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BIOM2012 past MCQ > Module 1 > Flashcards

Module 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. In autonomic ganglia, which statement is CORRECT? [1.5 marks]
    A Parasympathetic preganglionic terminals release noradrenaline
    B Both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic terminals release acetylcholine
    C Only parasympathetic preganglionic terminals release acetylcholine
    D Sympathetic preganglionic terminals release noradrenaline
    E Only sympathetic preganglionic terminals release acetylcholine
A

B

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1
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adrenergic receptors? [1.5 marks]
    A Beta-receptors are G-protein coupled receptors
    B Beta-receptors have greater affinity for adrenaline
    C Adrenaline and noradrenaline are main signalling molecules
    D There are two main receptor subtypes: alpha and beta
    E Alpha-receptors are ligand gated ion channels
A

E

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following factors does NOT contribute markedly to resistance in the circulation? [1.5 marks]
    A Blood vessel length
    B Blood vessel diameter
    C Erythrocyte count
    D Plasma osmolality
    E Turbulent blood flow
A

D

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3
Q
  1. In a resting state most of the blood volume is contained within the [1.5 marks]
    A pulmonary veins
    B systemic venules
    C systemic veins
    D capillaries
    E heart
A

C

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4
Q
  1. Mean arterial pressure is [1.5 marks]
    A not dependent on total blood volume
    B generated by the arteries
    C less than central venous pressure in the right atrium
    D the average pressure through one cardiac cycle
    E is not dependent on total peripheral resistance
A

D

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following segments of the systemic circulation has the most resistance? [1.5 marks]
    A Muscular arteries
    B Capillaries
    C Venules
    D Small veins
    E The aorta
A

A

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is a NOT a positive chronotropic agent? [1.5 marks]
    A Increased temperature at the SA node
    B Sympathetic nervous system input to the SA node
    C Increased plasma Ca2+ concentrations
    D Increased plasma K+ concentrations
    E Adrenaline
A

D

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7
Q
  1. Medium to longer term regulation of blood pressure in healthy individuals involves all the following EXCEPT [1.5 marks]
    A cardiopulmonary baroreceptors in the carotid sinus
    B the juxtaglomerular apparatus in the kidneys
    C the hormone Angiotensin II
    D Autonomic Nervous System effectors
    E the hormone Vasopressin
A

A

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8
Q
  1. A breakdown of alveolar walls is a characterization of what Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)? [1.5 marks]
    A Pleurisy
    B Emphysema
    C Chronic bronchitis
    D Pulmonary oedema
    E Asthma
A

B

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9
Q
  1. The individual pressure exerted independently by a particular gas within a mixture of gases is known as ….. [1.5 marks]
    A maximum pressure
    B passive pressure
    C active pressure
    D partial pressure
    E incomplete pressure
A

D

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10
Q
  1. What are the only two places in the entire circulatory system at which gas exchange can take place? [1.5 marks]
    A Pulmonary and cardiac capillaries
    B Arteries and veins
    C Pulmonary and the systemic capillaries
    D Bronchioles and alveoli
    E Arterial and venous capillaries
A

C

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11
Q
  1. The most important factor determining the percentage of haemoglobin saturation is the….. [1.5 marks]
    A systemic blood pressure
    B diastolic blood pressure
    C PCO2 of the blood
    D PO2 of the blood
    E pH of the blood
A

D

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12
Q
  1. Respiratory alkalosis is associated with. …… [1.5 marks]
    A increased lung compliance
    B increased alveolar ventilation
    C a decrease in blood pH.
    D increased carbonic acid concentration in plasma
    E decreased ventilation
A

B

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13
Q
  1. Alan is a healthy mountaineer with deoxygenated blood entering the alveoli at PO2 of 40 mmHg, while alveolar air has PO2 of 90 mm Hg. What is the PO2 of Alan’s blood leaving his pulmonary capillaries? [1.5 marks]
    A 100 mmHg
    B 90 mmHg
    C 65 mmHg
    D 45 mmHg
    E 40 mmHg
A

B

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14
Q
  1. A subject stands on a movable platform, which is then SUDDENLY moved backwards. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? [1.5 marks]
    A The automatic postural adjustments are backwards then forwards, with muscle activity seen in the muscles closest to the platform
    B The automatic postural adjustment is countered by muscle co-contraction around all joints of the leg and hip resulting in little if any movement
    C The automatic postural adjustment is forward, with muscle activity seen in the muscles closest to the hips
    D The automatic postural adjustments are forward then backward, with muscle activity seen in the muscles closest to the platform
    E The automatic postural adjustment countered by muscle co-contraction around all joints of the leg and hip, along with waving arms resulting in little if any movement
A

D

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15
Q
  1. Muscle fibre type grouping is a sign of [1.5 marks]
    A severe muscle inflammatory process
    B effective muscle training
    C normal muscle fibre development that allows for muscles fibre of the same type to be grouped within a whole muscle
    D chronic denervation – reinnervation events leading to type 1 fibre predominance
    E acute denervation-reinnervation events with type 2 fibres being dominant within muscle
A

D

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16
Q
  1. The primary motor cortex [1.5 marks]
    A is active when a person is told to mentally rehearse a movement, but not to execute it
    B develops motor programs for voluntary tasks
    C is located in the parietal lobes
    D is somatotopically organised
    E does not receive inputs from the premotor cortex
A

D

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17
Q
  1. Muscle spindles are innervated by [1.5 marks]
    A gamma motor neurons and type 2x sensory neurons
    B gamma motor neurons and type 1a sensory neurons
    C gamma motor neurons only
    D type 1b sensory neurons only
    E alpha motor neurons
A

B

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes a motor unit? A motor unit consists of a [1.5 marks]
    A alpha motor neurons supplying the same muscle
    B alpha motor neuron and the muscle fibers that it innervates
    C group of muscle fibers which contract at the same time
    D group of alpha motor neurons in the ventral horn of the spinal cord
    E group of muscles which act synergistically at the same joint
A

B

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19
Q
  1. In the cerebellum the activity of output neuron within the deep cerebellar nuclei is regulated by [1.5 marks]
    A Basket cells
    B Punkinje neuron
    C Stellate cells
    D Mossy fibers
    E Interneurons
A

B

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20
Q
  1. Amylase helps breakdown [1.5 marks]
    A lipids
    B. proteins
    C nucleic acids
    D vitamins
    E carbohydrates
A

E

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21
Q
  1. The Loop of Henle is important for [1.5 marks]
    A most of the sodium reabsorption
    B most of the water reabsorption
    C most of the glucose reabsorption
    D producing urine of varying concentrations
    E producing filtrate of varying concentrations
A

D

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following opposes filtration? [1.5 marks]
    A Fluid pressure in Bowman’s space
    B Gomerular capillary blood pressure
    C Afferent arteriolar pressure
    D Efferent arteriolar pressure
    E Pressure in the collecting duct
A

A

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23
Q
  1. In the ascending limb of the loop of Henle [1.5 marks]
    A glucose and water are reabsorbed from the tubule into the medullary interstitium through active transport
    B water is reabsorbed from the tubule into the medullary interstitium through active transport
    C water is reabsorbed from the tubule into the medullary interstitium through osmosis
    D Na+ and Cl- are reabsorbed from the tubule into the medullary interstitium through active transport
    E Na+ and Cl- are reabsorbed from the tubule into the medullary interstitium through osmosis
A

D

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24
Q
  1. The 4 main functions of the digestive system are [1.5 marks]
    A secretion, filtration, absorption, motility
    B secretion, ingestion, reabsorption, motility
    C secretion, digestion, absorption, motility
    D secretion, ingestion, reabsorption, filtration
    E absorption, ingestion, reabsorption, filtration
A

C

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25
Q
  1. The large intestine absorbs [1.5 marks]
    A monosaccharides and proteins
    B ions, minerals, and vitamins
    C amino acids, fatty acids and vitamins
    D proteins and fats
    E proteins and ions
A

B

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26
Q
  1. During metabolic fatigue the calcium releasable from the sarcoplasmic reticulum during excitation-contraction coupling is reduced in skeletal muscle because [1.5 marks]
    A. calcium is trapped in a precipitate with inorganic phosphate
    B. calcium has been lost from the muscle
    C. the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane no longer holds calcium
    D. less calcium is needed to trigger contraction during metabolic fatigue than at other times
    E. the muscle is no longer excitable
A

A

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27
Q
  1. In skeletal muscle, the onset of high frequency fatigue can be offset by [1.5 marks]
    A. chloride conductance across the tubular (t-) system
    B. sodium conductance across the tubular (t-) system
    C. potassium build-up in the tubular (t-) system lumen
    D. the tubular (t-) system sodium-potassium pump stops working
    E. action potential frequency is increased
A

A

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28
Q
  1. The main differences between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscles are [1.5 marks]
    A. different sarcomere lengths.
    B. fast-twitch muscles are for explosive and powerful contractions and slow-twitch muscles are for continuous work or posture
    C. the resting ATP levels in the cytoplasm
    D. different mechanisms of excitation-contraction coupling
    E. slow-twitch muscle is more susceptible to contraction-induced damage than fast-twitch muscle
A

B

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29
Q
  1. What disrupts excitation-contraction coupling following a bout of unaccustomed eccentric contractions? [1.5 marks]
    A. depolarization of the transverse tubular (t-) system
    B. precipitation of calcium inside the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    C. a displacement of mitochondria from its normal position inside the muscle fibre
    D. severing of the coupling between the transverse tubular (t-) system and sarcoplasmic reticulum membranes
    E. loss of the contractile apparatus from the muscle fibre
A

D

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30
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about glucose transporters (GLUTs) is CORRECT? [1.5 marks]
    A. GLUT2 is widely expressed in the body
    B. Insulin-dependent GLUT4 is critical to liver metabolism
    C. GLUT1 in the pancreas is critical for insulin secretion
    D. GLUT3 is the major GLUT in adipocytes
    E. GLUT3 is critical for basal glucose uptake in neurones
A

E

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31
Q
  1. Glucagon [1.5 marks]
    A. stimulates protein catabolism in skeletal muscle
    B. increases gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis in the liver
    C. is secreted by the pancreatic beta cells
    D. is important in the fed state
    E. promotes glycogen synthesis in muscle
A

B

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a metabolic action of insulin [1.5 marks]
    A. lowers blood amino acid levels
    B. stimulates glycogen synthesis in adipocytes
    C. increases hexokinase expression in muscle
    D. inhibits hormone-sensitive lipase in adipocytes
    E. promotes GLUT4 translocation to cell membrane in myocytes
A

B

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33
Q
  1. In the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus which of the following indicates more chronic blood glucose levels compared to the other tests? [1.5 marks]
    A. a blood glucose concentration obtained after an overnight fast
    B. a glycosylated haemoglobin concentration
    C. a blood glucose concentration obtained at random during the day
    D. a plasma glucose concentration obtained 2 hours post an oral glucose tolerance test
    E. body mass index >30 kg/m 2
A

B

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34
Q
  1. The Cori cycle is important in prolonged exercise. This metabolic cycle involves [1.5 marks]
    A. beta-oxidation of fats
    B. lipolysis of fats by growth hormone
    C. increased insulin secretion
    D. gluconeogenesis from lactate
    E. glycogenolysis in skeletal muscle
A

D

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35
Q

40 Cortisol and corticosterone [1.5 marks]
A increase the rate of Na+ excretion in the urine
B increase hepatic glucose output
C reduce blood fatty acid concentrations
D act directly on cardiomyocytes to increase heart rate
E have calorigenic effects in most cells

A

B

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36
Q

5 In the cardiovascular system, the most pressure is lost in the [1.5 marks]
A venules due to their resistance
B veins due to their compliance
C arteries due to their diameter
D arterioles due to their resistance
E capillaries due to their fenestrations

A

D

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37
Q

6 Which of the following does NOT directly influence Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)?
[1.5 marks]
A the lymphatic system
B total peripheral resistance
C strenuous exercise
D cardiac output
E arterial compliance

A

A

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38
Q

The large pressure difference between systemic and pulmonary mean arterial pressure is because: [1.5 marks]
A sympathetic stimulation of the left ventricle is more pronounced than the right ventricle
B the contractile force produced by the left ventricle is much greater than that produced by the right ventricle
C pulmonary arteries are more compliant than systemic arteries
D resistance in the pulmonary circuit is higher than in the systemic circuit
E oxygenated blood leaving the left ventricle is responsible for the higher pressure in the systemic circulation

A

C

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39
Q

8 Which of the these factors has the most significant effect on after-load and therefore stroke volume? [1.5 marks]
A blood volume
B circulating catecholamines
C arterial compliance
D intra-thoracic pressure
E compliance of the pericardium

A

C

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40
Q

9 Which of the following has a positive inotropic effect on the myocardium? [1.5 marks]
A angiotensin II
B fever
C histamine
D reduced ventricular compliance
E loss of functional myocardial tissue

A

A

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41
Q

10 Which of the following is NOT a component of the regulatory control of the cardiovascular system? [1.5 marks]
A Central cardioinhibitory centre that decreases cardiac output via the parasympathetic
nervous system
B Positive feedback from baroreceptors that provide sensory input about blood pressure
C Central vasomotor centre that controls vascular tone
D Chemoreceptors that provide sensory input about blood gases
E Cardiac stimulatory sympathetic nervous system neurons that cause venoconstriction of veins

A

B

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42
Q

11 The cerebral reflex (central ischaemic response) is an important reflex to maintain blood pressure in a haemorrhage. Which of the following correctly describes activation of this reflex? [1.5 marks]
A it occurs because peripheral chemoreceptors detect a decrease in PO2 in systemic arterial blood less than 60 mmHg
B it always occurs when there is a haemorrhage
C it occurs when mean arterial blood pressure is about 80 mmHg
D it occurs when blood flow in the medulla oblongata is deficient
E it occurs before local auto-regulatory mechanisms are activated to control cerebral blood flow

A

D

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43
Q

12 Hypertension involves pathophysiological changes in the regulation of blood pressure. Which of the following is NOT associated with hypertension? [1.5 marks]
A an upward shift to the left of the Frank-Starling curve
B baroreceptor adaptation to higher pressures
C endothelial cell dysfunction due to increased shear stress
D aneurysm and internal bleeding
E left ventricular hypertrophy

A

A

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44
Q

13 If a patient had a progressive lung disease that required an ever-increasing pressure to fill the same volume of lung, the compliance of the lungs [1.5 marks]
A would stay the same
B are independent of these variables
C would decrease
D would increase
E could not be measured

A

C

45
Q

14 In respiratory physiology the Haldane effect describes [1.5 marks]
A the influence of PO2 on the O2 binding to haemoglobin
B the anion exchange of bicarbonate ions and chloride ions in erythrocytes
C the buffering capacity of the erythrocyte
D the influence of PO2 upon the release of CO2 in the pulmonary capillaries
E the effect of PCO2 on the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen

A

D

46
Q

15 Respiratory alkalosis is associated with [1.5 marks]
A a decrease in blood pH
B increased carbonic acid concentration in plasma
C increased alveolar ventilation
D decreased ventilation
E increased lung compliance

A

C

47
Q

16 Peripheral chemoreceptors are [1.5 marks]
A unresponsive to changes in arterial PO2
B are crucial for breathing during sleep
C only activated by H+ ions
D activated by reductions in arterial PO2
E unresponsive to changes in arterial PCO2

A

D

48
Q

17 Which of the following is NOT secreted in the kidney tubules [1.5 marks]
A potassium ions
B glucose
C hydrogen ions
D foreign substances
E organic acids and bases

A

B

49
Q

18 Which of the following is CORRECT? Renal autoregulation only maintains glomerular filtration rate when mean arterial pressure is in the range of [1.5 marks]
A 80 to 180 mmHg
B 80 to 120 mmHg
C 80 to 160 mmHg
D 40 to 200 mmHg
E 50 to 150 mmHg

A

A

50
Q

19 Which of the following does not pass through the glomerular filtration barrier under normal physiological conditions? [1.5 marks]
A amino acids
B water
C glucose
D albumin
E sodium

A

D

51
Q

20 In the kidney tubule, potassium and hydrogen ions are exchanged for [1.5 marks]
A inulin
B sodium ions
C creatinine
D angiotensin II
E nitric oxide

A

B

52
Q

22 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? [1.5 marks]
A Lipases are important for fat digestion.
B A function of the pancreatic secretions is to neutralise the acidic gastric contents entering the small intestine.
C Lipases are important for carbohydrate digestion.
D Amylase is important for carbohydrate digestion.
E Peptidases are important for protein digestion.

A

C

53
Q

23 The small intestine is efficient in nutrient absorption due to [1.5 marks]
A endothelial fenestrations lining its lumen, called villi.
B smooth muscle cells lining its lumen.
C finger like projections lining its lumen, called villi.
D basement membrane lining its lumen.
E epithelial fenestrations lining its lumen, called villi.

A

C

54
Q

24 Bile assists in the digestion and absorption of [1.5 marks]
A proteins in the stomach by emulsifying amino acids.
B lipids in the small intestine by emulsifying fats.
C proteins in the colon by emulsifying amino acids.
D lipids in the stomach by emulsifying amino acids.
E carbohydrates in the small intestine by emulsifying glucose.

A

B

55
Q

25 The arrival of the action potential (AP) at the motor nerve terminal ending directly triggers [1.5 marks]
A the uptake of excess neurotransmitter
B the closing of voltage gated calcium channels
C the opening of voltage gated calcium channels
D the docking of synaptic vesicles at active zones within the motor nerve terminal
E the opening of voltage gate potassium channels

A

C

56
Q

26 Which of the following best describes a motor unit? A motor unit consists of a [1.5 marks]
A number of motor neurons supplying the same muscle
B group of muscles which act synergistically at the same joint
C motor neuron and the muscle fibers that it innervates
D group of muscle fibers which contract at the same time
E group of neurons in the ventral root of the spinal cord

A

C

57
Q

27 If the spinocerebellum division of the cerebellum is damaged, which of the following is likely to be MOST compromised
A storing procedural memories needed to perform tasks
B hand and neck reflexes
C retinal image stabilisation during movement
D initiation and planning of movements
E postural control of muscle

A

E

58
Q

28 The primary motor cortex [1.5 marks]
A is somatotopically organised
B develops motor programs for voluntary tasks
C is located in the parietal lobes
D does not receive inputs from the premotor cortex
E is active when a person is told to mentally rehearse a movement, but not to execute it

A

A

59
Q

29 What would be the main reason that a person experiences reduced skeletal muscle force output during a long distance run? [1.5 marks]
A An increase in Ca2+ release that causes loss of Ca2+ from the muscle
B Disruption of the membrane structures in the muscle
C A reduction in Ca2+ release due to precipitation of Ca2+ and inorganic phosphate inside the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D A drop in pH in the muscle cytoplasm
E Failure of action potential propagation

A

C

60
Q

30 The high conductance of chloride (Cl-) across the surface membrane of skeletal muscle fibers helps the muscle to [1.5 marks]
A avoid metabolic fatigue
B keep the muscle ‘warmed-up’ for exercise
C support a high frequency of spontaneous action potentials
D remain in a relaxed state
E depolarise the muscle

A

C

61
Q

31 Slow-twitch muscle fibres [1.5 marks]
A are most effective for powerful contractions
B are most effective for speed
C fatigue very easily
D have a relatively high content of mitochondria
E do not require action potentials for activation

A

D

62
Q

32 During tetani in skeletal muscle [1.5 marks]
A there is a fusion of action potentials causing the fusion of force responses
B there is a fusion of action potentials
C there is a fusion of the cytoplasmic Ca2+ transient and force responses that may be complete or incomplete
D there is a fusion of the cytoplasmic calcium (Ca2+) transient but not force response
E action potentials regenerate through the t-system via the sarcolemma (surface membrane) to allow fusion of force response

A

C

63
Q

33 Insulin secretion from β cells of the pancreas involves which of the following?
[1.5 marks]
A ATP production, hyperpolarisation of the cell and Ca2+ influx
B phosphorylation of insulin receptor substrate 1 (IRS-1) on serine and threonine residues
C GLUT2, glycolysis, ATP production and closure of ATP-sensitive K+
Channels
D GLUT2, glycogen synthesis, ATP opening of ATP-sensitive K+
channels and depolarisation
E activation of the PI3-kinase AKT pathway and GLUT4 translocation to the cell surface

A

C

64
Q

34 The type-2 glucose transporter GLUT2 is [1.5 marks]
A constitutively present on hepatocytes and mediates glucose uptake in the fed state by
facilitated diffusion
B sequestered and inactivated in cytoplasmic vesicles in muscle and adipose cells in the fed and fasted states
C constitutively present on the blood-brain barrier and signals the rise in blood glucose to the brain in the fed state
D translocated to the plasma membrane by exocytosis and becomes active when insulin binds to the insulin receptor of muscle and adipose cells in the fed state
E stimulated by insulin to translocate to the plasma membrane in pancreatic β cells and
trigger insulin release

A

A

65
Q

35 Glucagon [1.5 marks]
A promotes glycogen synthesis in hepatocytes
B is important in the fed state
C acts on skeletal muscle to stimulate protein catabolism
D causes breakdown of liver glycogen to glucose
E decreases gluconeogenesis in the liver

A

D

66
Q

36 Which of the following is NOT a metabolic effect of glucocorticoids? [1.5 marks]
A increased blood glucose
B increased glycogen in hepatocytes
C gluconeogenesis in the liver
D increased blood fatty acids
E protein catabolism in skeletal muscle

A

B (??)

67
Q

37 Which of the following symptoms is ATYPICAL for hyperthyroidism? [1.5 marks]
A low body weight
B nervousness
C exophthalmos
D low rate of metabolism
E tachycardia

A

D

68
Q

38 Which of the following statements about thyroid hormones is INCORRECT? [1.5 marks]
A High levels of thyroid hormones have positive chronotropic and inotropic effects on the heart.
B Thyroid hormones stimulate oxygen consumption in many cells.
C Thyroid hormones have negligible effects on metabolism.
D Excess thyroid hormones can lead to muscle weakness.
E Iodine is a key component of thyroid hormones.

A

C

69
Q

39 The Cori cycle is important in prolonged exercise. This metabolic cycle involves [1.5 marks]
A beta-oxidation of fats
B lipolysis of fats by growth hormone
C increased insulin secretion
D gluconeogenesis from lactate
E glycogenolysis in skeletal muscle

A

D

70
Q

40 Which of the following is NOT a metabolic effect of growth hormone? [1.5 marks]
A increased amino acid uptake into myocytes
B lipolysis of fat reserves in adipocytes
C protein anabolic effect
D decreased gluconeogenesis in hepatocytes
E decreased glucose uptake into adipocytes

A

D

71
Q

The transmitter released from preganglionic nerve terminals acts on which type of
receptor? [1.5 marks]
A α2-adrenoceptors
B α1-adrenoceptors
C nicotinic
D muscarinic
E β1-adrenoceptors

A

C

72
Q

2 The physiological response to a frightening situation does NOT induce [1.5 marks]
A an increase in heart rate
B dilation of the pupil
C an increase in gastrointestinal motility
D an increase in blood flow to the blood vessels supplying skeletal muscles
E a decrease in saliva secretion

A

C

73
Q

3 The heart, lungs and gastrointestinal tract receive innervation from [1.5 marks]
A only the sympathetic nervous system
B the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
C the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems and the skeletal motor nervous system
D only the parasympathetic nervous system
E only the skeletal motor nervous system

A

B

74
Q

4 You are lying on your bed and quickly stand up. You immediately feel dizzy for a few seconds, but quickly recover. Your cardiovascular system has compensated by increasing blood supply to your brain. How is this accomplished? [1.5 marks]
A Sympathetic axons to the heart release noradrenaline
B Parasympathetic axons to the heart release acetylcholine
C Adrenergic neurotransmitters constrict the blood vessels supplying the brain
D Acetylcholine dilates blood vessels supplying blood to the brain
E Sympathetic axons increase contraction of the gastrointestinal smooth muscle, forcing
blood to the brain

A

A

75
Q

6 Which of these will cause a negative chronotropic effect? [1.5 marks]
A increased blood calcium ions
B thyroxine
C hyperkalaemia
D fever
E muscarinic antagonists

A

C

76
Q

7 Which of the these factors has the most significant effect on after-load and therefore stroke volume? [1.5 marks]
A blood volume
B compliance of the ventricle
C ventricular filling
D intra-thoracic pressure
E arterial blood pressure

A

E

77
Q

8 Which of these vasoactive agents causes vasodilation? [1.5 marks]
A adrenaline
B histamine
C angiotensin II
D endothelins
E antidiuretic hormone

A

B

78
Q

9 Oedema can result from [1.5 marks]
A a decrease in capillary blood pressure
B a decrease in plasma colloid osmotic pressure
C lower blood volume
D vasoconstriction of the arterioles that supply the capillaries
E taking an anti-histamine in an allergic reaction

A

B

79
Q

10 The cerebral reflex (central ischaemic response) is an important reflex to maintain blood pressure in a haemorrhage. Which of the following is NOT part of the response? [1.5 marks]
A Increased sympathetic activity is the major efferent response
B It is most effective when systolic blood pressure is <20 mmHg
C It only occurs after the baroreceptor reflex is unable to control blood pressure
D It involves intrinsic autoregulation of blood pressure in the medulla oblongata
E The response raises blood pressure to >200 mmHg

A

D

80
Q

11 The largest decrease in blood pressure occurs in which of the following segments of the systemic circulation? [1.5 marks]
A from the distributing arteries to the start of the capillaries
B from the left ventricle to the end of the conducting arteries
C across the arterioles
D across all of the capillaries
E from the start of the capillaries back to the right ventricle

A

C

81
Q

12 The chloride shift [1.5 marks]
A results in more carbon dioxide being transported by erythrocytes
B counteracts movement of bicarbonate out of erythrocytes
C forces oxygen out of erythrocytes to the tissues
D produces carbonic acid
E is important in oxygen binding to haemoglobin

A

B

82
Q

13 Insulin secretion from β cells of the pancreas involves which of the following? [1.5 marks]
A GLUT2, glycogen synthesis, ATP opening of ATP-sensitive K+
channels and depolarisation
B ATP production, hyperpolarisation of the cell and Ca2+ influx
C activation of the PI3-kinase AKT pathway and GLUT4 translocation to the cell surface
D phophorylation of insulin receptor substrate 1 (IRS-1) on serine and threonine residues
E GLUT2, glycolysis, ATP production and closure of ATP-sensitive K+
Channels

A

E

83
Q

14 Which of the following is NOT a key metabolic role of insulin? [1.5 marks]
A inhibition of lipolysis in adipocytes
B promotion of amino acid uptake in myocytes
C promotion of glycogenesis in adipocytes
D inhibition of gluconeogenesis in hepatocytes
E stimulation of GLUT4 translocation to the cell membrane in myocytes

A

C

84
Q

15 Which of the following statements about glucose transporters (GLUTs) is CORRECT? [1.5 marks]
A GLUT2 is widely expressed in the body
B Insulin-dependent GLUT4 is critical to liver metabolism
C GLUT1 in the pancreas is critical for insulin secretion
D GLUT3 is the major GLUT in adipocytes
E GLUT3 is critical for basal glucose uptake in neurones

A

E

85
Q

16 Glucagon [1.5 marks]
A acts on skeletal muscle to stimulate protein catabolism
B decreases gluconeogenesis in the liver
C causes breakdown of liver glycogen to glucose
D is important in the fed state
E promotes glycogen synthesis in hepatocytes

A

C

86
Q

17 Blood pressure is lower in the pulmonary circulation than in the systemic circulation,
because [1.5 marks]
A the left ventricle is less muscular than the right ventricle
B there is less resistance in the pulmonary circuit
C cardiac output in the pulmonary circuit is lower
D deoxygenated blood is carried in the pulmonary circulation
E the pulmonary arteries are more compliant than systemic arteries

A

B

87
Q

18 Which of the following statements regarding pneumothorax is INCORRECT? [1.5 marks]
A There is inward recoil of the chest wall
B The lungs collapse
C There is no difference between intra-pleural pressure and atmospheric pressure
D The alveoli collapse due to inward recoil
E Gas flow ceases as intra-pulmonary pressure is the same as atmospheric pressure

A

A

88
Q

19 Respiratory alkalosis is often the result of [1.5 marks]
A strenuous exercise
B a severe increase in H+ ion concentration
C holding your breath
D increased carbonic anhydrase activity
E hyperventilation

A

E

89
Q

20 Which of the following inputs into the respiratory centers in the pons and medulla is
INCORRECT? [1.5 marks]
A Central chemoreceptors are crucial for breathing during sleep
B Proprioreceptors in joints are thought to be involved in hyperpnoea in exercise
C Irritant receptors in the epithelium of the airways cause shallow breathing
D Over-inflation of the lungs activates sensory neurons, which inhibit inspiratory neurons in the central pattern generator
E Central chemoreceptors in the locus coeruleus respond to an increase in pH of
cerebrospinal fluid

A

E

90
Q

21 The distal convoluted tubule is where [1.5 marks]
A most of the glucose reabsorption takes place
B secretion of ions, acids, drugs and toxins takes place
C secretion of creatinine takes place
D most of the sodium ion and water
E production of filtrate takes place

A

B

91
Q

22 In the kidney, approximately what percentage of Na+
and water is reabsorbed into the peritubular capillaries? [1.5 marks]
A 50%
B 0%
C 10%
D 99%
E 80%

A

D

92
Q

23 The glomerular filtration barrier consists of [1.5 marks]
A endothelial fenestrations, smooth muscle cells and mitochondria
B epithelial fenestrations, smooth muscle cells and mitochondria
C endothelial fenestrations, smooth muscle cells, podocytes and slit diaphragm
D epithelial fenestrations, smooth muscle cells, podocytes and slit diaphragm → the lecture says epithelial not endothelial
E endothelial fenestrations, basement membrane, podocytes and slit diaphragm

A

E

93
Q

24 Which of the following statements about the kidney tubule is CORRECT? [1.5 marks]
A The descending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to water
B The descending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to sodium ions
C The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to water
D The proximal tubule is impermeable to water
E The collecting duct is impermeable to water

A

A

94
Q

25 The nerves of the enteric nervous system [1.5 marks]
A are only present in the liver and pancreas
B extend throughout the alimentary canal
C are only present in the small and large intestines
D are only present in the large intestine
E are only present in the small intestine

A

B

95
Q

26 The myenteric nerve plexus regulates [1.5 marks]
A gastrointestinal tract motility
B glands and smooth muscle in mucosa
C liver function
D secretions in the stomach
E secretions from the pancreas

A

A

96
Q

27 The gallbladder is a thin-walled muscular retina sac on the ventral surface of the [1.5 marks]
A stomach
B liver
C large intestine
D small intestine
E pancreas

A

B

97
Q

29 At the neuromuscular synapse, voltage-gated Ca2+ channels are located [1.5 marks]
A on the lips of the postsynaptic junctional folds
B within the synaptic cleft, sandwiched in between the presynaptic and postsynaptic
elements
C on the surface of the entire motor nerve terminal ending
D in the membrane of the terminal Schwann cell
E in the presynaptic membrane next to transmitter release sites

A

E

98
Q

30 Small alpha motor neurons within a motor pool innervate [1.5 marks]
A smooth muscle fibres only
B all muscle fibres (slow and fast twich)
C slow twitch fibres (type 1 myosin heavy chain) only
D fast twitch fibres (type 2a/2b myosin heavy chain) only
E cardiac muscle fibres only

A

C

99
Q

31 Muscle spindles are innervated by [1.5 marks]-
A gamma motor neurons and type 1a sensory neurons
B gamma motor neurons only
C gamma motor neurons and type 2x sensory neurons
D type 1b sensory neurons only
E type 1a sensory neurons only

A

A

100
Q

32 Muscle fibre type grouping is a sign of [1.5 marks]
A normal muscle fibre development that allows for muscles fibres of the same type to be
grouped within a whole muscle
B chronic denervation-reinnervation events leading to type 1 fibre predominance
C effective muscle training
D severe muscle inflammatory processes
E acute denervation-reinnervation events with type 2 fibres being dominant

A

B

101
Q

33 In skeletal muscle, Ca2+ release through the ryanodine receptor is inhibited during continuous exercise, because [1.5 marks]
A the resting membrane potential cannot be depolarised
B there is an increase in protons in the cytoplasm
C there is an increase in the free magnesium ion levels in the cytoplasm
D Ca2+ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum precipitates in the cytoplasm
E there is an increase in the ATP:ADP ratio in the cytoplasm

A

C

102
Q

34 In skeletal muscle, the onset of high frequency fatigue can be offset by [1.5 marks]
A sodium ion conductance across the tubular (t-) system
B the tubular (t-) system sodium-potassium pump not working
C potassium ion build-up in the tubular (t-) system lumen
D chloride ion conductance across the tubular (t-) system
E an increase in action potential frequency

A

D

103
Q

35 Fast-twitch muscle are less resistant to fatigue than slow-twitch muscles, because [1.5 marks]
A slow-twitch muscles have a different mechanism of excitation-contraction coupling to
that of fast-twitch muscles
B slow-twitch muscles do not need ATP for energy
C fast-twitch muscle does not get used very often
D slow-twitch muscles have a lower level of cytoplasmic free magnesium ions to assist in the opening of the ryanodine receptors than fast-twitch muscles
E fatigue is an important mechanism that prevents the powerful fast-twitch muscles from
damaging themselves

A

E

104
Q

36 What disrupts we excitation-contraction coupling following a bout of unaccustomed eccentric contractions? [1.5 marks]
A severing of the coupling between the tubular (t-) system and the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B a displacement of mitochondria from their normal position inside the muscle fibre
C loss of Ca2+ pumps from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D depolarisation of the t-system
E depletion of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

A

105
Q

37 The production of active thyroid hormone is complex, involving many processes.
Which of the following is NOT one of those processes? [1.5 marks]
A incorporation of iodine into thyroglobulin molecules
B uptake of follicular colloid by pinocytosis
C liberation of thyroxine from thyroglobulin by lysosomes
D active transport of thyroxine from follicular cells
E deiodination of thyroxine in tissues

A

D

106
Q

38 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Graves’ disease? [1.5 marks]
A high levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
B a high metabolic rate
C production of thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin
D high levels of the thyroid hormones, T3 and T4
E exopthalmos

A

A

107
Q

39 Growth hormone is important in fasting because [1.5 marks]
A acts as an insulin antagonist by binding to insulin receptors
B it supports protein sparing and utilization of free fatty acids
C increases the sensitivity of tissues to insulin, it is diabetogenic
D it stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver
E it is the only catabolic hormone that increases

A

B

108
Q

40 Muscles contain very limited amounts of ATP that are rapidly utilised.
Which of the following alternative fuels provides the highest energy yield for muscle
contraction and must be utilised, for example, in running a marathon? [1.5 marks]
A oxidation of liver glycogen into CO2
B conversion of muscle glycogen into lactate via anaerobic metabolism
C phosphocreatine in myocytes
D utilisation of fatty acids into CO2
E aerobic metabolism of muscle glycogen into CO2

A

D

109
Q
A

BIOM2012 past MCQ (3 decks)

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