to detect an antibody.

A

Indirect EIA

61
Q

The study of the occurrence, distribution, and determinants of health and disease in a population.

A

Epidemiology

62
Q

The health of a population as a whole.

A

Public Health

63
Q

A major goal of epidemiology:

A

Identifying the nature of a disease and its transmission.

64
Q

Epidemiologists rely on ____________: the observation, recognition and reporting of diseases as the occur.

A

surveillance

65
Q

Diseases that must be reported for surveillance purposes.

A

notifiable diseases

66
Q

The number of new cases of the diseases in a given period of time.

A

incidence of a disease

67
Q

The total number of new and existing cases in a population in a given time.

A

prevalence of a disease

68
Q

__________ is a indicator of infection risk.

A

disease incidence

69
Q

A disease that occurs in a large number of people in a population at the same time is

A

epidemic

70
Q

A disease that is widespread, usually worldwide.

A

pandemic

71
Q

A disease that is constantly present in a population, usually at low incidences.

A

endemic

72
Q

Individuals that are infected with a pathogen that causes endemic disease are called

A

reservoirs

73
Q

Disease individuals who show no or mild symptoms have

A

subclinical infections

74
Q

What are the stages of disease?

A
  • infection
  • incubation period
  • acute period
  • decline period
  • convalescent period
75
Q

During this stage of disease, the organisms invades and colonizes the host.

A

Infection

76
Q

The time between infection and onset of symptoms is called

A

incubation period

77
Q

When the disease is at its height, it is called

A

acute period

78
Q

During this stage of disease, disease symptoms are subsiding.

A

decline period

79
Q

During this stage of disease, patient regains strength and returns to normal.

A

convalescent period

80
Q

The incidence of death in a population.

A

mortality

81
Q

Incidence of disease, including fatal and nonfatal diseases.

A

morbidity

82
Q

Qualitatively measures disease burden in terms of lost years due to the disease, disability due to disease and premature death.

A

Disability-Adjusted Life Year (DALY)

83
Q

The resistance of a group to infection due to immunity of a high proportion of the group.

A

Herd Immunity

84
Q

When an infected individual transmits a disease directly to a susceptible host without the assistance of an intermediary this is called.

A

direct host-to-host transmission

85
Q

When transmission is facilitated by a living or nonliving agent this is called

A

indirect host-to-host transmission

86
Q

Living agents of transmission are called

A

vectors

87
Q

Nonliving agents of transmission are called

A

fomites

88
Q

Sites in which infectious agents remain viable and from which individuals can become infected.

A

reservoirs

89
Q

Any disease that primarily infects animals but is occasionally transmitted to humans.

A

Zoonosis

90
Q

A ___________ epidemic usually arises from contamination of water or food – disease incidence rises sharply with onset of epidemic and has a sharp decline as well.

A

Common-source epidemic

91
Q

A _____________ epidemic, disease shows a slow, progressive rise and a gradual decline.

A

Host-to-host epidemic

92
Q

Pathogen-infected individuals showing no signs of clinical disease.

A

carriers

93
Q

The number of expected secondary cases of a given disease from each single case.

A

Basic Reproduction Number (R0)

BMSC 210 (12 decks)

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