Mock Exam Part 1, #1-15 Reviewer Flashcards

1
Q

primary indication for temporary transcutaneous pacing

A

bradycardia with hemodynamic compromise
until a more definitive pacing method can be established

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2
Q

indication for temporary transvenous pacemaker placement (not transcutaneous)

A

asystole
overdrive pacing in unresponsive VTach
Unresponsive recurrent sinus pauses (>3 s)

alternating bundle branch block
consider in RBBB with anterior or posterior hemiblock

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3
Q

when performing synchronized cardioversion, at which phase of the QRS complex should the shock be delivered?

A

on the R wave
“peak of the QRS complex”, “highest point of the R-wave”

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4
Q

synchronized cardioversion for atrial flutter

A

may require as little as 25-50 J

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5
Q

synchronized cardioversion for atrial fibrillation

A

150-200 J
(or 120-200 J)

A fib is narrow-complex, irregular.
But if narrow-complex, regular (SVT): 50-100 J

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6
Q

MOA of adenosine

A

inhibition of the conduction through the AV node, interrupting the reentry circuit responsible for SVT

6 mg - 12 mg - 12 mg

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7
Q

other drugs that block AV nodal conduction

A

verapamil, diltiazem
esmolol, metoprolol, propranolol
(table 18-2)

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8
Q

antiarrhythmic of choice for the stable wide-complex tachycardia

A

procainamide

if unstable –> electrical cardioversion, start at 100 J

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9
Q

preferred acute pain management for the patient with severe abdominal pain due to suspected kidney stones

A

ketorolac
“Agents such as NSAIDs should be considered for mild to moderate pain or when targeting severe pain originating from smooth muscle spasm such as renal or biliary colic

In specific instances such as renal and biliary colic, although parenteral NSAIDs may control severe pain, combination therapy with an opioid is usually superior.

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10
Q

before administering procedural sedation, what is the most important aspect to assess in the patient

A

allergies to medications

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11
Q

TRUE or FALSE
don’t give propofol in those with soy allergies

A

FALSE
“Propofol’s only TRUE immunologic contraindication is an allergy to the drug itself.”

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12
Q

A pediatric patient requires procedural sedation. What medicaiton is preferred for procedural sedation in children due to its safety profile and rapid onset

A

ketamine
- also the combination of anesthesia, analgesia, and amnesia is suitable for kids

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13
Q

almost universally preferred anxiolytic for minor procedures in children

A

midazolam, because of its rapid onset and short duration of action

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14
Q

sedative that can cause hallucinations and dissociation

A

ketamine
- derivative of the drug phencyclidine and is an NMDA glutamate receptor antagonist

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15
Q

critical dosing threshold of ketamine, above which characteristic dissociative state appears

A

1.0 to 1.5 mg/kg IV
or 3 to 4 mg/kg IM
no observable increased levels of depth beyond threshold, just increased duration of dissociative state

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16
Q

recommended immediate treatment for individuals exposed to a nerve agent in a chemica lwarfare incident

A

administer atropine and pralidoxime
nerve agents are organophosphates
never give succinylcholine

17
Q

type of chemical warfare agent primarily affecting the skin and mucous membranes, causing blistering and tissue damage

A

vesicants
also known as blister agents
examples: sulfur mustard, phosgene oxime, lewisite

18
Q

treatment for vesicant exposure

A

irrigate with water, supportive care

19
Q

vesicant that can cause bone marrow supression

A

mustard agents

20
Q

agents that interfere with O2 utilization in mitochondria

A

cyanide
hydrogen sulfide
phosphine
sodium azide
carbon monoxide

treatment: hydroxocobalamin

(table 8-4)

21
Q

agents that interrupt delivery of oxygen to tissues

A

carbon monoxide
methylene chloride
nitrites
benzocaine
phenazopyridine

treatment: O2, methylene blue

(table 8-4)

22
Q

examples of simple asphyxiants

A

carbon monoxide
hydrogen
nitrogen
butane
propane

asphyxiants displace O2 from the air

treatment: remove from source, give O2

(table 8-4)

23
Q

what is sarin?

A

a nerve agent
= sarin is aka “GB”
= an organophosphate

24
Q

may be seen in the recovery phase of trauma

A

trauma (also seen in acute phase)
communicable disease
soft tissue infections
vectorborne disease
infectious complications of trauma (also seen in immediate postevent phase)
exacerbation of chronic disease (also seen in immediate postevent phase)
PTSD

(table 6-1)

25
Q

the only natural disaster where more injury and death occur during the recovery phase than in the acute phase

A

hurricanes

26
Q

type of blast injury that results from the patient being propelled through the air and striking stationary objects

A

Tertiary blast injury
“Flying Tao”

27
Q

blast injury due to collateral damage from flying objects

A

Secondary blast injury
“Flying Shrapnels”

28
Q

most common fatal primary blast injury

A

pulmonary barotrauma

primary blast injuries most commonly affect gas-filled structures, such as lungs, stomach, middle-ear

29
Q

most common serious complication of crush syndrome

A

renal failure
cause is multifactorial:
- systemic hypoperfusion
- renal vasoconstriction
- nephrotoxicity from myoglobin (via formation of ferriheximate, free hydroxyl radicals)
- uric acid and phosphate precipitation in the distal tubules

30
Q

primary cause of delayed death in compartment syndrome

A

renal failure

31
Q

fluid hydration in compartment syndrome

A

PNSS 1000 mL/hour for 2 hours,
then 500cc/hour thereafter
to maintain UO 200-300 mL/hour (5-7 L every 24 hours