Mock 2 Incorrect Flashcards
49-year-old man has 1 day of severe epigastric pain. He has vomited five times.
He smokes 13 cigarettes per day and drinks 37 units of alcohol per week. His
temperature is 37.8°C, pulse rate 89 bpm and BP 145/86 mmHg. He is tender in the
epigastrium and right upper quadrant, and there is voluntary guarding.
acute cholecystitis
bilirubin would be much higher with cholangitis apparently
oral MST to subcut
Dose of morphine sulfate SC in 24 hours = 0.5 x
Total Morphine sulfate oral dose in 24 hours
lower back pain advice
Justification for correct answer(s): Short duration acute low back pain in fit person.
Therefore, most appropriate response would be to continue usual activity and to
provide appropriate safety netting advice. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries - back
pain.
severe abdo pain, ): History of vascular disease and lactic acidosis
mesenteric ischaemia
PE but recent bleeding history or high bleeding risk
instead of LMWH, IV heparin as more easily reversed
calculating lifetime risk
%per year multiplied by av remaining life expectancy
alteration of BP controlling drugs following creatinine rise
Justification for correct answer(s): The patient has had a <30% increase in serum creatinine. At this level there is no indication to change treatment, repeat of renal function in 2-4 weeks is reasonable.
ANY drug not just ACEx
Joint aspiration: no organisms on Gram stain, white cell count 1747/µL (<200),
mostly neutrophils, no crystals. She is advised to take oral paracetamol.
with fever and joint pain and hx of RA
DO NOT assume not septic as half get no culture
The patient should be considered to have septic
arthritis. The patient is septic and is immunocompromised. The gram stain is positive
in about 50% of cases, so a negative gram stain does not mean there is no infection.
Intravenous antibiotics should be started pending culture results.
glucagon side effecs
(nausea and flushing)
pioglitazone
Pioglitazone is contraindicated in heart failure, bladder cancer and can cause fractures.
CKD and T2DM drugs
after metformin and gliclazide
Sitagliptin approved for use in CKD. Dulaglutide is
sc injection. Empagliflozin currently not licensed for CKD.
acarbose
bad GI side effects
42-52 Hba1c
Diabetes Prevention Programme
diagnosiing DIC
Justification for correct answer(s): Diagnosis of DIC is based on presence of ≥1
known underlying condition causing DIC plus abnormal global coagulation tests:
decreased platelet count, increased prothrombin time, elevated fibrin-related marker
(D-dimer/fibrin degradation products) and decreased fibrinogen level. In this patient
the underlying condition triggering DIC is sepsis and it is likely that further blood
tests would show abnormalities in the above markers
unilateral sensineural loss
Justification for correct answer(s): Where there is a unilateral sensorineural hearing
loss, it is vital to exclude the presence of a vestibular schwannoma or other neoplasm
of VIII nerve or brainstem. This is done via an MRI scan.