mnemonics/acronyms Flashcards
Well’s Score for PE
Don’t Let Heart Issues Put Health At Crisis:
D - DVT signs (3)
L - likely PE (3)
H - heart rate > 100 (1.5)
I - immobilisation or surgery (1.5)
P - previous DVT or PE (1.5)
H - haemopytsis (1)
C - cancer (1)
Upper zone fibrosis causes
BREASTS
B - berylliosis
R - radiation fibrosis
E - extrinsic allergic alveolitis (now known as hypersensitivity pneumonitis), eosinophilic pneumonia
A - allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, ankylosing spondylitis
S - sarcoidosis
T - tuberculosis
S - silicosis
Lower zone fibrosis
SAB-IPM
S - systemic sclerosis & other connective tissue diseases
A - aspiration, alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, asbestosis
B - bronchiectasis
IP - infection, interstitial pneumonia (usual, non-specific, and desquamative)
M - medications (e.g. busulfan, bleomycin lung toxicity, nitrofurantoin, hydralazine, methotrexate, amiodarone)
Dialysis in patients with AKI
A – Acidosis – metabolic acidosis with a pH <7.1
E – Electrolytes – refractory hyperkalemia with a serum potassium >6.5 mEq/L or rapidly rising potassium levels
I – Intoxications – use the mnemonic SLIME to remember the drugs and toxins that can be removed with dialysis: salicylates, lithium, isopropanol, methanol, ethylene glycol
O – Overload – volume overload refractory to diuresis
U – Uremia – elevated BUN with signs or symptoms of uremia, including pericarditis, neuropathy, uremic bleeding, or an otherwise unexplained decline in mental status (uremic encephalopathy)
Criteria for rheumatic fever
Major criteria:
J - joint arthritis
O - organ inflammation, e.g. carditis
N - nodules
E - erythema marginatum rash
S - Sydenham chorea
Minor criteria:
* F - Fever
* E - ECG Changes (prolonged PR interval) without carditis
* A - Arthralgia without arthritis
R - raised inflammatory markers (CRP and ESR)
Tonsilitis criteria (children)
FeverPAIN
1) Fever in past 24 hours
2) P - purulent tonsils
3) A - absence of cough or coryzal symptoms
4) I - inflammation of tonsils
5) N - new symptoms (≤3 days)
Drug causes of long QT syndrome
(All Scary Cardiac Medications Can Trigger ECG Hiccups)
* Amiodarone * Sotalol * Class 1c antiarrhythmic drugs * Methadone * Chloroquine * Terfenadine * Erythromycin * Haloperidol
when to stop beta blockers in heart failure?
shock, tick-tock, block
cardiogenic shock, HR < 50, 2nd or 3rd degree block
high risk features of a pneumothorax
Old Smokers Hate Both Lungs Hissing
Old smokers = aged 50 + with significant smoking history
H = hypoxia
B = bilateral pneumothorax
L = lung disease
H = haemopneumothorax
acute asthma management
OSSIM
O = oxygen if hypoxic
S = steroids (oral pred)
S = salbutamol
I = ipratropium bromide
M = magnesium sulphate
ARDS diagnosis criteria
A: acute (< 1 week of known risk factor)
R: radiograph shows bilateral pulmonary infiltrates
D: desaturating (pO2/FiO2 < 40kpa/300mmHg
S: safely not cardiogenic (pulmonary artery wedge pressure needed if in doubt, should be normal)
lupus pernio seen in…
SARCOIDOSIS
lung cancer surgery contraindication
A Sick Fellow May Think “Vhy Surgery?”
A - assess general health
S - SVC obstruction
F: FEV1 < 1.5L
M: malignant pleural effusion
T: tumour near hilar region
V: vocal cord paralysis
S: stage IIIb/IV (mets)
precipitating factors for migraine
CHOCOLATE
- Chocolate
- Hangovers
- Orgasms
- Cheese, Caffeine
- Oral contraceptive pill
- Lie-ins
- Alcohol
- Travel
- Exercise
Glasgow score
The Glasgow score is used to assess the severity of pancreatitis. It gives a numerical score based on how many of the key criteria are present:
* 0 or 1 – mild pancreatitis * 2 – moderate pancreatitis * 3 or more – severe pancreatitis
The criteria for the Glasgow score can be remembered using the PANCREAS mnemonic (1 point for each answer):
* P – Pa02 < 8 KPa * A – Age > 55 * N – Neutrophils (WBC > 15) * C – Calcium < 2 * R – uRea >16 * E – Enzymes (LDH > 600 or AST/ALT >200) * A – Albumin < 32 S – Sugar (Glucose >10)
Report to coroner
UNEXPECTEDSS (shoutout to shaan)
U: unexpected or sudden
N: not seen by a doctor within 28 days
E: early hospital deaths (within 24h of admission)
X: Xternal injuries (accidents or injuries)
P: poisoning (incl drugs)
E: exposure to industrial hazards e.g. asbestos
C: custody cases (prisoners or police custody)
T: treatment related deaths (during surgery or anaesthetic)
E: elder neglect or starvation
D: disability pensioners
S: suicide
S: stillborn (if doubt re whether child was born alive)
causes of peripheral neuropathy
ABCDE
* Alcohol
* B12 deficiency
* Cancer e.g. myeloma and CKD
* Diabetic neuropathy and DRUGS (isoniazid, amiodarone, leflunomide, cisplatin)
Every vasculitis
Well’s score for DVT
ABC CAST PPP
all 1 point except alternative diagnosis likely
A - active cancer
B - bedridden > 3 days or major surgery < 12 weeks
C - collateral veins superficially
C - calf swelling > 3cm
A - alternative diagnosis more or as likely (-2)
S - swelling of whole leg
T - tenderness
P - paralysis/plaster/paresis
P - pitting oedema only in affected leg
P - prev DVT documented
0 or less: moderate sensitivity D- dimer
- if d-dimer positive => ultrasound
- if d-dimer negative, rule out DVT
1-2: high sensitivity D-dimer
- if d-dimer positive => ultrasound
- if d-dimer negative, rule out DVT
3 or higher suggests: DVT is likely.
All DVT likely patients should receive US.
D-dimer testing should be utilized to help risk-stratify these DVT-likely patients.
In DVT likely patients with negative d-dimer:
- USS -ve => rule out DVT
In DVT likely patients with a positive d-dimer:
+ve USS => treat
-ve USS => repeat in 1 week
causes of delirium?
Drugs (withdrawal/toxicity, anticholinergics)/Dehydration
Electrolyte imbalance
Level of pain
Infection/Inflammation (post surgery)
Respiratory failure (hypoxia, hypercapnia)
Impaction of faeces
Urinary retention
Metabolic disorder (liver/renal failure, hypoglycaemia)/Myocardial infarction
wernicke’s
acute
CAVA
confusion
ataxia
visual changes e.g. nysatgmus, diplopia
alcohol withdrawal
korsakoff’s
chronic
CHAM
confabulation
hallucinations
anterograde amnesia
memory loss
