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BIOM2012 past MCQ > 2022 > Flashcards

2022 Flashcards

1
Q

1 In autonomic ganglia, which statement is CORRECT? [1.5 marks]
A parasympathetic preganglionic terminals release noradrenaline
B both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic terminals release acetylcholine
C only parasympathetic preganglionic terminals release acetylcholine
D sympathetic preganglionic terminals release noradrenaline
E only sympathetic preganglionic terminals release acetylcholine

A

B

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2
Q

2 For postganglionic nerve terminals, which statement is CORRECT? [1.5 marks]
A the majority of sympathetic terminals release noradrenaline and ATP, but a very small number release acetylcholine
B sympathetic terminals release only noradrenaline and ATP
C parasympathetic terminals release noradrenaline
D sympathetic and parasympathetic terminals release different levels of noradrenaline, acetylcholine, and ATP
E parasympathetic terminals release noradrenaline and acetylcholine

A

A

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3
Q

3 The sympathetic nervous system is very plastic, but its continuous activation may result in many disorders. Which statement is INCORRECT? Continuous activation of the sympathetic nervous system may result in [1.5 marks]
A immunosuppression leading to increased infections and cancer
B fertility is increased
C gastro-intestinal irregularities
D high blood pressure leading to cardiovascular disease
E changes that become more permanent as we age

A

B

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4
Q

4 Which statement is INCORRECT? Small levels of stress are a healthy and necessary part of life, since the transient release of noradrenaline [1.5 marks]
A makes problems too difficult to solve
B encourages creative thinking
C creates new memories
D improves mood
E stimulates your brain to grow new connections within itself

A

A

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5
Q

5 Which of the following mechanisms does NOT promote blood flow back to the heart in the systemic venous system? [1.5 marks]
A an increase in thoracic cavity pressure during expiration
B sympathetic neuronal activity
C one-way valves in veins preventing back flow
D enlargement of the right atrial cavity during ventricular contraction
E the veins offering little resistance to flow

A

A

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6
Q

6 The largest decrease in blood pressure occurs in which of the following segments of the systemic circulation?
A from the left ventricle to the end of the conducting arteries
B from the distributing arteries to the start of the capillaries
C from the start of the capillaries back to the right ventricle
D across the arterioles
E across all of the capillaries [1.5 marks]

A

B (D?) ???

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7
Q

7 Which of these agents causes marked vasodilation?
A angiotensin II
B noradrenaline
C endothelins
D antidiuretic hormone
E histamine

A

E

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8
Q

8 Which of the following does NOT affect pre-load of the heart?
A compliance of the pericardium
B ventricular hypertrophy
C arterial compliance
D intra-thoracic pressure
E blood volume [1.5 marks

A

C

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9
Q

9 Heart rate can be altered by chronotropic agents. Which of the following is NOT a positive chronotropic agent? [1.5 marks]
A age
B increased blood calcium ions
C increased body temperature
D thyroxine
E adrenaline

A

A

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10
Q

10 The influence of increased capillary hydrostatic pressure above normal on bulk flow across the capillary is similar to the influence of [1.5 marks]
A increased tissue hydrostatic pressure
B increased plasma oncotic pressure
C reduced venous pressure
D reduced tissue oncotic pressure
E reduced plasma oncotic pressure

A

E

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11
Q

11 Which of the following does NOT provide afferent neuronal input into the cardiovascular control centre in the brainstem? [1.5 marks]
A stretch receptors that detect blood volume
B irritant receptors in walls of blood vessels
C limbic system in emotional responses
D proprioceptors that detect joint movement
E chemoreceptors that detect blood oxygen tension

A

B

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12
Q

12 The cerebral reflex (central ischaemic response) is an important reflex to maintain blood pressure in a hemorrhage. Which of the following correctly describes activation of this reflex?
[1.5 marks]
A it occurs when blood flow in the medulla oblongata is compromised
B it occurs because peripheral chemoreceptors detect a decrease in PO2 in systemic arterial blood less than 60 mmHg
C it always occurs when there is any haemorrhage
D it occurs before local auto-regulatory mechanisms are activated to control cerebral blood flow
E it only occurs when mean arterial blood pressure drops below 40 mmHg

A

A

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13
Q

13 Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as
A free solute dissolved in plasma
B carbonic acid H2CO3
C carbaminohaemoglobin
D bicarbonate ions HCO3
E chemically bound to haemoglobin

A

D

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14
Q

14 Which of the following would NOT result in respiratory acidosis? [1.5 marks]
A increased ventilation
B decreased alveolar ventilation
C increased blood PCO2
D decreased diffusion across the respiratory membrane
E lack of perfusion of the lung capillaries

A

A

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15
Q

15 The chloride shift [1.5 marks]
A is important in oxygen binding to haemoglobin
B forces oxygen out of erythrocytes to the tissues
C produces carbonic acid
D results in more carbon dioxide being transported by erythrocytes
E counteracts movement of bicarbonate out of erythrocytes

A

E

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16
Q

16 Which of the following is NOT a component of the control of normal rhythmic involuntary breathing? [1.5 marks]
A a dorsal respiratory neuronal group in the pons
B input from the motor cortex
C phrenic and intercostal motor neuron pools
D central chemoreceptor input
E a central pattern generator in the brainstem

A

B

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17
Q

17 Which of the following statements is CORRECT? The interlobar artery gives rise to the
A cortical radiate artery
B afferent arteriole
C arcuate vein
D cortical radiate vein
E arcuate artery

A

E

18
Q

18 Which of the following can be used to estimate glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
A sodium clearance
B glucose secretion
C urea clearance
D creatinine clearance
E glucose clearance

A

D

19
Q

19 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? Angiotensin II [1.5 marks]
A increases sodium reabsorption
B stimulates aldosterone production
C is a vasodilator
D stimulates antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release
E is a potent vasconstrictor

A

C

20
Q

20 Renin release is stimulated by [1.5 marks]
A reduced glucose levels in the tubular fluid
B reduced urea levels in the glomerular capillaries
C reduced activity of the renal sympathetic nerves
D augmented activity of the renal sympathetic nerves
E increased delivery of NaCl to macula densa cells

A

D

21
Q

21 Which of the following statements about the fundic gastric glands is CORRECT? Fundic gastric glands
A contain cells termed enteroendocrine cells
B release mucus and gastrin
C contain cells termed parietal and chief cells
D release mucus to protect the stomach from self
E promotes contractions of the stomach muscles

A

C

22
Q

22 Pepsin is [1.5 marks]
A a hormone secreted by gastric glands
B an acid secreted by the large intestine
C an acid secreted by the gastric glands
D an enzyme secreted by the large intestine
E an enzyme secreted by the gastric glands

A

E

23
Q

23 Cardiac gastric glands are located in the
A stomach
B small intestine
C pancreas
D liver
E large intestine

A

A

24
Q

24 Which of the following statements about the gallbladder is CORRECT? Muscular contractions of the gallbladder release [1.5 marks]
A hydrochloric acid via the pancreatic duct, which flows into the hepatic duct.
B mucus via the hepatic duct, which flows into the bile duct.
C bile via the cystic duct, which flows into the bile duct
D bile via the hepatic duct, which flows into the bile duct.
E hydrochloric acid via the hepatic duct, which flows into the bile duct.

A

C

25
Q

25 A unique feature of the vertebrate neuromuscular synapse is that [1.5 marks]
A it is just like all other chemical synapses found throughout the nervous system
B it contains only one pre-synaptic release site
C it is relatively big, simple and can undergo successful re-innervation at original synaptic sites
D its nerve terminal contains numerous neurotransmitters
E it is well studied

A

C

26
Q

26 A motor unit is defined as [1.5 marks]
A the parts of an individual muscle that are sequentially recruited during increased load placed upon a muscle
B the sequential contraction of muscle fibres under increasing load
C the number of motor neurons supplying one individual muscle
D the number of individual muscle fibres innervated by one motor neuron
E the number of motor neurons supplying muscles at the same segmental level

A

D

27
Q

27 Muscle spindles are innervated by [1.5 marks]
A gamma motor neurons only
B gamma motor neurons and type 2x sensory neurons
C alpha and gamma motor neurons
D type 1b sensory neurons only
E gamma motor neurons and type 1a sensory neurons

A

E

28
Q

28 The primary motor cortex
A does not receive inputs from the premotor cortex
B is active when a person is told to mentally rehearse a movement, but not to execute it
C is located in the parietal lobes
D develops motor programs for voluntary tasks
E is somatotopically organized

A

E

29
Q

29 Increasing the frequency of action potential stimulation to elicit a tetanic force response will more rapidly cause fatigue by [1.5 marks]
A making the mitochondria resynthesise ATP at a faster rate
B due to a more rapid build-up of lactic acid
C exhausting the amount of Ca2+ that is releasable from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D causing disruption of structural links between the transverse tubular (t-) system and sarcoplasmic reticulum membranes
E progressively increasing the [K+] concentration inside the transverse tubular (t-) system

A

E

30
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a metabolic effect of growth hormone? [1.5 marks]
    A. increased amino acid uptake into myocytes
    B. lipolysis of fat reserves in adipocytes
    C. protein anabolic effect
    D. decreased gluconeogenesis in hepatocytes
    E. decreased glucose uptake into adipocytes
A

D

31
Q

30 In skeletal muscle, Ca2+ release through the ryanodine receptor is inhibited during continuous exercise because [1.5 marks]
A the resting membrane potential cannot be depolarized
B Ca2+ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is precipitated in the cytoplasm
C cytoplasmic free magnesium levels rise
D there is an increase in protons in the cytoplasm
E the stabilization of the ATP to ADP ratio in the cytoplasm

A

C

32
Q

31 The main differences between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscles are [1.5 marks]
A fast-twitch muscles are for explosive and powerful contractions and slow-twitch muscles are for continuous work or posture
B slow-twitch muscle is susceptible to contraction-induced damage than fast -twitch muscle
C the resting ATP levels in the cytoplasm
D different mechanisms of excitation-contraction coupling
E different sarcomere lengths

A

A

33
Q

32 What disrupts excitation-contraction coupling following a bout of unaccustomed eccentric contractions? [1.5 marks]
A loss of the contractile apparatus from the muscle fibre
B severing of the coupling between the transverse tubular (t-) system and sarcoplasmic reticulum membranes
C a displacement of mitochondria from its normal position inside the muscle fibre
D depolarization of the transverse tubular (t-) system
E loss of Ca2+ from the muscle fibre

A

B

34
Q

33 The type-2 glucose transporter GLUT2 is
A constitutively present on hepatocytes and mediates glucose uptake in the fed state by facilitated diffusion
B sequestered and inactivated in cytoplasmic vesicles in muscle and adipose cells in the fed and fasted states
C constitutively present on the blood-brain barrier and signals the rise in blood glucose to the brain in the fed state
D stimulated by insulin to translocate to the plasma membrane in pancreatic β cells and trigger insulin release
E translocated to the plasma membrane by exocytosis and becomes active when insulin binds to the insulin receptor of muscle and adipose cells in the fed state

A

A

35
Q

34 Insulin secretion from β cells of the pancreas involves which of the following?
A phosphorylation of insulin receptor substrate 1 (IRS-1) on serine and threonine residues
B GLUT2, glycolysis, ATP production and closure of ATP-sensitive K+ channels
C activation of the PI3-kinase AKT pathway and GLUT4 translocation to the cell surface
D ATP production, hyperpolarisation of the cell and Ca2+ influx
E GLUT2, glycogen synthesis, ATP opening of ATP-sensitive K+ channels and depolarisation

A

B

36
Q

35 Considering energy metabolism, which of the following hormones in general acts quite
DIFFERENTLY to the others? [1.5 marks]
A insulin
B glucagon
C adrenaline
D cortisol
E growth hormone

A

A

37
Q

36 Which of the following is NOT a key metabolic role of insulin? [1.5 marks]
A promotion of amino acid uptake in myocytes
B stimulation of GLUT4 translocation to the cell membrane in myocytes
C promotion of glycogenesis in adipocytes
D inhibition of gluconeogenesis in hepatocytes
E inhibition of lipolysis in adipocytes

A

C

38
Q

37 Glucagon
A causes breakdown of liver glycogen to glucose
B acts on skeletal muscle to stimulate protein catabolism
C is important in the fed state
D decreases gluconeogenesis in the liver
E promotes glycogen synthesis in hepatocytes

A

A

39
Q

38 In diagnosis of diabetes mellitus which of the following is LEAST informative compared to the others? [1.5 marks]
A a plasma glucose concentration after an overnight 8 hour fast
B a plasma glucose concentration obtained 4 hours after an oral glucose tolerance test
C a blood glucose concentration obtained at random during the day
D a plasma glucose concentration obtained 2 hours post oral glucose tolerance test
E a glycosylated haemoglobin concentration obtained 1 hour after a meal

A

C

40
Q

39 Growth hormone [1.5 marks]
A increases in exercise and promotes protein anabolism
B increases the sensitivity of tissues to insulin
C acts as an insulin antagonist by binding to insulin receptors
D is the primary anabolic hormone during fasting and stress
E promotes hypoglycaemia during stress

A

D

41
Q
A

BIOM2012 past MCQ (3 decks)

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