mod a study Flashcards
1
Q
1. What are the 2 levels of maintenance?
A
- Unit, orginizational
2
Q
- What feature makes the Patriot missile totally different from those used by previous systems?
A
- It is delivered as a Certified Round from manufacturer.
3
Q
- Commanders exercise ____________ _____________ to give subordinates latitude in determining how to train their units to achieve the desired end state.
A
- mission command
4
Q
- If you use the term Winchester on PL1, you are telling your HEU that _____________________________.
A
- you are out of ordinance
5
Q
- ______ is a systematic, continuous process of analyzing the threat & environment in a specific area.
A
- IPB
6
Q
- Unit training occurs in the __________ _______ ________ at home station, maneuver combat training centers and mobilization training centers.
A
- operational training domain
7
Q
- What are the four categories that nation states fall into?
A
- core states. Transition states, rogue states, & failed or failing states
8
Q
- What is the most critical input for METL development?
A
- war time operational and contingency plans
9
Q
- How many inputs are there to METL development?
A
- 5
10
Q
- What are the steps of MDMP?
A
- Receipt of the mission, Mission analysis, COA Development, COA Analysis, COA Comparison, COA Approval, a. Orders Production
11
Q
- What are the 4 parts of the Army’s training management cycle?
A
- METL Development, Plan, Execute, & Assess
12
Q
- To what standard must a unit train?
A
- to the appropriate doctrine
13
Q
- Who is responsible for training individuals, crews, and small teams?
A
- NCOs
14
Q
- What does CATS provide?
A
- tasks based event driven training strategies
15
Q
- define threat.
A
- any combination of actors, entities, or forces that have the capability and intent to harm i. United States forces, United States national interests, or the homeland
16
Q
- A _____________ is a measurable action performed by individuals or organizations.
A
- task
17
Q
- _____________ __________________ occurs when a leader conducts training within the scope of another type of training.
A
- concurrent training
18
Q
- CATS will assign a rating of T, P, or U to a unit. What does T, P, & U mean?
A
- T-Trained P-Needs Practice U-Untrained
19
Q
- List the 4 principles of training
A
Train to standard
Train to maintain
Train as you fight
Train to sustain
20
Q
- What are the three types of training plans?
A
- long range short range near term
21
Q
- A __________ _____________ is the diverse and dynamic combination of regular forces, irregular forces, terrorist forces, and/or criminal elements unified to achieve mutually benefitting effects.
A
- hybrid threat
22
Q
- During the train/ready phase of ARFORGEN, units must train in a ________ ________ ________ against hybrid threats
A
- known operational environment
23
Q
- What are the mission variables?
A
- METT-TC
24
Q
- What does PMESII-PT stand for?
A
- Political Military Economic Social Information Infrastructure Physical environment Time
25
Q
- What is the Operational Environment?
A
- A composite of the conditions, circumstances, and influences that affect the employment of capabilities and bear on the decisions of the commander.
26
Q
- What are the operational variables?
A
- PMESII-PT
27
Q
- What does METL stand for?
A
- Mission Essential Task List
28
Q
- What does IPB stand for?
A
- Intelligence Preparation of the Battlefield
29
Q
- What is MDMP?
A
- Military Decision Making Process
30
Q
- What may be the most critical and most complex variable that affects military operations?
A
- military capabilities
31
Q
- A ____________ is the accepted proficiency level to accomplish a task
A
- standard
32
Q
- How many steps are there to MDMP?
A
- 7
33
Q
- What does the acronym SPEAR stand for?
A
- Standard Patriot Engagement Assessment of Readiness
34
Q
- What are the 4 steps of IPB?
A
- Define the operational environment, Define the operational effects, Evaluate the threat, Determine the courses of action
35
Q
- What are the three training domains?
A
- Operational Institutional Self-Development
36
Q
- ______________ are the units overall training manager, subordinate leaders have responsibility for the proficiency of their respective organizations and subordinates.
A
- Commanders
37
Q
- What are the three phases of ARFORGEN?
A
- Reset, Ready/Train, Available
38
Q
- What are the 5 inputs to METL development?
A
- Wartime operational plans, Enduring combat operations, Operational environment, Directed missions, External guidance
39
Q
- For table VIII, how long does a unit have to march order their system?
A
- 45 minutes
40
Q
- If the primary ECS crew becomes decertified for any reason, what must then occur?
A
- The entire unit will have to recertify full collective mobility
41
Q
- For table XII the unit has __________ to emplace the system and rejoin the air battle with minimum engagement capability. The unit will be given an additional ________ to achieve alert state assumption.
A
- 90 minutes & 30 minutes
42
Q
- How much time does a unit have to send a green bar for table VIII?
A
- 1 hour
43
Q
- How often must a table IV exam be updated by the Battalion?
A
- every 6 months
44
Q
- How often should table V be conducted?
A
- weekly
45
Q
- Can a Senior NCO serve as the RSOP NCOIC?
A
- yes
46
Q
- the name for table XI is what?
A
- Precertification to table XII
47
Q
- Table II is called what?
A
- Ready-For-Action Drills
48
Q
- How often are units required to conduct a table XII?
A
- Annually
49
Q
- Air Battle Management/Missile Reload is what table?
A
- table V
50
Q
- The minimum crew for the RSOP team is _____ personnel.
A
- 10
51
Q
- What table is Nighttime MO&E Under Varying CBRN Conditions?
A
- table X
52
Q
- Basic Gunnery Certification is table _____.
A
- IV
53
Q
- For table IV evaluations the Battery commander will appoint a representative, who must certify that representative before they can conduct evaluations?
A
- Battalion standardization team
54
Q
- How often should table VIII be conducted?
A
- within 1 year and bi annually as long as crew stays the same
55
Q
- Table XII is the responsibility of the __________________________.
A
- Brigade Commander
56
Q
- Table VIII is the responsibility of the __________________________.
A
- Battalion Commander
57
Q
- For table XII the missile reload crew is allotted how much time?
A
- 120 minutes
58
Q
- How often should a unit train table III?
A
- twice weekly
59
Q
- What is CATS?
A
- Combined Arms Training Strategy- The ends, ways, and means to achieve & sustain war fighting readiness for the average unit.
60
Q
- How often must table IV exams be updated?
A
- every 6 months
61
Q
- What are foundation target sets composed of?
A
- Friends and Unknowns
62
Q
- the acronym LVCG stands for what?
A
- Live Virtual, Constructive, Gaming
63
Q
- Who must the ECS call for a missile reload?
A
- BCP
64
Q
- Fighting simulated air battles through TPTs is an example of which type of training?
A
- Virtual training
65
Q
- How many personnel are required to certify a fire unit table VIII?
A
- 42
66
Q
- A FU conducting table VIII or XII with 6 LS can score a maximum of how many points on the evaluations?
A
- 2700
67
Q
- During table VIII missile reload crews have _____ minutes to _____ missiles, using _____ or _____ and return the LS to operational status.
A
- 60, 6, GMT, or Forklift
68
Q
- During Gunnery, how often are AARs conducted?
A
- after each training event
69
Q
- What is the Minimum number of crews that a fire uni must maintain at table VIII & XII collectively?
A
- ECS-2, RS-1, EPP-1, AMG-1, BCP-1, RSOP-1, RELOAD-1 for GMT on each type of LS assigned to the unit, LS 4 if 5 LS present (2-PAC2, 2-PAC3) 5 if 6 LS present (3-PAC2 2 PAC3)
70
Q
- At a minimum __________________ of the air battle for a table XII evaluation will be conducted in MOPP4.
A
- 40 minutes
71
Q
- NCOs are the primary trainers of enlisted _____________, _____________________ & ______________________ __________________.
A
- Soldiers, Crews, Small Teams
72
Q
- What are the four methods in which evaluations can be administered?
A
- formal, informal, internal, external
73
Q
- What are the two types of AAR?
A
- formal, informal,
74
Q
- What is an After Action Review?
A
- a guided analysis of an organization’s performance
75
Q
- How often is an ECS operator required to pass a Table IV evaluation?
A
- Initially within 90 days, semi-annually after that
76
Q
- How often should table VII training be conducted?
A
- as required
77
Q
- How often should table XI be conducted?
A
- as required
78
Q
- For table VIII, the evaluation team chief will verify the system is ______________________________________ prior to the start of the evaluation per ______________ and applicable TMs.
A
- mission capable, AR 700-138
79
Q
- Once RSOP has been briefed by the OIC, how long do they have to get off site?
A
- 30 minutes
80
Q
- In order for the battery to qualify its Soldiers to wear the missile bar on the sharpshooter weapons qualification badge, what must occur?
A
- score 90-94% or better on the overall score with a 1st time go (Q1)
81
Q
- During all training events, what is the primary consideration?
A
- the prevention of safety violations