Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CCMA revisions > Mod 2: Med Terms/A&P (5%) > Flashcards

Mod 2: Med Terms/A&P (5%) Flashcards

1
Q

sx: cellulitis

A

skin swollen, red, and hot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

cause: cellulitis

A

bacteria (streptococcus/staphylococcus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

tx: cellulitis

A
  • rest area
  • cut away dead tissue
  • antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

sx: dermatitis

A
  • red itchy rash
  • blisters
  • oil scales
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cause: dermatitis

A

allergen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

dx: dermatitis

A

physical exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

tx: dermatitis

A
  • moisturizers
  • steroid creams
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

sx: ezcema

A
  • red, itchy skin
  • crusted blisters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

cause: ezcema

A

heredity and environmental factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

tx: ezcema

A
  • mild fragrance-free soap and moisturizers
  • steroid creams
  • antihistamines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

dx: ezcema

A

physical exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sx: basal cell carcinoma

A

waxy bump/skin sore not healing with within 2 months and continues to grow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

cause: basal cell carcinoma

A

damage to DNA of basal cells from Ultraviolet B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

dx: basal cell carcinoma

A

physical exam biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

tx: basal cell carcinoma

A
  • surgical excision
  • liquid nitrogen freezing
  • curettage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

sx: melanoma

A

mole with asymmetry, rough/irregular border, nonuniform color, and diameter > 1/4 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

cause: melanoma

A

excessive exposure to UVB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are sources of UVB?

A

sun and tanning beds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

dx: melanoma

A

physical exam and biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

tx: melanoma

A

surgery and radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

purpose of cytoplasm

A

suspend organelles & chemical reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

purpose of nucleolus

A

forms RNAs and ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

purpose of ribosomes

A

protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

purpose of centrioles

A

cell reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

purpose of lysosomes

A

digest waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

purpose of endoplasmic reticulum

A

transport materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

purpose of rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

synthesis and transport of proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

purpose of smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

synthesis of some lipid molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

purpose of Golgi Apparatus

A

pack & release materials/forms lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

list the purpose of the skin

A
  • protection
  • temp regulation
  • sensation
  • excretion
  • vitamin D production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

list the purpose of the sebaceous glands

A
  • keep skin and hair soft
  • kill bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

list the purpose of sudoriferous glands

A

produce sweat to cool the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

describe lymph nodes

A

home to macrophages & filter lymph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

define lymph nodules

A

lymphoid tissue masses of macrophages & lymphocytes and not encapsulated like nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

purpose of thymus

A

produce & mature T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the largest lymphoid organ

A

spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the home of macrophages and filters blood

A

spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

lymph is

A

insterstitial fluid collected and filtered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

aka: immunoglobulins

A

antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

define B-cells

A

lymphocyte that recognizes antigens and turns into plasma cells to create antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

define T cells

A

lymphocyte that kills infected cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

aka: monocytes

A

phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

if someone was sick and now has antibodies, what type of immunity is this

A

naturally acquired active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

if someone received a vaccine, what type of immunity is this

A

artificially acquired active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

if an infant received antibodies from placenta and breast milk, what type of immunity is this

A

naturally acquired passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

antibodies from blood products are what type of immunity

A

artificially acquired passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

aka: bicuspid valve

A

mitral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

this valve is between the right atrium and right ventricle

A

tricuspid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

this valve is in between the left atrium and left ventricle

A

bicuspid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

define the ALIMENTARY CANAL

A

primary organs of digestive system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how many pairs of cranial and spinal nerves are there

A

12 cranial & 31 spinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

purpose of cytoplasm in nervous system

A

produce neurotransmitters and energy for neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

describe the EPIDIDYMIS

A

superior to each testis and matures sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

purpose of VAS DEFERENS

A

connects epididymis to urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

purpose of SEMINAL VESICLES

A

secrete seminal fluids to stimulate muscle contractions in femal organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

describe PROSTATE GLAND

A

surrounds proximal urethra contracting during ejaculation to propel sperm and secrete fluid protecting sperm from vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

describe BULBOURETHRAL GLANDS

A

inferior to prostate that lubricates penis for sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

aka: bulbourethral glands

A

cowper’s glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

define TESTOSTERONE

A

most abundant and biologically active male sex hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

purpose of OVARIES

A

make ova, estrogen, and progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

define ESTRADIOL

A

most abundant and biologically active female sex hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

sx: sprain

A

painful swelling/bruising of joint area & decreased ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

dx: sprain

A

physical exam and imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

tx: sprain

A

RICE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

cause: osteoporosis

A

malnutrition, inadequate Ca intake/absorption, endocrine disorders, immobile/lack of exercise, aging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

dx: osteoporosis

A

bone density DEXA scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

tx: osteoarthritis

A

PT, exercise, steroid injections, joint replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

sx: osteoarthritis

A

pain w/joint movement, stiffness in joint during inactivity, lack of flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

dx: rheumatoid arthritis

A

physical exam, blood test, imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

tx: rheumatoid arthritis

A

PT, medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

sx: gout

A

red, hot swollen joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

dx: gout

A

joint aspiration & microscopic evaluation of crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

tx: gout

A

anti-inflammatory meds & dietary adjustments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

sx: muscular dystrophy

A

chronic & progressive muscle weakness, paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

cause of muscular dystrophy

A

inherited/spontaneous genetic mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

dx: muscular dystrophy

A

pt history, physical exam, muscle enzyme tests, electromyography, muscle biopsy, genetic testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

tx: muscular dystrophy

A

PT, ambulatory devices, meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

sx: myopathy

A

muscle weakness, cramps, stiffness, spasms, tetany

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

cause of myopathy

A

disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

tx: myopathy

A

tx of underlying cause, PT, meds, braces, surgery, massage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

cause of myalgia

A

injury, viral infection, overuse, meds/vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

tx: myalgia

A

tx underlying cause, massage, heat/cold, analgesics & muscle relaxants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

sx: repetitive stress disorder (RSD)

A

pain, tingling, numbness, swelling, loss of flexibility and muscle weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

cause of repetitive stress disorder

A

repetitive tasks, forceful exertion, vibration, mechanical compression, sustained uncomfortable positions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

dx: repetitive stress disorder

A

physical exam, pt history, imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

tx: repetitive stress disorder

A

anti-inflammatory, meds, rest, splinting, massage, surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

sx: shin splint

A

pain & swelling lower leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

dx: shin splint

A

physical exam & pt history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

cause of shin splints

A

repeated stress of tibia & connective tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

tx: shin splints

A

RICE & surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

sx: anemia

A

fatigue, dizziness, cold extremities, headache, irregular heartbeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

cause of anemia

A

blood loss, dysfunction creating hemoglobin, excessive destruction of RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

dx: anemia

A

blood test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

tx: anemia

A

tx cause, increase iron or vitamin K, blood transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

sx: atherosclerosis

A

chest pain, transient ischemic attacks (TIAs), peripheral artery disease, kidney disfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

dx: atherosclerosis

A

physical exam, pt history, blood test, doppler ultrasound, EKG, stress test, angiogram, CT/MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

tx: atherosclerosis

A

healthy diet, exercise, meds, angioplasty, stents, endarterectomy, bypass surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

sx: congestive heart failure

A

fatigue, peripheral edema, SOB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

cause CHF

A

coronary artery disease, high BP, cardiomyopathy, valvular disease, heart defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

dx: congestive heart failure

A

medical history, physical exam, blood test, EKG, echocardiogram, chest xray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

tx: CHF

A

weight loss, control BP, ACE inhibitors, beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

sx: hemophilia

A

excessive bleeding, frequent bruising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

cause of hemophilia

A

absence of clotting factors bc of genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

dx: hemophilia

A

family history, physical exam, blood tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

tx: hemophilia

A

replacement therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

sx: hypertension

A

high BP, headaches, irregular heart rhythms, vision changes, chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

cause of hypertension

A

genetics, smoking, obesity, stress, too much salt intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

dx hypertension

A

consistently high P over 2 or 3 office visits over course of 1-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

tx: hypertension

A

medications, weight management, healthy diet, stress reduction

110
Q

sx: myocardial infarction

A

acute chest pain, nausea, vomiting, heartburn, profuse sweating

111
Q

dx: MI

A

EKG & blood test

112
Q

tx: MI

A

fibrinolytic agents, diagnostic angiogram, stenting, bypass surgery

113
Q

sx: acute renal failure

A

decreased urine output, fluid retention, fatigue, SOB, confusion, nausea

114
Q

dx: acute renal failure

A

observation of urine output, blood test, urinalysis, imaging

115
Q

tx: acute renal failure

A

tx underlying cause, meds, hemodialysis

116
Q

sx: chronic renal failure

A

asymptomatic in early stages, high BP, geel generally ill & fatigue

117
Q

dx: chronic renal failure

A

blood test

118
Q

tx: chronic renal failure

A

control BP, hemodialysis

119
Q

sx: renal calculi

A

severe episodes of back & side pain, pain w/urination, dark/foul smelling urine, nausea, frequent urination, fever, chills

120
Q

dx: renal calculi

A

blood test, urine test, imagin

121
Q

tx: renal calculi

A

drink water, pain reliever, lithotripsy

122
Q

dx: urine incontinence

A

urinalysis, medical history, physical exam

123
Q

tx: urine incontinence

A

kegel & surgery

124
Q

sx: urinary tract infection

A

persistent urge to urinate, burning w/urination, strong smelling cloudy urine, pelvic or flank pain

125
Q

cause of UTI

A

infection gen caused by E coli

126
Q

dx: UTI

A

urinalysis, urine cultures, imaging

127
Q

tx: UTI

A

antibiotics

128
Q

sx: appendicitis

A

pain in RLQ, nausea, anorexia, vomiting, abdominal swelling, fever

129
Q

cause of appendicitis

A

blockage of appendix opening causing buildup up of bacteria

130
Q

dx: appendicitis

A

pt history, blood & urine tests, imaging

131
Q

tx appendicitis

A

appendectomy

132
Q

sx celiac disease

A

anemia, diarrhea, gas, bloating, weight loss, fatigue

133
Q

dx celiac disease

A

physical exam, med history, blood test, antibody test, endoscopy w/biopsy

134
Q

tx celiac disease

A

avoid gluten

135
Q

sx colorectal cancer

A

asymptomatic in early stages, fatigue, irregular bowel movements, blood in feces, cramps, bloating, weight loss

136
Q

risk factors for colorectal cancer include

A

high-fat diet, family history, IBD

137
Q

dx colorectal cancer

A

barium enema or colonoscopy

138
Q

tx colorectal cancer

A

surgical removal & chemotherapy

139
Q

sx diverticulosis

A

asymptomatic, pain in LLQ, fever, chills, nausea, vomiting

140
Q

cause of diverticulosis

A

high pressure pressing against weak areas of colon wall

141
Q

dx diverticulosis

A

colonoscopy

142
Q

tx diverticulosis

A

antibiotics

143
Q

sx GERD

A

heartburn, nausea after eating, difficulty swallowing

144
Q

cause of GERD

A

lower esophageal sphincter dysfunction

145
Q

dx GERD

A

upper endoscopy, test amount of acid in esophagus

146
Q

tx GERD

A

lifestyle/dietary changes, antacids, surgery

147
Q

sx acute respiratory distress (ARDS)

A

SOB, low BP, rapid breathing, sx gen after injury

148
Q

cause of ARDS

A

fluid buildup in alveoli blocking oxygen from passing into blood stream

149
Q

dx ARDS

A

arterial blood gas analysis, chest xray

150
Q

tx ARDS

A

O2 therapy, mechanical ventilation, antibiotics

151
Q

dx asthma

A

pulmonary function test

152
Q

sx bronchitis

A

SOB, fever, chills, fatigue, coughing, production of mucus

153
Q

dx bronchitis

A

physical exam, auscultation, chest xray, pulmonary function test

154
Q

sx chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

A

chest tightness, productive cough, wheezing, SOB w/activity

155
Q

define COPD

A

condition where airflow in and out of lungs blocked gen bc of a combo of emphysema and bronchitis

156
Q

dx COPD

A

pt history, pulmonary function test, chest xray, CT scan

157
Q

tx COPD

A

smoking cessation, meds, O2 therapy

158
Q

sx rhinitis

A

sneezing, coughing, runny nose, watering eyes, pressure in ears

159
Q

define rhinitis

A

irritation & inflammation of mucous membranes in nose along w/excessive production of mucus

160
Q

dx rhinitis

A

physical exam

161
Q

tx rhinitis

A

corticosteroids & antihistamines

162
Q

sx alzheimers

A

memory loss, imapired judgement/language, inability to perform activities of daily living, inability to reason, paranoia, agitation

163
Q

cause of alzheimers

A

brogressive destruction of brain cells

164
Q

sx cerebral concussion

A

distorted vision, headache, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light/noise, inability to concentrate

165
Q

cause of cerebral concussion

A

traumatic Brian injury

166
Q

tx cerebral concussion

A

observation and rest for 7-10 days

167
Q

sx sciatica

A

sharp/dull/burning pain radiating from lumbar spine to butt and down back of legs

168
Q

cause of sciatica

A

generally herniated disk, bone spur, tumor

169
Q

tx sciatica

A

muscle relaxants, anti-inflammatories, PT, corticosteroids

170
Q

dx sciatica

A

test muscle strength & reflexes, imaging

171
Q

sx CVA

A

facial muscle weakness, arm droop, speech abnormalities, others dependent on location in brain

172
Q

cause of stroke

A

decrease in blood supply to brain or rupture of blood vessel

173
Q

dx stroke

A

Neuro exam, CT/MRI scan, Doppler ultrasound, arteriography

174
Q

sx shingles

A

blisters and pain on skin in band like pattern following path of nerves

175
Q

tx shingles

A

antivirals & analgesics

176
Q

cause of Cushing syndroms

A

overuse of oral corticosteroids, hypersecretion of glucocorticoids

177
Q

tx cushings

A

meds to lower glucocortcoids

178
Q

define type 1 diabetes mellitus

A

lack of insulin production

179
Q

define type 2 diabetes mellitus

A

insulin resistance

180
Q

sx hyperthyroidism

A

sudden weight loss, rapid heartbeat, increased appetite, anxiety, tremor, sweating, frequent bowel movements, enlarged thyroid gland

181
Q

dx hyperthyroidism

A

physical exam, blood test, radioactive iodine uptake test, thyroid scan

182
Q

tx hyperthyroidism

A

antithyroid medications, oral radioactive iodine

183
Q

sx hypothyroidism

A

increasing tiredness, dry skin, constipation, weight gain

184
Q

tx hypothyroidism

A

synthetic hormone levothyroxine

185
Q

sx graves disease

A

goiiter, increased heartbeat, muscle weakness, disturbed sleep, tremor, weight loss, anxiety, irritability, bulging eyes

186
Q

tx graves disease

A

radioactive iodine therapy, antithyroid medications, beta blockers, surgery

187
Q

sx candidiasis

A

vaginal itching, burning w/urination, white vaginal discharge

188
Q

dx candidiasis

A

vaginal discharge

189
Q

sx ectopic pregnancy

A

abdominal/pelvic pain with light bleeding, severe pain and bleeding

190
Q

dx ectopic pregnancy

A

physical exam, blood test, ultrasound

191
Q

sx genital herpes

A

pain, itching, sores in genital area, flu-like sx

192
Q

dx genital herpes

A

physical exam, testing of sores

193
Q

which disease is indicated if a pt presented w/a waxy bump on the skin that has been growing for 4 months

A

basal cell carcinoma

194
Q

Abd stands for

195
Q

ABGs stand for

A

arterial blood gases

196
Q

a.c. stands for

A

before meals

197
Q

ACLS stands for

A

advance cardiac life support

198
Q

Ad lib stands for

A

as desired

199
Q

AKA stands for

A

above the knee amputation

200
Q

AMA stands for

A

against medical advice

201
Q

ASA stands for

202
Q

BE stands for

A

barium enema

203
Q

BKA stands for

A

below the knee amputation

204
Q

BM stands for

A

bowel movement

205
Q

C&S stands for

A

culture & sensitivity

206
Q

C stands for

207
Q

Ca stands for

A

calcium or cancer

208
Q

CABG stands for

A

coronary artery bypass graft

209
Q

CAD stands for

A

coronary artery disease

210
Q

CP stands for

A

chest pain

211
Q

cm stands for

A

centimeter

212
Q

c/o stands for

A

complains of

213
Q

Csf stands for

A

cerebrospinal fluid

214
Q

BRP stands for

A

bathroom priviliges

215
Q

BSA stands for

A

body surface area

216
Q

BUN stands for

A

blood urea nitrogen

217
Q

Bx stands for

218
Q

D/C or dc stands for

A

discontinue or discharge

219
Q

DM stands for

A

diabetes mellitus

220
Q

DTAP stands for

A

diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccine

221
Q

F stands for

222
Q

FBS or FBG stands for

A

fasting blood sugar/glucose

223
Q

f/u stands for

224
Q

FUO stands for

A

fever of unknown origin

225
Q

Fx stands for

226
Q

GTT stands for

A

glucose tolerance test

227
Q

gtt stands for

228
Q

GU stands for

A

genitourinary

229
Q

H or hr stands for

230
Q

Hct stands for

A

hematocrit

231
Q

HG stands for

A

heart failure

232
Q

HEENT stands for

A

head, ears, eyes, nose, and throat

233
Q

Hgb stands for

A

hemoglobin

234
Q

NB stands for

235
Q

NG stands for

A

nasogastric

236
Q

NKA/NKDA stands for

A

no known allergies/no known drug allergies

237
Q

NS stands for

A

normal saline

238
Q

OC stands for

A

oral contraceptive

239
Q

OOB stands for

A

out of bed

240
Q

OP stands for

A

outpatient

241
Q

PA stands for

A

posteroanterior, physician assistant

242
Q

p.c. stands for

A

after meals

243
Q

PE stands for

A

physical exam, pulmonary embolism

244
Q

R stands for

245
Q

RA stands for

A

rheumatoid arthritis

246
Q

RLE stands for

A

right lower extremity

247
Q

N/V stands for

A

nausea/vomiting

248
Q

RLL stands for

A

right lower lobe

249
Q

R/O stands for

250
Q

RUE stands for

A

right upper extremetiy

251
Q

s with a line above it stands for

252
Q

T&A stands for

A

tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy

253
Q

TIA stands for

A

transient ischemic attack

254
Q

VS stands for

A

vital signs

255
Q

WNL stands for

A

within normal limits

256
Q

YO or y/o stands for

257
Q

define DEXTRAD

A

toward the right

258
Q

define SINISTRAD

A

toward the left

259
Q

list out Erikson’s stages of development

A
  • trust v mistrust
  • autonomy v doubt
  • initiative v guilt
  • industry v inferiority
  • identity v role confusion
  • intimacy v isolation
  • generativity v stagnation
  • ego integrity v despair
260
Q

define the defense mechanism CONVERSION

A

transform anxiety into physical sx with no cause

261
Q

define the defense mechanism of DISPLACEMENT

A

redirection of emotions away from original subject/object onto another less-threatening subject/object

262
Q

define the defense mechanism of IDENTIFICATION

A

attribution of characteristics of someone else to oneself or the imitation of another

263
Q

define the defense mechanism of INTELLECTUALIZATION

A

analysis of situation w/facts and not emotions

264
Q

define the defense mechanism of INTROJECTION

A

adoption of thoughts/feelings of others

265
Q

define the defense mechanism of PROJECTION

A

transference of person’s unpleasant ideas & emotions onto someone/something else

266
Q

define the defense mechanism RATIONALIZATION

A

explanation that makes something negative/unacceptable seem justifiable

267
Q

define the defense mechanism REACTION FORMATION

A

belief in and expression of opposite of one’s true feelings

268
Q

define the defense mechanism SUBLIMATION

A

rechanneling unacceptable urges/drives into something constructive or acceptable

269
Q

what is the difference between suppression and repression

A

suppression is conscious and voluntary while repression in unconsciously blocking from memory

270
Q

define the defense mechanism UNDOING

A

cancelling out an unacceptable behavior w/a symbolic gesture

CCMA revisions (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions