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BMSC 210 > Module 10: Microbe-Host Interactions > Flashcards

Module 10: Microbe-Host Interactions Flashcards

1
Q

What is a microbiome?

A

a functional collection of different microbes in a particular environmental system.

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2
Q

What is a microbiota?

A

all the microbes in a microhabitat

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3
Q

How many microbes are in the human microbiome?

A

1013

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4
Q

What are the benefits of knowing the human microbiome?

A
  • development of biomarkers for predicting predisposition to diseases
  • designing targeted therapies
  • personalized drug therapies and probiotics
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5
Q

What are the six microbial habits of the human body?

A
  • skin
  • airways
  • oral
  • skin
  • gut
  • vagina
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6
Q

List the bacterial group that predominates at each of the following body sites:

  1. Skin
  2. Saliva
  3. Urogenital tract
  4. Gastrointestinal tract
A
  1. Propionibacterium (Gram +)
  2. Streptococcus (Gram +)
  3. Lactobacillus (Gram +)
  4. Bacteroidetes (Gram +)
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7
Q

What is disbiosis?

A

an imbalance in the quantity and type of microorganisms in the human microbiome (ex. cause: taking antibiotics)

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8
Q

What are the objectives of the Canadian Human Microbiome Initiative?

A
  • characterize the microorganisms colonizing the human body
  • evaluate their relationship to health
  • examine compositional changes associated with chronic disease
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9
Q

Microbes in the gut affect:

A
  • early development
  • health
  • predisposition to disease
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10
Q

The bacterial numbers in the gut increase from 102 to 1012 as pH increases or decreases?

A

Increases

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11
Q

Firmicutes, Bacteroides and Actinobacteria are common in:

A

gastric fluid

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12
Q

Firmicutes and Proteobacteria are common in:

A

the mucus layer of the stomach

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13
Q

This acid-resistant bacteria causes chronic and acute gastritis and leads to the formation of peptic ulcers.

A

Helicobacter pylori

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14
Q

98% of all human gut phylotypes fall into one of thre major bacterial phyla:

A
  • firmicutes
  • bacteroidetes
  • proteobacteria
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15
Q

Peptide antibiotics that contain unusual amino acids; synthesized by Gram + bacteria.

A

lantibiotics

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16
Q

What are bacteriocins?

A

antibacterial products

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17
Q

These two small bioactive molecules produced by bacteria in the large intestine, help bacteria to maintain a niche in the body or inhibit the growth of transient bacteria.

A
  • lantibiotics
  • bacteriocins
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18
Q

The three prominent phyla in the oral cavity:

A
  • firmicutes
  • proteobacteria
  • bacteroidetes
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19
Q

What are the defense mechanisms of the oral cavity?

A
  • lysozyme in saliva, which cleaves glycosydic linkages in the cell wall
  • mucous membranes promote the growth of normal bacteria and can inhibit pathogens
  • secretes mucin which helps mucous layer retain moisture and inhibits attachment of bacteria to epithelial cells
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20
Q

Which microbe is the first to colonize on the tooth surface?

A

streptococcus

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21
Q

_________ is a major contributor to the biofilm called dental plaque. It generates lactic acid that wears down tooth enamel.

A

Streptococcus mutans

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22
Q

Altered pH conditions can cause potential pathogens in the urethra to multiply and cause disease. These two pathogens frequently cause UTIs.

A
  • Escherichia coli
  • Proteus mirabilis
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23
Q

___________, is a resident organism of the vagina that ferments glycogen producing lactic acid. The lactic acid maintains a local acidic environment.

A

Lactobacillus acidophilus

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24
Q

The four predominant phyla of the skin are:

A
  • actinobacteria
  • firmicutes
  • proteobacteria
  • bacteroidetes
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25
Q

The most abundant viruses in all body sites are not animal viruses by instead are ____________.

A

bacteriophages

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26
Q

What are Koch’s postulates?

A
  1. the suspected causative agent must be absent from all healthy organisms but present in all diseased organisms.
  2. the causative agent must be isolated from the diseased organism and grown in pure culture
  3. the cultured agent must cause the same disease when inoculated into a health susceptible organism.
  4. the same causative agent must then be reisolated from the inoculated diseased organism.
27
Q

Microbial parasites that cause disease or tissue damage in a host.

A

Pathogens

28
Q

The ability of a parasite to inflict damage on the host.

A

Pathogenicity

29
Q

Relative ability of a pathogen to cause disease (measure of pathogenicity)

A

Virulence

30
Q

Causes disease only in the absence of normal host resistance.

A

Opportunistic Pathogen

31
Q

Situation in which a microorganism is established and growing in a host, whether or not the host is harmed.

A

Infection

32
Q

Damage or injury to the host that impairs host function.

A

Disease

33
Q

After to exposure to pathogens, that are the steps of the infection process that follow?

A
  • Adherence - to skin or mucous
  • Invasion - through epithelium
  • Multiplication - growth and production of virulence factors and toxins.
34
Q

The enhanced ability of microbes to attach to host tissues.

A

Adherence

35
Q

Bacteria and viruses that initiate infection often adhere specifically to _____________ through macromolecular interactions on the surfaces of the pathogen and the host cell.

A

Epithelial cells

36
Q

Glycoproteins or lipoproteins found on the pathogen’s surface that enable it to bind to host cells.

A

Adhesins

37
Q

N. gonorrhoeae adheres to mucosal epithelial cells using the __________ and ________.

A
  • opa protein
  • pili
38
Q

Influenza virus binds cells via it’s ___________.

A

haemagglutinin

39
Q

What is SdrG (serine-aspartate dipeptide repeats)

A

an adhesin protein found in Gram + pathogens that binds fibrinogen.

40
Q

The bacterial capsule forms a thick coating outside the plasma membrane and cell wall and serves two important functions in bacterial pathogenicity:

A
  1. the capsule is both stick and contains specific receptors to facilitate attachment on host tissues
  2. capsules protect the bacteria from ingestion by white blood cells
41
Q

Three bacterial cell surface protein structures that function in attachment:

A
  • fimbriae
  • flagella
  • pili
42
Q

The ability of a pathogen to spread and cause disease.

A

Invasion

43
Q

Pathogens produce various virulence factors that enhance invasiveness:

A
  • enzymes that enhance virulence by breaking down or altering host tissue to provide access to nutrients (ex. hyaluronidase, collagenase, protease, nuclease, lipase, etc)
  • protect the pathogen by interfering with normal host defense mechanisms such as clotting (ex. coagulase)
44
Q

Toxic or destructive substances produced by the pathogen that directly or indirectly enhance invasiveness and host damage by facilitating and promoting infection.

A

Virulence factors

45
Q

Highly virulent pathogens show little/large difference in the number of cells required to kill 100% of the population as compared to 50% of the population.

A

little

46
Q

Name the pathogen property:

Organism produces a toxin that inhibits host cell function or kills host cells.

A

Toxicity

47
Q

Name the pathogen property:

Ability of a pathogen to grow in host tissue at densities that inhibit host function.

A

Invasiveness

48
Q

Name the pathogen property:

Decrease or loss of virulence.

A

Attenuation

49
Q

________ strains of various pathogens are valuable to clinical medicine because they are often used for the production of viral vaccines.

A

Attenuated

50
Q

Name four examples of attenuated vaccines.

A
  • measles
  • mumps
  • rubella
  • rabies
51
Q

A virus is _________ in hosts that are increasingly dissimilar to the original host.

A

attenuated

52
Q

Genes that direct invasion are clustered together on the chromosomes as _____________ .

A

pathogenicity islands

53
Q

Invasiveness requires a pathogen to break down host tissues. This is often done with _______ that attack host cells.

A

enzymes

54
Q

Name three tissue destroying enzymes:

A
  • hyaluronidase
  • coagulase
  • stretokinase
55
Q

This enzyme breaks down host tissue.

A

hyaluronidase

56
Q

This enzyme forms clots.

A

coagulase

57
Q

This enzyme breaks down clots.

A

streptokinase

58
Q

The function of this exoenzyme is to:

Degrade hyaluronic acid that cements cells together to promote spreading through tissues.

A

Glycohydrolases

(Hyaluronidase S in Staphylococcus aureusI)

59
Q

The function of this exoenzyme is to:

Degrade DNA released by dying cells (bacteria and host cells) that can trap the bacteria, thus promoting spread.

A

Nucleases

(DNAse produced by S. aureus)

60
Q

The function of this exoenzyme is to:

Degrade phospholipid bilayer of host cells, causing cellular lysis, and degrade membrane phagosomes to enable escape into the cytoplasm.

A

Phopholipases

(Phopholipase C of Bacillus anthracis)

61
Q

The function of this exoenzyme is to:

Degrade collagen in connective tissue to promote spread.

A

Proteases

(Collagenase in Clostridium perfringens)

62
Q

Toxic proteins released from the pathogen as it grows.

A

Exotoxins

63
Q

Three categories of exotoxins.

A
  • cytolytic toxins
  • AB toxins
  • superantigen toxins
64
Q

Ability of microorganism to cause disease as a result of preformed toxin that inhibits host function or kills host cells.

A

Toxicity

BMSC 210 (12 decks)

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