MOA

Question 1

Doxazosin

Answer 1

Selectively inhibits the alpha(1)-subtype of alpha adrenergic receptors, and binds highly to alpha(1A) adrenoceptor reducing total peripheral resistance via arterial and venous dilation.

Question 2

Terazosin

Answer 2

Selectively inhibits the alpha(1)-subtype of alpha adrenergic receptors, and binds highly to alpha(1A) adrenoceptor reducing total peripheral resistance via arterial and venous dilation.

Question 3

Clonidine

Answer 3

Stimulates postsynaptic alpha-2 adrenergic receptors in the central nervous system by activating inhibitory neurons to decrease sympathetic outflow, reducing peripheral vascular resistance, renal vascular resistance, heart rate, and blood pressure

Question 4

Irbesartan

Answer 4

Blocks the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone-secreting effects of angiotensin II by selectively blocking the binding of angiotensin II to the AT1 receptor subtype in many tissues (eg, vascular smooth muscle, adrenal gland).

Question 5

Losartan

Answer 5

Blocks the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone-secreting effects of angiotensin II by selectively blocking the binding of angiotensin II to the AT1 receptor subtype in many tissues (eg, vascular smooth muscle, adrenal gland).

Question 6

Valsartan

Answer 6

Blocks the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone-secreting effects of angiotensin II by selectively blocking the binding of angiotensin II to the AT1 receptor subtype in many tissues (eg, vascular smooth muscle, adrenal gland).

Question 7

Benazepril

Answer 7

Prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. Decreased angiotensin II leads to decreased vasopressor activity and decreased aldosterone secretion

Question 8

Enalapril

Answer 8

Prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. Decreased angiotensin II leads to decreased vasopressor activity and decreased aldosterone secretion

Question 9

Lisinopril

Answer 9

Prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. Decreased angiotensin II leads to decreased vasopressor activity and decreased aldosterone secretion

Question 10

Quinapril

Answer 10

Prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. Decreased angiotensin II leads to decreased vasopressor activity and decreased aldosterone secretion

Question 11

Ramipril

Answer 11

Prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. Decreased angiotensin II leads to decreased vasopressor activity and decreased aldosterone secretion

Question 12

Carvedilol

Answer 12

Nonselective beta-adrenergic blocking agent with alpha 1-adrenergic blocking activity and no intrinsic sympathomimetic activity

Question 13

Atenolol

Answer 13

Selectively blocks beta-1 adrenoreceptors located mainly in cardiac muscles, decreasing the effects of endogenous catecholamines

Question 14

Metoprolol

Answer 14

Selectively blocks beta-1 adrenoreceptors located mainly in cardiac muscles, decreasing the effects of endogenous catecholamines

Question 15

Nebivolol

Answer 15

Selectively blocks beta-1 adrenoreceptors located mainly in cardiac muscles, decreasing the effects of endogenous catecholamines

Question 16

Propranolol

Answer 16

Nonselective beta-blocker that reduces chronotropic, inotropic and vasodilator responses to beta-adrenergic stimulation by competing for available binding sites that stimulate the beta-adrenergic receptorsb

Question 17

Amlodipine

Answer 17

Blocks the transmembrane influx of calcium ions into cardiac and vascular smooth muscles. It also reduces peripheral vascular resistance and lowers blood pressure by causing a direct vasodilation in the peripheral arteries of the vascular smooth muscle.

Question 18

Nifedipine

Answer 18

Blocks the transmembrane influx of calcium ions into cardiac and vascular smooth muscles. It also reduces peripheral vascular resistance and lowers blood pressure by causing a direct vasodilation in the peripheral arteries of the vascular smooth muscle.

Question 19

Diltiazem

Answer 19

Blocks calcium ion influx during depolarization of cardiac and vascular smooth muscle. It decreases peripheral vascular resistance and causes relaxation of the vascular smooth muscle resulting in a decrease of both systolic and diastolic blood pressure

Question 20

Verapamil

Answer 20

Blocks calcium ion influx during depolarization of cardiac and vascular smooth muscle. It decreases peripheral vascular resistance and causes relaxation of the vascular smooth muscle resulting in a decrease of both systolic and diastolic blood pressure

Question 21

Digoxin

Answer 21

Inhibits sodium-potassium ATPase, which increases intracellular sodium concentration leading to increased intracellular calcium concentration

Question 22

Furosemide

Answer 22

Inhibits reabsorption of sodium and cloride in the ascending loop of Henle and proximal and distal renal tubules.

Question 23

Spironolactone

Answer 23

Inhibits aldosterone effects by competing with aldosterone for intracellular mineralocorticoid receptors - clinically manifested as a natriuresis and potassium retaining action

Question 24

Hydrochlorothiazide

Answer 24

Inhibits reabsorption of sodium in the distal convoluted renal tubule

Question 25

Hydralazine

Answer 25

Exhibits a peripheral-vasodilating effect through a direct relaxation of vascular smooth muscle

Question 26

Atorvastatin

Answer 26

Selectively and competitively inhibits HMG-CoA reductase, a rate-limiting enzyme that converts 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A to mevalonate, a sterol and cholesterol precursor

Question 27

Lovastatin

Answer 27

Selectively and competitively inhibits HMG-CoA reductase, a rate-limiting enzyme that converts 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A to mevalonate, a sterol and cholesterol precursor

Question 28

Pravastatin

Answer 28

Selectively and competitively inhibits HMG-CoA reductase, a rate-limiting enzyme that converts 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A to mevalonate, a sterol and cholesterol precursor

Question 29

Rosuvastatin

Answer 29

Selectively and competitively inhibits HMG-CoA reductase, a rate-limiting enzyme that converts 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A to mevalonate, a sterol and cholesterol precursor

Question 30

Simvastatin

Answer 30

Selectively and competitively inhibits HMG-CoA reductase, a rate-limiting enzyme that converts 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A to mevalonate, a sterol and cholesterol precursor

Question 31

Ezetimibe

Answer 31

Acts at the brush border of the small intestine to inhibit the absorption of cholesterol, leading to a decrease in the delivery of intestinal cholesterol to the liver

Question 32

Fenofibrate

Answer 32

Stimulates peroxisome proliferator activated receptor alpha, which causes a decrease in triglyceride levels and an increase in high-density lipoprotein levels, with a modest decrease in low-density lipoprotein

Question 33

Gemfibrozil

Answer 33

Stimulates peroxisome proliferator activated receptor alpha, which causes a decrease in triglyceride levels and an increase in high-density lipoprotein levels, with a modest decrease in low-density lipoprotein

Question 34

Ketoconazole

Answer 34

Damages the fungal cell wall and alters the cell wall permeability by inhibiting the biosynthesis of sterols

Question 35

Nystatin

Answer 35

Damages the fungal cell wall and alters the cell wall permeability by inhibiting the biosynthesis of sterols

Question 36

Meclizine

Answer 36

Blocks the interaction of histamine with central and peripheral H1 receptors

Question 37

Promethazine

Answer 37

Blocks the interaction of histamine with central and peripheral H1 receptors

Question 38

Cetirizine

Answer 38

Prevents allergic response by inhibiting the interaction of histamine with peripheral H1 receptors

Question 39

Loratadine

Answer 39

Prevents allergic response by inhibiting the interaction of histamine with peripheral H1 receptors

Question 40

Olopatadine

Answer 40

Inhibits the release of histamine from mast cells and blocks the effects of histamine on H1 conjunctival epithelial cells

Question 41

Famotidine

Answer 41

Inhibits gastric acid secretion by blocking the action of histamine at the H2-receptors on the gastric cells

Question 42

Ranitidine

Answer 42

Inhibits gastric acid secretion by blocking the action of histamine at the H2-receptors on the gastric cells

Question 43

Lansoprazole

Answer 43

Blocks the final step of gastric acid production by inhibiting the hydrogen/potassium-ATPase enzyme system at the secretory surface of gastric parietal cells

Question 44

Omeprazole

Answer 44

Blocks the final step of gastric acid production by inhibiting the hydrogen/potassium-ATPase enzyme system at the secretory surface of gastric parietal cells

Question 45

Diclofenac

Answer 45

Nonselective inhibitor of cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) and COX-2, resulting in decreased formation of prostaglandin precursors

Question 46

Ibuprofen

Answer 46

Nonselective inhibitor of cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) and COX-2, resulting in decreased formation of prostaglandin precursors

Question 47

Meloxicam

Answer 47

Nonselective inhibitor of cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) and COX-2, resulting in decreased formation of prostaglandin precursors

Question 48

Naproxen

Answer 48

Nonselective inhibitor of cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) and COX-2, resulting in decreased formation of prostaglandin precursors

Question 49

Potassium

Answer 49

Electrolyte required for the maintenance of the excitatory properties of neuromuscular tissues

Question 50

Vitamin D

Answer 50

Metabolized to the active form (1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D) to stimulate calcium and phosphate absorption from the small intestine

Question 51

Folic Acid

Answer 51

Prevents macrocytic anemia by assisting in the conversion of deoxyuridylate to thymidylate, a rate-limiting step in DNA synthesis

Question 52

Clopidogrel

Answer 52

Metabolized to an active metabolite that binds to the P2Y12 component of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptors on platelets. This binding prevents activation of the ADP-mediated glycoprotein GPIIb/IIIa complex, preventing platelet aggregation

Question 53

Ticagrelor

Answer 53

Metabolized to an active metabolite that binds to the P2Y12 component of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptors on platelets. This binding prevents activation of the ADP-mediated glycoprotein GPIIb/IIIa complex, preventing platelet aggregation

Question 54

Dabigatran

Answer 54

Prevents the development of a thrombus by competitively and reversibly inhibiting free and fibrin-bound thrombin; thrombin inhibition prevents the conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin

Question 55

Rivaroxaban

Answer 55

Selectively and reversibly blocks the active site of factor Xa, inhibiting platelet activation and fibrin clot formation

Question 56

Enoxaparin

Answer 56

Low-molecular-weight heparin with antifactor Xa and IIa properties, reducing thrombin generation

Question 57

Warfarin

Answer 57

Prevents the conversion of vitamin k to its active form (vitamin k epoxide) and impairs the formation of vitamin k-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and proteins C and S

Question 58

Nitroglycerin

Answer 58

Converted to nitric oxide by vascular endothelium, which activates guanylate cyclase, increases cyclic GMP, decreases intracellular calcium, resulting in direct relaxation of vascular smooth muscle. Nitric oxide produces a vasodilator effect on peripheral veins and arteries (more prominent effects on the veins) as well as coronary arteries.

Question 59

Oseltamivir

Answer 59

In its active form, inhibits influenza virus neuraminidase which affects viral particle release

Question 60

Benzonatate

Answer 60

Reduces the cough reflex by anesthetizing stretch receptors in the respiratory passages

Question 61

Guaifenesin

Answer 61

Increases the volume and reduces the viscosity of secretions in the trachea and bronchi

Question 62

Albuterol

Answer 62

Selectively acts on the beta 2-adrenergic receptors of intracellular adenyl cyclase, resulting in bronchial smooth muscle relaxation

Question 63

Levalbuterol

Answer 63

Selectively acts on the beta 2-adrenergic receptors of intracellular adenyl cyclase, resulting in bronchial smooth muscle relaxation

Question 64

Budesonide

Answer 64

Decreased formation, release, and activity of the mediators of inflammation

Question 65

Fluticasone

Answer 65

Decreased formation, release, and activity of the mediators of inflammation

Question 66

Mometasone

Answer 66

Decreased formation, release, and activity of the mediators of inflammation

Question 67

Methylprednisolone

Answer 67

Decreased formation, release, and activity of the mediators of inflammation

Question 68

Prednisone

Answer 68

Decreased formation, release, and activity of the mediators of inflammation

Question 69

Budesonide + Formoterol

Answer 69

Decreased formation, release, and activity of the mediators of inflammation AND selectively acts on the beta 2-adrenergic receptors of intracellular adenyl cyclase, resulting in bronchial smooth muscle relaxation

Question 70

Fluticasone + Salmeterol

Answer 70

Decreased formation, release, and activity of the mediators of inflammation AND selectively acts on the beta 2-adrenergic receptors of intracellular adenyl cyclase, resulting in bronchial smooth muscle relaxation

Question 71

Montelukast

Answer 71

Binds to cysteinyl leukotrienes (CysLT) type-1 receptors found in human airway (smooth muscle cells and macrophages), which prevents airway edema, smooth muscle contraction and other respiratory inflammation

Question 72

Tiotropium

Answer 72

Long-acting antimuscarinic agent that inhibits M3 receptors of the bronchial smooth muscle, resulting in bronchodilation

Question 73

Solifenacin

Answer 73

A competitive muscarinic receptor antagonist, has a high binding affinity for the cholinergic muscarinic receptors that mediate contraction of the urinary bladder and salivation

Question 74

Tolterodine

Answer 74

A competitive muscarinic receptor antagonist, has a high binding affinity for the cholinergic muscarinic receptors that mediate contraction of the urinary bladder and salivation

Question 75

Tamsulosin

Answer 75

Selectively blocks postsynaptic α1-adrenergic receptors. Total peripheral resistance is reduced through arterial and venous dilations

Question 76

Sildenafil

Answer 76

Inhibits phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5), thereby increasing the amount of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (GMP) enhancing, erectile function and pulmonary vasculature relaxation

Question 77

Tadalafil

Answer 77

Inhibits phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5), thereby increasing the amount of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (GMP) enhancing, erectile function and pulmonary vasculature relaxation

Question 78

Vardenafil

Answer 78

Inhibits phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5), thereby increasing the amount of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (GMP) enhancing, erectile function and pulmonary vasculature relaxation

Question 79

Oxybutynin

Answer 79

Competitively antagonizes muscarinic receptors, reducing contractions of the urinary bladder smooth muscle

Question 80

Clobetasol

Answer 80

Anti-inflammatory, antipruritic, and vasoconstrictive properties by the induction of phospholipase A2-inhibitory proteins, lipocortins

Question 81

Triamcinolone

Answer 81

Anti-inflammatory, antipruritic, and vasoconstrictive properties by the induction of phospholipase A2-inhibitory proteins, lipocortins

Question 82

Alendronate

Answer 82

Binds to bone hydroxyapatite, and at the cellular level, inhibits osteoclast activity, thereby inhibiting bone resorption and modulating bone metabolism

Question 83

Risedronate

Answer 83

Binds to bone hydroxyapatite, and at the cellular level, inhibits osteoclast activity, thereby inhibiting bone resorption and modulating bone metabolism

Question 84

Levothyroxine

Answer 84

Synthetic thyroid hormone, mimics actions of endogenous thyroid hormones, T3 and T4, by diffusing into the cell nucleus and binding to thyroid receptor proteins attached to DNA

Question 85

Metformin

Answer 85

Reduces hepatic glucose production and enhances glucose utilization by muscle

Question 86

Saxagliptin

Answer 86

Inhibits the degradation of incretin hormones by DPP-4, and enhances the function of GLP-1 and GIP to increase insulin release and decrease glucagon levels in the circulation in a glucose-dependent manner

Question 87

Sitagliptin

Answer 87

Inhibits the degradation of incretin hormones by DPP-4, and enhances the function of GLP-1 and GIP to increase insulin release and decrease glucagon levels in the circulation in a glucose-dependent manner

Question 88

Pioglitazone

Answer 88

Potent agonist of peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-γ (PPAR-γ) used to improve insulin sensitivity

Question 89

Glimepiride

Answer 89

Enhances insulin secretion from pancreatic β-cells and potentiates insulin action on several extrahepatic tissues

Question 90

Exenatide

Answer 90

An agonist of human glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor, thereby augmenting glucose-dependent insulin secretion and slowing gastric emptying

Question 91

Liraglutide

Answer 91

An agonist of human glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor, thereby augmenting glucose-dependent insulin secretion and slowing gastric emptying

Question 92

Insulin Detemir

Answer 92

Promotes cellular uptake of glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids, and their conversion to glycogen, triglycerides, and proteins

Question 93

Insulin Glargine

Answer 93

Promotes cellular uptake of glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids, and their conversion to glycogen, triglycerides, and proteins

Question 94

Insulin Aspart

Answer 94

Promotes cellular uptake of glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids, and their conversion to glycogen, triglycerides, and proteins

Question 95

Insulin Lispro

Answer 95

Promotes cellular uptake of glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids, and their conversion to glycogen, triglycerides, and proteins

Question 96

Celecoxib

Answer 96

Selective inhibition of the COX-2 enzyme isoform is thought to be responsible for the anti-inflammatory effects

Question 97

Nabumetone

Answer 97

A nonselective inhibitor of cyclo-oxygenase-1 (COX-1) and cyclo-oxygenase-2 (COX-2), resulting in decreased formation of prostaglandin precursors

Question 98

Azithromycin

Answer 98

Binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit, thus interfering with microbial protein synthesis

Question 99

Clarithromycin

Answer 99

Binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit, thus interfering with microbial protein synthesis

Question 100

Penicillin

Answer 100

Works interfering with late stages of bacterial cell wall synthesis

Question 101

Minocycline

Answer 101

Inhibits protein synthesis at the 30S ribosomal subunit.

Question 102

Metronidazole

Answer 102

Causes a loss of helical DNA structure and strand breakage, resulting in the inhibition of protein synthesis and cell death

Question 103

Fluconazole

Answer 103

Inhibits biosynthesis of ergosterol or other sterols, damaging the fungal cell wall membrane and altering its permeability

Question 104

Baclofen

Answer 104

Inhibits the transmission of both monosynaptic and polysynaptic reflexes at the spinal cord level, possibly by hyperpolarization of primary afferent fiber terminals, with resultant relief of muscle spasticity

Question 105

Cyclobenzaprine

Answer 105

Centrally-acting skeletal muscle relaxant, reduces tonic somatic motor activity influencing both alpha and gamma motor neurons

Question 106

Methocarbamol

Answer 106

Causes skeletal muscle relaxation by general CNS depression

Question 107

Donepezil

Answer 107

Reversible inhibitor of cholinesterase, an enzyme that causes hydrolysis of acetylcholine. Thereby, causes an increases of acetylcholine in the CNS

Question 108

Tizanidine

Answer 108

Centrally acting muscle relaxant that is an alpha2-adrenergic agonist agent which decreases spasticity by increasing presynaptic inhibition

Question 109

Acetaminophen

Answer 109

Analgesia MOA not fully elucidated though may activate descending serotonergic inhibitory pathways in the CNS; other nociceptive systems may be involved. Antipyretic MOA: inhibits hypothalmic heat-regulating center.

Question 110

Oxycodone

Answer 110

Mu opioid receptor agonist

Question 111

Fentanyl

Answer 111

Mu opioid receptor agonist

Question 112

Morphine

Answer 112

Mu opioid receptor agonist

Question 113

Tramadol

Answer 113

Mu opioid receptor agonist and weak inhibitor of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake

Question 114

Methadone

Answer 114

Mu opioid receptor agonist and N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist

Question 115

Codeine / Acetaminophen

Answer 115

“Acetaminophen: activation of descending serotonergic inhibitory pathways in the CNS
Codeine: mu opioid receptor agonist “

Question 116

Oxycodone/APAP

Answer 116

“Acetaminophen: activation of descending serotonergic inhibitory pathways in the CNS
Oxycodone: mu opioid receptor agonist “

Question 117

Buprenorphine + Naloxone

Answer 117

“Buprenorphine: mu opioid receptor partial agonist and weak kappa opioid receptor antagonist
Naloxone: mu opioid receptor antagonist “

Question 118

Gabapentin

Answer 118

Structurally related to gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) but does not bind to GABA receptors. Binds to gabapentin binding sites that correspond to voltage-gated calcium channels that modulate the release of excitatory neurotransmitters

Question 119

Lamotrigine

Answer 119

Inhibits voltage-sensitive sodium channels thus reducing release of excitatory neurotransmitters such as glutamate. Also has weak inhibitory effect on the 5-HT3 receptor

Question 120

Levetiracetam

Answer 120

Precise mechanism unclear. May involve inhibition of voltage-dependent N-type calcium channels, facilitation of GABA-ergic inhibitory transmission

Question 121

Divalproex

Answer 121

Increases GABA levels by inhibiting its metabolism or enhancing its activity. Also blocks voltage-dependent sodium channels, which results in suppression of high-frequency repetitive neuronal firing

Question 122

Phenytoin

Answer 122

Increases efflux or decreases influx of sodium ions across cell membranes in the motor cortex during generation of nerve impulses; prolongs effective refractory period and suppresses ventricular pacemaker automaticity

Question 123

Pregabalin

Answer 123

Binds to alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels within the CNS and modulates calcium influx at the nerve terminals, thereby inhibiting excitatory neurotransmitter release including glutamate, norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, substance P, and calcitonin gene-related peptide. GABA analogue but does not bind to GABA receptors.

Question 124

Topiramate

Answer 124

Blocks neuronal voltage-dependent sodium channels, enhances GABA-A activity, antagonizes AMPA/kainate glutamate receptors, and weakly inhibits carbonic anhydrase

Question 125

Glipizide

Answer 125

Stimulates insulin release from the pancreatic beta cells; suppress hepatic gluconeogenesis; insulin sensitivity is increased at peripheral target sites

Question 126

Glyburide

Answer 126

Stimulates insulin release from the pancreatic beta cells; suppress hepatic gluconeogenesis; insulin sensitivity is increased at peripheral target sites

Question 127

Nitrofurantoin

Answer 127

Inactivates or alters bacterial ribosomal proteins leading to inhibition of protein synthesis, aerobic energy metabolism, DNA, RNA, and cell wall synthesis

Question 128

Valacyclovir

Answer 128

Prodrug of acyclovir that is further converted to acyclovir triphosphate by virus specific cellular enzymes. Acyclovir triphosphate inhibits DNA synthesis and viral replication by competing with deoxyguanosine triphosphate for viral DNA polymerase and being incorporated into viral DNA.

Question 129

Ropinirole

Answer 129

Dopamine receptor agonist. Has higher specificity to D3 than D2 and D4 dopamine receptor subtypes, and moderate in vitro affinity for opioid receptors.

Question 130

Memantine

Answer 130

Uncompetitive antagonist of the N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor operated cation channels

Question 131

Sumatriptan

Answer 131

Selective agonist for serotonin (5-HT1B and 5-HT1D receptors) on intracranial blood vessels and sensory nerves of the trigeminal system. Causes vasoconstriction and reduces neurogenic inflammation associated with antidromic neuronal transmission

Question 132

Amitriptyline

Answer 132

Blocks presynaptic reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, causing an increase in the synaptic concentration of serotonin and norepinephrine in the central nervous system

Question 133

Mirtazapine

Answer 133

Antagonist of central presynaptic alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which results in increased release of norepinephrine and serotonin. Also a potent antagonist of 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 serotonin receptors and H1 histamine receptors

Question 134

Phenelzine

Answer 134

Inhibits monoamine oxidase, thereby increasing endogenous concentrations of norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin

Question 135

Aripiprazole

Answer 135

Partial agonist of dopamine D2 and D3 receptors and serotonin 5-HT1A receptors, and antagonist at 5-HT2A receptors

Question 136

Olanzapine

Answer 136

Antagonist of D2, 5-HT2A, 5-HT2C, histamine H1, and apha1 adrenergic receptors

Question 137

Quetiapine

Answer 137

Antagonist of D1, D2, 5-HT1A, 5-HT2, histamine H1, and adrenergic alpha1 and alpha2 receptors

Question 138

Risperidone

Answer 138

Antagonist of D2, 5-HT2, histamine H1, and adrenergic alpha1 and alpha2 receptors

Question 139

Bupropion

Answer 139

Dopamine and norepinephrine uptake inhibitor

Question 140

Venlafaxine

Answer 140

Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

Question 141

Duloxetine

Answer 141

Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

Question 142

Citalopram

Answer 142

Selective inhibitor of presynaptic reuptake of serotonin

Question 143

Escitalopram

Answer 143

Selective inhibitor of presynaptic reuptake of serotonin

Question 144

Paroxetine

Answer 144

Selective inhibitor of presynaptic reuptake of serotonin

Question 145

Sertraline

Answer 145

Selective inhibitor of presynaptic reuptake of serotonin

Question 146

Trazodone

Answer 146

Inhibits reuptake of serotonin, acts as 5HT2a receptor antagonist, and blocks histamine (H1) and α1-adrenergic receptors

Question 147

Amphetamine/ Dextroamphetamine

Answer 147

Promote release of catecholamines, dopamine and norepinephrnie, from their storage sites in presynaptic nerve terminals

Question 148

Methylphenidate

Answer 148

Block the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine into the presynaptic neuron and increase the release of these monoamines into the extraneuronal space

Question 149

Lisdexamfetamine

Answer 149

Block the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine into the presynaptic neuron and increase the release of these monoamines into the extraneuronal space

Question 150

Phentermine

Answer 150

Stimulates hypothalamus to release norepinephrine

Question 151

Zolpidem

Answer 151

Agonist of the benzodiazepine-1 (BZ-1) receptor that results in increased chloride conductance, neuronal hyperpolarization, inhibition of action potential, and decrease neuronal excitability. Structurally dissimilar to benzodiazepines.

Question 152

Alprazolam

Answer 152

Binds to benzodiazepine receptors on postsynaptic GABA neuron, increasing nueronal membrane permeability to cloride ions, and thereby enhancing the inhibitory effect of GABA on neuronal excitability

Question 153

Temazepam

Answer 153

Binds to benzodiazepine receptors on postsynaptic GABA neuron, increasing nueronal membrane permeability to cloride ions, and thereby enhancing the inhibitory effect of GABA on neuronal excitability

Question 154

Diazepam

Answer 154

Binds to benzodiazepine receptors on postsynaptic GABA neuron, increasing nueronal membrane permeability to cloride ions, and thereby enhancing the inhibitory effect of GABA on neuronal excitability

Question 155

Clonazepam

Answer 155

Binds to benzodiazepine receptors on postsynaptic GABA neuron, increasing nueronal membrane permeability to cloride ions, and thereby enhancing the inhibitory effect of GABA on neuronal excitability

Question 156

Lorazepam

Answer 156

Binds to benzodiazepine receptors on postsynaptic GABA neuron, increasing nueronal membrane permeability to cloride ions, and thereby enhancing the inhibitory effect of GABA on neuronal excitability

Question 157

Buspirone

Answer 157

Serotonin 5-HT1A receptor partial agonists with some effect on dopamine-D2 auto-receptors

Question 158

Benztropine

Answer 158

Anticholinergic and antihistamine effects

Question 159

Nicotine replacement

Answer 159

Binds stereo-selectively to nicotinic-cholinergic receptors at the autonomic ganglia, adrenal medulla, and neuromuscular junctions in the brain. Produce a stimulating effect in the cortex via the locus coeruleus and a reward effect in the limbic system.

Question 160

Loperamide

Answer 160

Binds to the opioid receptor and acts directly on circular and longitudinal intestinal muscles, inhibiting peristalsis and prolonging transit time. Also reduces fecal volume, increases viscosity and bulk density, and decreases fluid and electrolyte loss. Has antisecretory activity and increases anal sphincter tone.

Question 161

Bisacodyl

Answer 161

Directly stimulates peristalsis by irritating intestinal smooth muscle; also alters water and electrolyte secretion resulting in net intestinal fluid accumulation

Question 162

Senna

Answer 162

Stimulant laxative induces defecation by stimulating peristalsis in the intestine via direct action on intestinal mucosa or nerve plexus; therefore increasing motility

Question 163

Docusate sodium

Answer 163

Reduces surface tension of the oil-water interface of the stool resulting in enhanced incorporation of water and fat allowing for stool softening

Question 164

Polyethylene glycol 3350

Answer 164

Hyperosmotic solution that causes water retention in the stool and increases stool frequency

Question 165

Ferrous Sulfate

Answer 165

Restore body iron stores needed for hemoglobin, myoglobin, and other body processes

Question 166

Esomeprazole

Answer 166

Blocks the final step of gastric acid production by inhibiting the hydrogen/potassium-ATPase enzyme system at the secretory surface of gastric parietal cells

Question 167

Pantoprazole

Answer 167

Blocks the final step of gastric acid production by inhibiting the hydrogen/potassium-ATPase enzyme system at the secretory surface of gastric parietal cells

Question 168

Adalimumab

Answer 168

Binds to human soluble TNF-alpha, preventing its binding to receptors and subsequent cytokine-driven inflammatory processes

Question 169

Etanercept

Answer 169

Binds to human soluble TNF-alpha, preventing its binding to receptors and subsequent cytokine-driven inflammatory processes

Question 170

Hydroxychloroquine

Answer 170

Interferes with digestive vacuole function within sensitive malarial parasites by increasing the pH and interfering with lysosomal degradation of hemoglobin; inhibits locomotion of neutrophils and chemotaxis of eosinophils; impairs complement-dependent antigen-antibody reactions

Question 171

Methotrexate

Answer 171

Binds to and inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, interfering with DNA synthesis, repair, and cellular replication

Question 172

Allopurinol

Answer 172

Inhibits xanthine oxidase, the enzyme responsibe for converting hypoxanthine to uric acid, thus reducing uric acid levels

Question 173

Metoclopramide

Answer 173

Increases GI motility and accelerates gastric emptying by increasing upper GI tissue response to acetylcholine. Also blocks dopamine receptors (at higher doses) and serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone of the CNS

Question 174

Ondansetron

Answer 174

5-HT3 receptor antagonist peripherally on vagal nerve terminals and centrally in the chemoreceptor trigger zone

Question 175

Dicyclomine

Answer 175

Blocks the action of acetylcholine at parasympathetic acetylcholine receptor sites in smooth muscle, secretory glands and the CNS, thereby relieving smooth muscle spasms in the GI tract

Question 176

Tretinoin

Answer 176

Vitamin A derivative that modifies epithelial growth and differentiation by decreasing cohesiveness of follicular epithelial cells resulting in decreased microcomedo formation; stimulates mitotic activity causing increased follicular epithelial cell turnover

Question 177

Latanoprost

Answer 177

Prostoglandin F2-alpha analogue that reduces intraocular pressure by increasing outflow of aqueous humor

Question 178

Travoprost

Answer 178

Prostoglandin F2-alpha analogue that reduces intraocular pressure by increasing outflow of aqueous humor

Question 179

Hydrocodone/ Acetominophen

Answer 179

“Hydrocodone: mu opioid receptor agonist
Acetaminophen: activation of descending serotonergic inhibitory pathways in the CNS”

Question 180

Phenazopyridine

Answer 180

Excreted in the urine where it exerts a topical analgesic effect on urinary tract mucosa

Question 181

Mupirocin

Answer 181

Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to isoleucyl transfer-RNA synthetase

Question 182

Dolutegravir

Answer 182

Binds to the integrase enzyme and inhibits the strand transfer step of HIV-1 DNA integration

Question 183

Tenofovir alafenamide (TAF)

Answer 183

Acts as an analog of adenosine, interfering with viral replication of DNA

Question 184

Emtricitabine

Answer 184

Acts as an analog of cytidine, interfering with viral replication of DNA

Question 185

Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF)

Answer 185

Acts as an analog of adenosine, interfering with viral replication of DNA

Question 186

Bictegravir

Answer 186

Binds to the integrase enzyme and inhibits the strand transfer step of HIV-1 DNA integration

Question 187

Darunavir

Answer 187

Binds to the site of HIV-1 protease activity and inhibits cleavage of polyprotein precursors into functional HIV proteins

Question 188

Rilpivirine

Answer 188

Binds to reverse transcriptase enzyme, blocking HIV-1 replication

Question 189

Elvitegravir

Answer 189

Binds to the integrase enzyme and inhibits the strand transfer step of HIV-1 DNA integration

Question 190

Cobicistat

Answer 190

Inhibits CYP3A4, increasing systemic exposure of HIV drugs that are CYP3A substrates