Mod 7 + 8 Flashcards

1
Q

Can pregnant women take asthma medications?

A

Yes

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2
Q

_________ does not commonly involve wheezing and coughing while asthma does

A

Dyspnea

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3
Q

Risks associated with_______:
FGR
SGA
PTB

A

Asthma

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4
Q

Pregnancy causes ___% of cases to improve, ____% of cases to unchange, ____% of cases will worsen

A

33%, 33%, 33%

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5
Q

first test to order when PE is suspected

A

CXR

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6
Q

pregnant women are in stable respiratory:

A

alkalosis

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7
Q

progesterone causes decreased ___________ and _____________

A

airway conduction and pulmonary resistance

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8
Q

elevated diaphragm causes ___________ and ___________

A

functional residual capacity and residual air volume

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9
Q

GERD can make asthma:

A

worse

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10
Q
Asthma Severity:
symptom frequency: 2 days per week or less
night waking: 2x/month or less
NO intereference with normal activity
PFR > 80% of personal best
A

Intermittent

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11
Q

Asthma Severity:
symptom frequency: >2 days per week but not daily
night waking: >2x/month
Intereference with normal activity: minor
PFR > 80% of personal best

A

Mild Persistent

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12
Q
Asthma Severity:
symptom frequency: daily
night waking: >1x/week
Intereference with normal activity: some limitation
PFR 60-80% of personal best
A

Moderate Persistent

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13
Q
Asthma Severity:
symptom frequency: throughout day
night waking: 4x/week or more
Intereference with normal activity: extreme limitation
PFR <60% of personal best
A

Severe Persistent

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14
Q

Treatment for _________ Asthma:
No daily meds
Albuterol PRN

A

Mild Intermittent

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15
Q

Treatment for _________ Asthma:
Preferred: Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids
Alternative: Cromolyn, Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist, Theophylline

A

Mild Persistent

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16
Q

Treatment for _________ Asthma:
Preferred: Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids AND Salmeterol or Medium-dose inhaled corticosteroids
Alternative: Low-dose or Medium-dose inhaled corticosteroids AND Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist or Theophylline

A

Moderate Persistent

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17
Q

Treatment for _________ Asthma:
Preferred: High-dose inhaled corticosteroids AND Salmeterol AND oral corticosteroid (if needed)
Alternative: High-dose inhaled corticosteroids AND Theophylline AND oral corticosteroid (if needed)

A

Severe Persistent

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18
Q
Maternal Implications of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Variable - 23% improve, 30% worsen
Need monitoring w/ PEFR and FEV1 testing + tracking symptoms throughout pregnancy
LBW
Prematurity
Susceptibility to hypoxia and hypoxemia
Slight increase (studies not consistent):
-stillbirth
-preeclampsia
-PTL
-FGR
-perinatal mortality
-abruption
-previa
-PROM
-GDM
Morbidity (severe disease, poor control, or both)
**Otherwise usually good outcomes
Status asthmaticus can → morbidity, muscle fatigue, resp arrest, pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum, acute cor pulmonale, cardiac arrhythmias
A

Asthma

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19
Q
**Fetal Implications of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Fairly uncommon--If any risk it is slight and studies are not consistent**
SAB
PTL/PTB
FGR (with increased severity)
Abruption/Previa
PROM
Fetal response to maternal hypoxemia → ↓umbilical blood flow, ↑systemic and pulmonary vascular resistance, ↓cardiac output
Possible teratogenic or adverse effects of Meds
Slight risk for abnormalities:
-Cleft lip and palate
-Autism spectrum disorders
A

Asthma

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20
Q
Differential Dx for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Dyspnea of pregnancy
GERD
Chronic cough from postnasal drip
Bronchitis
A

Asthma

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21
Q

Collaborate or refer for ANY level of _______ asthma

A

persistent

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22
Q

Avoid ______ corticosteroid in ____ trimester

A

oral in 1st

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23
Q

Give stress dose of corticosteroids to women in labor that have used ___________ in the past 4 weeks

A

oral steroids

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24
Q

med that is possibly teratogenic or may have adverse fetal effects - several reports show slightly higher risk for abnormalities such as cleft lip/palate and autism spectrum

A

oral steroids

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25
Q

ICS usually bumped up to q__-__ hours to reduce need for extra SABAs in persistent asthma

A

3-4

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26
Q

Interventions for Asthma during __________:
Keep rescue inhaler at bedside
Continue ICS

A

Labor

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27
Q

Avoid nubain during:

A

acute asthma attack

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28
Q

Labetolol and Hemabate - not first line for:

A

asthmatics

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29
Q

If patient also allergic to ASA, DO NOT give ____________ during labor, consult physician

A

corticosteroids

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30
Q

Medication for all severities of asthma

A

SABAs

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31
Q

Add __________ to SABA for Mild Persistent Asthma

A

Low-dose ICS

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32
Q

Add __________ to SABA for Moderate Persistent Asthma

A

Low-dose ICS + LABA

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33
Q

Add __________ to SABA for Severe Persistent Asthma

A

High-dose ICS + LABA

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34
Q

Add __________ to SABA for VERY Severe Persistent Asthma

A

High-dose ICS + LABA + PO corticosteroids

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35
Q

Do not _______ asthma medications DURING pregnancy

A

step-down

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36
Q

What to assess if asthma symptoms ___________:

medication technique, adherence, and environmental control

A

not controlled

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37
Q
Nonpharmacologic Interventions for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Control of triggers
Herbal remedies (NOT in place of meds!)
Licorice, Ginkgo Biloba, Coltsfoot, Hops
Fish Oil, Vitamin C
Yoga, acupuncture, biofeedback
A

Asthma

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38
Q

Causes increased risk for __________ in pregnancy:
decreased venous outflow
hypercoagulable state
damage to venous lining

A

VTE

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39
Q
V
I
R
C
H ow's Triad
A

Vascular Injury
Reduced blood flow (venous stasis)
HyperCoaguability

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40
Q

pauses in respiratory movements greater than 20 sec that is common in preterm infants…involves changes in HR (often <80 bpm)

A

apnea

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41
Q

apnea with no breathing effort and no airflow

A

central apnea

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42
Q

apnea with breathing effort but no airflow

A

obstructive apnea

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43
Q

apnea that begins with no breathing effort then once breathing effort starts, there is no airflow

A

mixed apnea

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44
Q

venous stasis, hypercoagulable state, vascular trauma

A

Virchow’s

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45
Q

Venous wall relaxation due progesterone and venous pressure due to gravid uterus

A

venous stasis

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46
Q

DVT is usually in _______ left leg– ileal femoral veins

A

proximal

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47
Q

Pathophysiology of ____________:

the placenta experiences ischemia because the spiral arteries of the uterus fail to reshape and increase in diameter

A

preeclampsia

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48
Q

Preeclampsia: ___creased serum creatinine

A

increased

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49
Q

Preeclampsia: ___creased creatinin clearance

A

decreased

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50
Q

Preeclampsia: ___creased liver enzymes

A

increased

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51
Q

Preeclampsia: ___creased Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH)

A

increased

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52
Q

level that indicates proteinuria in 24-hour urine

A

> 300

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53
Q
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Obesity (BMI>30)
Smoking
Age>35
Hx thrombosis
Inherited thrombophilias
Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
Sickle cell disease
Heart disease
Diabetes
Immobility (paraplegia)
[Due to Pregnancy:]
Hypercoagulable state
Venous stasis
Multiple pregnancy
Preeclampsia 
[Due to Labor and Birth:]
Operative vaginal birth
C/S
Infection
Vascular trauma
Immobilization
PPH
Preterm birth
Stillbirth
A

DVT

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54
Q

LOOK AT ACOG Chronic HTN & Gestational HTN tables that explain difference b/t severe and nonsevere features

A

!!!!!!!!

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55
Q

LOOK AT CLINICAL RISK FACTORS FOR ASPIRIN USE IN PREGNANCY

A

!!!!!!!!!

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56
Q

Management of ____________:
**Immediate referral
Thrombophilia testing first if indicated
Anticoagulation w/ unfractionated heparin (UFH) or low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)
PP: simultaneously start warfarin (safe during lactation)
Anticoagulation continues for 6 months minimum
Limited activity, leg rest, elevation
Over several days leg pain should subside
After symptoms pass - graded ambulation started, fit elastic stockings, continue anticoagulation
Graduated compression stockings are worn for 2 yrs to prevent post-thrombotic syndrome

A

DVT

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57
Q

Recovery of DVT is usually __-___ days

A

7-10

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58
Q

PE incidence: 1 in _______

A

7,000

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59
Q
Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Dyspnea
Chest pain
Cough
Syncope
Hemoptysis
Tachypnea
Apprehension
Tachycardia
Pulmonic closure sound
Rales
Friction rub 
Deceptively nonspecific - s/s and lab testing
A

PE

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60
Q

Diagnostics for _______:
ECG (right axis deviation + T wave inversion)
CXR (results normal 40% of the time, otherwise may have atelectasis, infiltrate, cardiomegaly, or effusion)
Most hypoxemic–Normal arterial blood glass does not exclude
⅓ have PO2 value of >80mmHg
Alveolar-arterial oxygen tension difference more useful indicator - 86% have alveolar-arterial difference >20mmHg

A

PE

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61
Q

Gestational HTN will deliver @ ___ weeks

A

37

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62
Q

Risk Factors for __________:
Rapid labor
MSAF
Tears into uterine/other large pelvic veins (permits fluid exchange b/w mother & fetus)

AMA
Post-term pregnancy
Labor induction or augmentation
Eclampsia
Cesarean, forceps, or vacuum delivery
Abruption or previa
Hydramnios
A

AFE

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63
Q

Risk Factors for __________:
Rapid labor
MSAF
Tears into uterine/other large pelvic veins (permits fluid exchange b/w mother & fetus)

AMA
Post-term pregnancy
Labor induction or augmentation
Eclampsia
Cesarean, forceps, or vacuum delivery
Abruption or previa
Hydramnios

Male gender fetus
Fetal distress
PROM
IUFD

AMA >35
Multiparity
Diabetes

C/S
cervical laceration
Uterine rupture
Uterine Hypertonus - likely effect rather than cause, hypertonus from oxytocin not implicated

A

AFE

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64
Q

Symptoms of __________:
Classic triad:
hemodynamic compromise, respiratory compromise, DIC
Classic example:
dramatic behavior
late stages of labor immediately postpartum
gasping for air
Seizures or cardiorespiratory arrest rapidly follows w/ massive hemorrhage from consumptive coagulopathy
Manifestations can be variable

A

AFE

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65
Q
Management for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Protect airway
2 large-bore IVs
Type+Cross
Consider vasopressors
Contact OR
Emergent C/S
ICU
Volume resuscitation
serial ACT/ABG/VBG
PRBC/FFP/platelets
A

AFE

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66
Q

Most efficient way for NB to temporarily increase ventilation and compensate for hypoxia and hypercarbia

A

tachypnea

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67
Q

developmental deficiency in surfactant synthesis accompanied by lung immaturity and hypoperfusion

A

Neonatal Respiratory Distress

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68
Q

Do NOT give ___________ to protect against infections from MVP (mitral valve prolapse)

A

prophylactic abx

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69
Q

Causes of ___________:
Prematurity and exacerbated by asphyxia
Impaired or delayed surfactant synthesis

A

Neonatal Respiratory Distress

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70
Q

Risk Factors for ____________:
Fetal - Prematurity, asphyxia, anemia
Maternal - poorly controlled GDM
Pregnancy- polyhydramnios, oligohydramnios
Intrapartum - previa, abruption, MSAF
Risk decreases w/ higher gestational age

A

Neonatal Respiratory Distress

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71
Q
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Male gender
Maternal GDM
Perinatal asphyxia
Hypothermia
Multiple gestations
A

Respiratory Distress Syndrome

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72
Q

NB’s most efficient way to temporarily increase ventilation and compensate for hypoxia and hypercarbia

A

tachypnea

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73
Q

sound created by exhaling against a partially closed glottis in an attempt to increase functional residual capacity in lungs and stabilize (stint) alveoli
helps keep the lungs expanded and preserves oxygen

A

grunting

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74
Q

attempt to decrease resistance to airflow by increasing the size of nostrils that results from increased inspiratory pressure
this decrease in resistance will decrease total work of breathing

A

nasal flaring

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75
Q

Attempt to increase lung compliance and assist the diaphragm as it mechanically expands the lung during inspiration
occurs with airway obstruction

A

retractions

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76
Q

apparent when 5 g/100 mL of hemoglobin is unsaturated and SpO2 decreases to 80-85%

A

central cyanosis

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77
Q

developmental deficiency in surfactant synthesis accompanied by lung immaturity and hypoperfusion
caused by prematurity and exacerbated by asphyxia
or impaired/delayed surfactant synthesis

A

neonatal respiratory distress

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78
Q
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Fetal - 
Male gender
Prematurity
Asphyxia
Anemia 
Hypothermia
Multiple gestations

Maternal -
Poorly controlled diabetes

Pregnancy-
Polyhydramnios
Oligohydramnios

Intrapartum-
Previa
Abruption
MSAF
**Risk decreases w/ increased gestational age
A

neonatal respiratory distress

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79
Q

NB Respiratory Problem:
Begins early
and Increases in severity over the first 72 hours

A

neonatal respiratory distress

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80
Q

results in poor compliance, rapid, shallow breathing

A

surfactant deficiency

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81
Q

results in slower deep breathing

A

increased airway resistance

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82
Q

Symptoms of _________________:
Tachypnea
Grunting
Pitting edema
Cyanosis
Diminished breath sounds
Retractions
Isolated tachypnea w/ congenital heart disease
Temp instability (infection?)
Tachycardia (hypovolemia?)
Scaphoid abdomen (congenital diaphragmatic hernia?)
Asymmetric chest movement/ breath sounds
Tension pneumothorax possible
Stridor (possible subglottic stenosis in previously intubated)

A

neonatal respiratory distress

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83
Q
Diagnostics for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Follow NRP guidelines until infant is stable then...
-Chest x-ray 
-ABG
-CBC w/diff
-Blood cultures
-Review maternal/fetal history
A

neonatal respiratory distress

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84
Q

Inadequate or delayed clearance of lung liquid leading to transient pulmonary edema

A

Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn

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85
Q

Caused by fluid in lungs increasing inspiratory activity, RR, and grunting

  • Possibly from alteration in permeability of pulmonary capillary vessels, aspiration of amniotic fluid during in uterine gasping efforts or decreased vaginal thoracic squeeze
  • Immaturity leads to slower lung fluid removal
  • Delayed respiratory transition w/ increase in diffusion distance
  • Increased risk of V/Q mismatching
A

Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn

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86
Q
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Cesarean birth before labor onset
Perinatal hypoxic stress event
Precipitous labor
Male gender infant
Genetic change in alveoli 𝛃-adrenergic receptor expression
A

Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn

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87
Q

Uncommon in preterm infants born by C/S possibly due to increased interstitial tissue and smaller gas exchange areas that decrease movement of lung fluid from the interstitial space back into the airway

A

Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn

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88
Q

No transition after birth with symptoms resolving usually in 48-72 hours

A

Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn

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89
Q
Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Tachypnea (up to 120-140 bpm)
Mild to moderate retractions
Grunting
Cyanosis (usually not prominent)
Breath sounds may be initially moist but clear quickly
A

Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn

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90
Q

Diagnostics for _______________:
CBC + blood cultures (Rule Out sepsis)
Chest X-ray (vascular engorgement, moderate cardiomegaly, occasional air bronchogram, hyperaeration)
ABG (may indicate respiratory acidosis)

A

Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn

91
Q
Management of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Supportive based on symptoms
Rule out sepsis
O2 required (usually needs to be >40%)
**Not a severe respiratory problem
A

Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn

92
Q

breathing alternating w/ a pause of up to 20 seconds which may be induced by hypoxemia and respiratory depression that is more common in preterm infants
*can be relieved by respiratory stimulants like caffiene

A

periodic breathing

93
Q

lapse of 20 seconds or more in breathing that occurs w/ color changes or bradycardia (often < 80 bpm) that is common in preterm infants and more frequent for infants w/ chronic lung disease or other respiratory problems
*Abnormal finding in full-term infants - may indicate an underlying problem, like sepsis, hypoglycemia, CNS injury or abnormality, seizures, or maternal drug use

A

apnea

94
Q

type of apnea with no airflow or breathing efforts

A

central apnea

95
Q

type of apnea where there is no airflow WITH breathing efforts

A

obstructive apnea

96
Q

apnea that begins as central and becomes obstructive

A

mixed apnea

97
Q

this is caused, in theory, by vagal stimulation from common, transient umbilical corn entrapment resulting in bowel peristalsis

A

MSAF

98
Q
Risks correlated with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
C/S
Forceps
Intrapartum FHR abnormalities
Low APGARs
Need for assisted ventilation at delivery
A

Meconium aspiration

99
Q

inactivates surfactant and activates complement cascade causing inflammation and vasoconstriciton of the pulmonary veins

A

Meconium Aspiration

100
Q

Current belief is that this occurs when infant is compromised by a chronic event like chronic metabolic acidosis, infection, or other comorbidities rather than only an acute event in labor

A

Meconium Aspiration

101
Q
Induces hypoxia via 4 major pulmonary effects:
Airway obstruction
Surfactant dysfunction
Chemical pneumonitis
Pulmonary hypertension
A

Meconium Aspiration

102
Q

increases risk for intrauterine infection

A

MSAF

103
Q
Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Death (thick)
Long term neurological sequelae
Barrel chest
Crackles and Rhonchi on auscultation
Associated complication - Pulmonary Hypertension
A

MAS

104
Q

Risk Factos for ____________:
Postterm
FGR
*due to decreased amniotic fluid + cord compression or uteroplacental insufficiency

A

MAS

105
Q
Management of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Ventilatory support
Intubation as needed
CXR (varies w/ severity, areas of patchy atelectasis, areas of overinflation)
Surfactant replacement
Inhaled corticosteroids
A

MAS

106
Q
M
R
S
O
P
A
A
Mask adjustment
Reposition airway
Suction (mouth + nose)
Open mouth
Pressure increase
Alternative airway
107
Q

Start NRP with PIP of:

A

20-25

108
Q

Start NRP with PEEP of:

A

5

109
Q

chest compressions are necessary when the baby’s HR is below ____ after at least ___ seconds of PPV

A

below 60 after at least 30 seconds of PPV

110
Q

chest compression should be pressure applied to the _________ of the sternum

A

lower 1/3

111
Q
Arterial:
Low pH
High PCO2
Normal HCO3
Normal Base Deficit
A

Respiratory Acidosis

112
Q
Arterial:
Low pH
Normal PCO2
Low HCO3
High Base Deficit
A

Metabolic Acidosis

113
Q
Arterial:
low pH
High PCO2
Low HCO3
High Base Deficit
A

Mixed Acidosis

114
Q

Arterial Normal pH

A

7.26 +/- 0.07

115
Q

Arterial Normal PCO2

A

53 +/- 10

116
Q

Arterial Normal HCO3

A

22 +/- 3.6

117
Q

Arterial Normal Base Deficit

A

4 +/- 3

118
Q
Venous:
Low or Normal pH
High or Normal PCO2
Normal HCO3
Normal Base Deficit
A

Respiratory Acidosis

119
Q

Venous:
Normal pH (short duration) or Low pH (long duration)
Normal PCO2
Normal HCO3 (short duration) or Low HCO3 (long duration)
Normal Base Deficit (short duration) or Low Base Deficit (long duration)

A

Metabolic Acidosis

120
Q
Venous:
Low or Normal pH
High or Normal PCO2
Low or Normal HCO3
High or Normal Base Deficit
A

Mixed Acidosis

121
Q

Arterial Normal PO2

A

18 +/- 6.2

122
Q

Venous Normal pH

A

7.35 +/- 0.05

123
Q

Venous Normal PCO2

A

38 +/- 5.6

124
Q

Venous Normal PO2

A

29 +/- 5.9

125
Q

Venous Normal HCO3

A

20 +/- 2.1

126
Q

Venous Normal Base Deficit

A

4 +/- 2

127
Q

Typically within a 20-30 minute period, if placental perfusion disruption is not corrected and anaerobic metabolism continues, the respiratory component will dissipate, and organic acid levels will continue to increase causing bicarbonate and serum pH levels to drop further. This is now a:

A

metabolic acidemia

128
Q

Target rectal temp during HIE:

A

32.5-34 C

129
Q

Requirements for ___________:

  1. Greater than 35 weeks gestation
  2. Birth weight >/= 1.8 kg
  3. Less than 6 hours since insult
  4. One or more of the following predictors:
    pH = 7.0 + Base Deficit >/= 16 on arterial cord gases
    pH 7.01–7.15 + Base Deficit 10–15.9 with acute perinatal event AND 10 min APGAR = 5 AND/OR Assisted ventilation at birth required for 10 or more minutes
5. Seizures OR 3 of the following:
Lethargy / Stupor / Coma
Decreased or NO Activity
Distal flexion/ Complete Extension/ Decerebrate Posturing
Hypotonia or Flaccid Tone
Weak/ Absent Suck
Incomplete/ Absent Moro Reflex
Constricted/ Dilated/ Deviated/ Non-reactive Pupils
Bradycardic or Variable HR
Periodic Breathing or Apnea
A

HIE

130
Q

usually begins 6-12 hours or more after the initial insult and is characterized by hyperexcitability, cytotoxic edema, and damage from the release of free oxygen radicals and Nitrous Oxide, inflammatory changes and imbalances in inhibitory and excitatory neurotransmitters

A

Reperfusion Phase after HIE

131
Q

cerebral palsy caused by HIW is more common in _______ infants

A

preterm

132
Q

_____ infants with moderate to severe HIE have a higher mortality rate, as well as long term cognitive and motor problems

A

Term

133
Q

in preparation for cooling, take rectal temp q ___ minutes

A

15

134
Q

Causes for _____________:

Primary intracranial process:
Meningitis
Ischemic stroke
Encephalitis
Intracranial hemorrhage
Tumor
Malformation
Systemic problem:
Hypoxia-ischemia
Hypoglycemia
Hypocalcemia
Hyponatremia
Other disorders of metabolism
Electrolyte imbalances:
(calcium, potassium, magnesium, sodium)
Acidosis
Hyperbilirubinemia
Viruses (CMV)
Sepsis
A

NB Seizures

135
Q

Symptoms of __________ Seizures:
Eyes: staring, deviation, blinking, fluttering, fixed open stare

Oral: chewing, sucking, lip-smacking, tongue thrusting

Limbs: cycling, swimming, rowing, boxing, pedalling

Systemic: apnea, tachycardia, blood pressure alterations

A

Subtle

136
Q
Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Seizures:
Usually, involve one limb or one side of the body jerking rhythmically at 1-4 times per second.
Consciousness usually preserved
Multifocal, simultaneous or sequential
Non-ordered/nonJacksonian migration
A

Clonic

137
Q

Symptoms of ___________ Seizures:
Generalized and rapid isolated jerking of muscles
May be focal or multifocal
Usually Conscious.

A

Myoclonic

138
Q

seizures that primarily occur in preterm infants

A

Clonic

139
Q

seizures that primarily occur in term infants

A

Myoclonic

140
Q

seizures that occur in preterm and term infants

A

Subtle

141
Q

Symptoms of ___________ Seizures:
Rare
Sustained posturing of the limbs or trunk or deviation of the head
Generalized extensions of upper and lower limbs accompanied by pronation of arms and clenching of fists
Focal: sustained posturing of limb (rare)
May mimic decerebrate or decorticate posturing
Only 30% have EEG correlation
Difficult to treat with anticonvulsants

A

Tonic

142
Q

type of seizure seen in drug withdrawal (especially opiates)

  • If it occurs during sleep then it is probably ‘benign neonatal sleep myoclonus’
  • Can also occur in a very severe form of encephalopathy
A

Myoclonic

143
Q

type of seizure that may be due to an underlying focal neuropathology such as haemorrhage or cerebral infarction

A

Clonic

144
Q

seizures that arise from the basal ganglia as a result of diminished cortical inhibition so further depression of the cortex with anticonvulsants may not alter these seizures

A

Subtle

145
Q

% of NB that develop normally after hypoxia-ischemia seizures develop normally

A

50%

146
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ causes for Seizures:
Prenatal:
Toxemia
Fetal distress
Abruptio placentae
Cord compression)

Perinatal:
Iatrogenic
Maternal haemorrhage
Fetal distress

Postnatal:
Cardio-respiratory (hyaline membrane disease)
Ccongenital heart disease
Pulmonary hypertension

A

Hypoxia-Ischemia

147
Q

_________ causes for Seizures:
Intraventricular and Periventricular Infarction (mainly preterm neonates)
Intracerebral infarction (spontaneous, traumatic)
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Subdural hematoma
Cerebral artery and Vein infarction

A

Hemorrhage/Infarction

148
Q

__________ causes for Seizures:
Intracranial haemorrhage
Cortical vein thrombosis

A

Trauma

149
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ causes for Seizures:
Hypoglycemia (BG <20 in preterm or <30 in term infants)
GDM
Maternal Toxemia
Pancreatic disease
Glycogen storage disease (idiopathic)
Hypocalcaemia
Hypomagnesemia (may accompany or occur independently of Hypocalcemia)
Maternal Hyperparathyroidism
DiGeorge’s syndrome
Hyponatraemia
Hypernatraemia
Inborn errors of metabolism (amino acid and organic acid disorders, hyperammonemia; they usually manifest with peculiar odours, protein intolerance, acidosis, alkalosis, lethargy, or stupor)
Pyridoxine dependency
A

Metabolic

150
Q

NB seizures caused by intraventricular hemorrhage have a:

A

high morbidity rate

151
Q

Earlier onset of idiopathic or malformation seizures is associated with:

A

worse outcomes

152
Q
Labs to order for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ HTN:
Baseline labs: 
CBC
LFTs
CMP
24 hr urine
Serum creatinine
PCR  (evaluate for kidney function)
EKG (screening purposes)
Platelets 
Early GDM screening
A

Chronic HTN

153
Q

Fetal Surveillance for ____________:
Anatomy/Growth scan 16-20 wks gestation (20 wks better)
Repeat growth US @ 30-32 wks, then every 3-4 wks
Biweekly NST & BPP (full or modified)

A

Chronic HTN

154
Q

Chronic HTN BP should be kept within this range:
Systolic:
Diastolic:

A

120-160

80-105

155
Q
Complications of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Abruption
Superimposed Pre-E
PTB
FGR
A

Chronic HTN

156
Q

Chronic HTN patients should limit salt intake to:

A

2.4 g/day

157
Q

Chronic HTN patients should be induced at _____ weeks but may be monitored until ____ weeks if low-risk

A

38 weeks; 40 weeks

158
Q
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
African American race
Obesity
Smoking
AMA
HTN for 4 years or more
Diastolic BP > 100 mmHg at baseline
Hx Preeclampsia
Hx Diabetes
Hx Obesity
A

Superimposed Pre-E

159
Q
Diagnostic Criteria for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Worsening HTN w/ new development of:
Proteinuria
Elevated liver enzymes
Thrombocytopenia
Pulmonary edema
Cerebral or visual disturbances
Renal insufficiency
A

Superimposed Pre-E

160
Q
Medications for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
low dose ASA 81 mg starting @ 12 weeks
Calcium if dietary intake < 600 mg/day
Anti-HTN medication:
labetalol, nifedipine, or methyldopa
A

Chronic HTN

161
Q
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
1st pregnancy
Multiple gestation
Molar pregnancy
GDM
pregestational DM
Renal dx
CVD
Genetic predisposition to HTN developing in pregnancy
Hx PreE
cHTN
Thrombophilia
SLE
Prepregnancy BMI >30
Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
AMA
Assisted reproductive technology
Obstructive sleep apnea
A

Gestational HTN

162
Q

progression of gestational HTN to Pre-E is more likely if it occurs prior to ___ weeks

A

32

163
Q

Management of ___________:
BP monitoring (home once/week, in-office once/week)
weekly or twice weekly visits
Decrease activity level (no working)
Lying left lateral multiple times per day

**IOL usually @ 37-38 weeks

A

Gestational HTN

164
Q

Fetal Surveillance for ____________:
NST or modified BPP 2 x/week switching between full BPP
Growth US every 3-4 wks
Fetal kick counts daily @ home

A

Gestational HTN

165
Q
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
High Risk:
Autoimmune disease (SLE, APA)
Chronic HTN
Hx of Pre-e (especially if adverse outcome)
Multifetal gestation
Renal disease
Type 1 or 2 DM
Moderate Risk:
AMA
BMI >/= 30
Family Hx of Pre-e in mother or sister
Nulliparity
Hx LBW, SGA, previous adverse pregnancy outcome, >10 yr pregnancy interval
African American race
Low SES
A

Preeclampsia

166
Q

A multisystem disorder that begins early in pregnancy
where placental tissue is key (placental tissue must be present but fetus doesn’t need to be)
Characterized by abnormal placentation and failed remodeling of the spiral arteries, which usually occurs early in gestation in two distinct phases

A

Preeclampsia

167
Q

Phase 1 of ____________:
failure of the process of spiral placental arteries becoming larger to accomodate increased blood flow causing hypoperfusion, hypoxia, and ischemia within the developing placenta

A

Preeclampsia

168
Q

Phase 2 of _____________:
the maternal inflammatory response to the initial abnormal placentation and subsequent placental hypoxia that causes endothelial cell dysfunction in the maternal arteries, the release of cytokines which leads to systemic inflammation, vascular endothelial dysfunction, and prothrombotic condition
*Manifests at HTN and in severe cases, liver, kidney and brain damage

A

Preeclampsia

169
Q

symptom of Pre-E that is thought to be due to periportal and focal parenchymal necrosis, hepatic cell edema, or Glisson’s capsule distension, or a combination

A

RUQ or epigastric pain

170
Q

FGR or new-onset proteinuria in the 2nd half of pregnancy without ___________ may precede development of diagnostic criteria for Pre-E

A

HTN

171
Q
Labs for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
UA
Urine dipstick
LFTs
CBC with diff (PLTs)
A

Preeclampsia

172
Q

PLT count less than 100K

A

Thrombocytopenia

173
Q
Diagnostic Criteria for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
New onset HTN + proteinuria
*If no proteinuria, must have:
-Thrombocytopenia
-Impaired Liver function
-Renal insufficiency
-Pulmonary edema
-Cerebral or visual disturbances
A

Preeclampsia

174
Q
Proteinuria:
Protein >\_\_\_\_\_ mg/ per 24 hr urine collection
or
PCR > \_\_\_\_\_\_ mg/dL
or
Urine dipstick > \_\_\_\_\_ protein
A

300 mg/ 24 hr urine
PCR > 0.3 mg/dL
dipstick > 1+

175
Q

Renal insufficiency: > ____ mg/dL creatinine

or doubling creatinine

A

1.1

176
Q

Impaired Liver Function: Elevated ___________ to twice normal

A

Liver Enzymes (transaminases)

177
Q
Complications of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Abruption
Pregnancy loss
Stroke
Organ failure
Maternal death
Preterm birth
FGR
Stillbirth
Neonatal death
Twice the risk for cardiovascular disease and mortality from ischemic heart disease, HF or stroke
HTN after perinatal period
A

Preeclampsia

178
Q

______________ medication not recommended for Pre-E unless severe features present

A

Antihypertensive

179
Q

Mild Preeclampsia: IOL by ____ weeks

A

37

180
Q

Severe Preeclampsia: IOL by ____ weeks

A

34

181
Q

first line agents to keep BP after Mag

A

Hydralazine, labetalol, and nifedipine

182
Q

H
EL
LP Syndrome

A

Hemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Low Plateletss

183
Q

Rapid progression to HELLP or eclampsia is more likely to occur when onset of preeclampsia is prior to ___ weeks gestation

A

34

184
Q
Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Triad:
Platelets < 100K
Serum AST ≥ 70 or 2 x baseline levels
Elevated LDH > 600
\+
Elevated indirect bili (usually just use total bili)
A

HELLP

185
Q

Treating thrombocytopenia in HELLP syndrome with _______________is not supported by evidence

A

corticosteroids

186
Q

Type of seizure in eclampsia

A

Grand mal/ tonic-clonic

187
Q
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
chronic HTN
Uteroplacental insufficiency without definitive cause, PP hemorrhage
NSAID use? (possible in ACOG statement)
Cardiovascular disease
Gestational HTN
A

PP Preeclampsia

188
Q

immune maladaptation, very low-density lipoprotein toxicity, genetic imprinting, increased trophoblast apoptosis or necrosis, and an exaggerated maternal inflammatory response to deported trophoblasts

A

PP Preeclampsia

189
Q

AST and ALT ________ in Pre-E

A

elevated

190
Q

H+H ________ in Pre-E

A

elevated or decreased

191
Q

LDH ________ in Pre-E indicating tissue damage and hemolysis

A

elevated

192
Q

Bili ________ in Pre-E

A

elevated

193
Q

Fibrinogen __________ in Pre-E

A

decreased

194
Q

PT/PTT ____________ in Pre-E

A

decreased

195
Q

Risk for Mag toxicity is greater with a ____ GFR

A

low

196
Q
Signs of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Hypotension
Resp depression
Decreased DTRs
EKG changes
Oliguria
SOB/chest pain
A

Mag toxicity

197
Q

Antidote for Mag toxicity

A

Calcium Gluconate Calcium Chloride IV

198
Q

SE of ___________:
flushing
decreased FHR variability

A

Mag

199
Q

_________ IV drops BP quickly while ____________ IV drops BP more slowly

A

Hydralazine fast

Labetolol slow

200
Q

a combined alpha & beta-blocking agent that decreases BP by dilating arterioles and decreasing HR
Should not be given to those with
Asthma, Cocaine or Amphetamine Use

A

Labetolol

201
Q

reduces BP by dilating arteries

S/E - tachycardia, HA, delayed maternal hypotension, fetal bradycardia, rarely upper abdominal pain

A

Hydralazine

202
Q

PP women with persistent BPs over ___/___ on 2 occasions at least __-__ hours apart should receive anti-hypertensive meds

A

150/100

4-6 hours apart

203
Q

In Pre-E with BP over 160/110, anti-hypertensive meds should be started with ___ minutes

A

30

204
Q

LR fluid should be given to Pre-E patients @ __-__ mL/hr

A

SLOW 60-125

205
Q

__________ is a risk in Pre-E due to renal/HTN sequelae oliguria w/ severe pre-e.

A

ARDS and pulmonary edema

206
Q

In Preeclampsia w/o severe features and severe Pre-e: Sum of oral and IV fluid should be ≤ _____ ml/hr unless there are other clinical circumstances that dictate a different management plan

A

125

207
Q

Eclamptic seizure meds that are justified only in the context of antiepileptic treatment or when mag is contraindicated or unavailable.

A

Benzos and phenytoin

208
Q

Immediate Management of Eclamptic Seizure:

___-___ grams Mag over 15-20 min (loading dose)

A

4-6 grams

209
Q

If seizure continues despite Mag:

Give additional loading dose of ___ mg IV over 5 min

A

2 grams

210
Q

Second-line anti-seizure medications for uncontrolled eclamptic seizures

A

IV barbituates, Clonazepam, Diazepam, Midazolam or Lorazepam

211
Q
Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Most are asymptomatic
Anxiety
Palpitations
Atypical chest pain
Syncope
Dyspnea w/ exertion 
INCREASED risk of sudden death
Infective endocarditis
A

Mitral Valve Prolapse

212
Q

Mitral Valve Prolapse Antibiotics?

A

No longer recommended for dental work or childbirth

213
Q

If MVP patient develops infective endocarditis, give:

A

Pen G IV with Gentamycin x 2 weeks

214
Q

Increases risk for congenital complete AV block

A

Maternal Lupus

215
Q

Drugs. Alcohol, anticonvulsants, lithium, retinoic acid, thalidomide, warfarin, amphetamines increase risk of NB heart:

A

murmur

216
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ CHD:
PDA
Atrial Septic Defect
Ventricular Septal Defect (most common)
Pulmonary Stenosis
Aortic Stenosis
Coarctation of the Aorta
A

Acyanotic

217
Q

should be used to maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus once it is established that a ductal dependent lesion exists.

A

Prostaglandin E1

218
Q
Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Many asymptomatic
Frequent respiratory or lung infections
Difficulty breathing
Tiring when feeding (infants)
Shortness of breath when being active or exercising
Skipped heartbeats 
Palpitations
Heart murmur
Swelling of legs, feet, or stomach area
Stroke
A

Atrial Septal Defect

219
Q
Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Some Asymptomatic
Shortness of breath,
Fast or heavy breathing,
Sweating,
Tiredness while feeding, or
Poor weight gain.
Heart murmur
A

Ventral Septal Defect

220
Q

PDA normally functionally closes at ____-____

A

24-48 hours

221
Q

PDA patency is abnormal at ____-____

A

2-3 months

222
Q

PDA, VSD, ASD causes ____ to _____ shunting

A

left to right

223
Q

Symptoms of _______________:
Typically Asymptomatic
May report decrased exercise tolerance or pulmonary congestion in conjunction with a murmur.
3-6-week-old infants can present with:
Tachypnea
Diaphoresis
Inability or difficulty with feeding
Weight loss or no weight gain.
With a moderate-to-large left-to-right shunt may be associated with a hoarse cry, cough, lower respiratory tract infections, atelectasis, or pneumonia
With large defects, may have a history of feeding difficulties and poor growth during infancy, described as failure to thrive (FTT).
Frank symptoms of congestive heart failure (CHF) are rare.
Adults who go undiagnosed may present with s/s of heart failure, atrial arrhythmia, or even differential cyanosis limited to the lower extremities

A

PDA

224
Q

pumonary stenosis, aortic stenosis, and coarctation of the aorta cause ___________ obstruction

A

outflow