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EMS - Mechanisms Of Disease > MoD AfLs > Flashcards

MoD AfLs Flashcards

1
Q

There are how many types of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Four

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2
Q

Type of granulocyte that takes part in the late phase of the allergic response.

A

Eosinophil

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3
Q

Weal and flare is a clinical feature of which type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type I

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4
Q

What suffix denotes an inflammatory process?

A

-itis

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5
Q

The two main components of the immune system.

A

Innate and adaptive

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6
Q

An allergen is an antigen that induces sensitisation through production of which immunoglobulin class?

A

IgE

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7
Q

What suffix denotes an increased number of cells?

A

-cytosis

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8
Q

What is the study of the causes of disease called?

A

Aetiology

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9
Q

Most common type of autopsy

A

Coroners

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10
Q

What cells normally clear away immune complexes?

A

Phagocytes

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11
Q

Term used to describe the type of reaction associated with type II hypersensitivity

A

Cytotoxic

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12
Q

True or false: Burns are a possible cause of acquired immunodeficiency.

A

True

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13
Q

True or false: Unnatural deaths do not need to be reported to the coroner if it was suicide.

A

False. All unnatural deaths must be reported to the coroner.

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14
Q

Most common food allergy in children

A

Milk

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15
Q

True or false: Dermatitis is an example of allergic disease

A

True

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16
Q

Type I hypersensitivity is also known as ____ sensitivity

A

immediate

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17
Q

What is the study of the incidence and population distribution of disease called?

A

Epidemiology

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18
Q

Prefix denoting a deficiency below normal

A

Hypo-

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19
Q

A suffix denoting an abnormal state lacking specific characteristics

A

-opathy

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20
Q

Autoimmune disease associated with “butterfly rash”

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

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21
Q

Cell injury caused by lack of oxygen

A

Hypoxia

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22
Q

Brain injury due to infarction or ischaemia provides an example of what type of necrosis?

A

Liquefactive (or colliquative)

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23
Q

Term used to describe the flow of neutrophil polymorphs close to the endothelial wall

A

Margination

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24
Q

Cell type predominantly associated with acute inflammation

A

Neutrophil

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25
Q

Granulomatous disease for which there is no known cause

A

Sarcoidosis

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26
Q

Tuberculosis is associated with ____ necrosis

A

Caseous

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27
Q

Fibrinoid necrosis in the arteriolar walls is associated with ____ hypertension

A

Malignant

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28
Q

This growth factor is a mitogen for endothelial cells

A

VEGF

A mitogen induces or stimulates mitosis.

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29
Q

Hepatocytes are an example of a ____ cell population

A

Quiescent

30
Q

The rupture of blood vessels forms what structure within bone fracture sites?

A

Haematoma

31
Q

Term used to describe protein-rich fluid associated with vascular leakage during acute inflammation

A

Exudate

32
Q

Chronic inflammation of the gallbladder

A

Cholecystitis

33
Q

Name for abnormal multinucleate cell that form through fusion of histiocytes

A

Giant cell

A histiocyte is a stationary phagocytic cell present in connective tissue

34
Q

Mechanism of repair involved with non-apposed wound margins

A

Second intention

35
Q

What process of healing involves the formation of fibrosis and scar tissue?

A

Repair

36
Q

Cholera is an example of a disease caused by a bacterial ____

A

exotoxin

37
Q

Usual shape of infarcted areas of tissue

A

Wedge

38
Q

Term used to classify bacteria with an extra outer membrane beyond the cell wall

A

Gram negative

39
Q

The stomach is home to predominantly which type of bacteria: aerobic or anaerobic?

A

Aerobic

40
Q

Alternative name for lipid-laden macrophages

A

Foam cells

41
Q

This type of shock includes a category termed ‘mechanical’

A

Cardiogenic

42
Q

Form of distributive shock that may result from anaesthetic accidents

A

Neurogenic

43
Q

What term is used to describe a symbiotic relationship where one organism benefits without benefiting or harming the other?

A

Commensalism

44
Q

Chitin is found in the cell wall of most ____

A

fungi

45
Q

Pulmonary thromboembolism often originate in which veins?

A

Deep leg

46
Q

This important factor can be provided to the host by bacteria in the gut

A

Vitamin K

47
Q

Type of shock resulting from intra-vascular fluid loss

A

Hypovolaemic

48
Q

What term describes the disease-causing lipopolysaccharide components of the outer membranes of bacteria?

A

Endotoxins

49
Q

Vessel surface is one of the three factors that are altered in ____

A

Virchow’s triad

50
Q

Why is the spleen particularly vulnerable to infarction?

A

It only has one blood supply

51
Q

Term used to describe the degree to which microorganisms can cause disease

A

Virulence

52
Q

Genus of bacteria that helps to preserve a low pH in the vagina

A

Lactobacillus

53
Q

____ is when a person who is genetically male (who has one X and one Y chromosome) is resistant to male androgens.

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS)

As a result, the person has some or all of the physical traits of a woman, but the genetic makeup of a man.

54
Q

Porphyria is a condition that arises due to a defect in the synthesis of ____

A

haem

55
Q

Term used to describe the change associated with the growth of breast tissue during pregnancy and lactation

a) Hypertrophy
b) Hyperplasia
c) Metaplasia
d) Atrophy

A

b) Hyperplasia

56
Q

Hyperventilation may cause respiratory ____

A

Alkalosis

57
Q

A benign tumour of blood vessels is termed ___

A

Angioma

58
Q

Component of tobacco smoke and burnt food that can be metabolically activated into a potent carcinogen

A

Benzopyrene

59
Q

Usually the first site of metastatic spread by carcinomas

A

Lymph nodes

60
Q

The most important adhesion molecule in epithelial cells

A

Ecadherin

61
Q

The three well-defined stages of multistep carcinogenesis

A

Initiation

Promotion

Progression

62
Q

True or false: Telomerase is associated with the acquisition of cellular immortality in tumour cells

A

True

63
Q

What is the most important causative agent associated with breast cancer?

A

Oestrogen

64
Q

Colorectal cancer syndrome associated with a defective caretaker TSG

A

HNPCC (Lynch syndrome)

65
Q

Malignant tumour of smooth muscle

A

Leiomyosarcoma

66
Q

Tumour arising from the single layer of cells that usually line a serous membrane

A

Mesothelioma

67
Q

A ‘Dukes B’ tumour is distinguished from a ‘Dukes A’ tumour by virtue of the tumour having invaded through which structure?

A

Bowel wall

68
Q

____ is a very rare skin disorder where a person is highly sensitive to sunlight, has premature skin ageing and is prone to developing skin cancers.

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum

69
Q

Category of tumour suppressor gene whose normal function is to inhibit cell proliferation

A

Gatekeeper

70
Q

A heavy metal that is classed as a human carginogen

A

Cadmium

71
Q

Overexpression of this cell surface protein is a common feature of lung tumours

A

EGFR

EMS - Mechanisms Of Disease (8 decks)

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