mnemonics/acronyms

Question 1

Well’s Score for PE

Answer 1

Don’t Let Heart Issues Put Health At Crisis:

D - DVT signs (3)
L - likely PE (3)
H - heart rate > 100 (1.5)
I - immobilisation or surgery (1.5)
P - previous DVT or PE (1.5)
H - haemopytsis (1)
C - cancer (1)

Question 2

Upper zone fibrosis causes

Answer 2

BREASTS

B - berylliosis
R - radiation fibrosis
E - extrinsic allergic alveolitis (now known as hypersensitivity pneumonitis), eosinophilic pneumonia
A - allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, ankylosing spondylitis
S - sarcoidosis
T - tuberculosis
S - silicosis

Question 3

Lower zone fibrosis

Answer 3

SAB-IPM

S - systemic sclerosis & other connective tissue diseases
A - aspiration, alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, asbestosis
B - bronchiectasis
IP - infection, interstitial pneumonia (usual, non-specific, and desquamative)
M - medications (e.g. busulfan, bleomycin lung toxicity, nitrofurantoin, hydralazine, methotrexate, amiodarone)

Question 4

Dialysis in patients with AKI

Answer 4

A – Acidosis – metabolic acidosis with a pH <7.1

E – Electrolytes – refractory hyperkalemia with a serum potassium >6.5 mEq/L or rapidly rising potassium levels

I – Intoxications – use the mnemonic SLIME to remember the drugs and toxins that can be removed with dialysis: salicylates, lithium, isopropanol, methanol, ethylene glycol

O – Overload – volume overload refractory to diuresis

U – Uremia – elevated BUN with signs or symptoms of uremia, including pericarditis, neuropathy, uremic bleeding, or an otherwise unexplained decline in mental status (uremic encephalopathy)

Question 5

Criteria for rheumatic fever

Answer 5

Major criteria:

J - joint arthritis
O - organ inflammation, e.g. carditis
N - nodules
E - erythema marginatum rash
S - Sydenham chorea

Minor criteria:
* F - Fever
* E - ECG Changes (prolonged PR interval) without carditis
* A - Arthralgia without arthritis
R - raised inflammatory markers (CRP and ESR)

Question 6

Tonsilitis criteria (children)

Answer 6

FeverPAIN

1) Fever in past 24 hours
2) P - purulent tonsils
3) A - absence of cough or coryzal symptoms
4) I - inflammation of tonsils
5) N - new symptoms (≤3 days)

Question 7

Drug causes of long QT syndrome

Answer 7

(All Scary Cardiac Medications Can Trigger ECG Hiccups)

* Amiodarone
* Sotalol
* Class 1c antiarrhythmic drugs
* Methadone
* Chloroquine
* Terfenadine
* Erythromycin
* Haloperidol

Question 8

when to stop beta blockers in heart failure?

Answer 8

shock, tick-tock, block

cardiogenic shock, HR < 50, 2nd or 3rd degree block

Question 9

high risk features of a pneumothorax

Answer 9

Old Smokers Hate Both Lungs Hissing

Old smokers = aged 50 + with significant smoking history
H = hypoxia
B = bilateral pneumothorax
L = lung disease
H = haemopneumothorax

Question 10

acute asthma management

Answer 10

OSSIM

O = oxygen if hypoxic
S = steroids (oral pred)
S = salbutamol
I = ipratropium bromide
M = magnesium sulphate

Question 11

ARDS diagnosis criteria

Answer 11

A: acute (< 1 week of known risk factor)
R: radiograph shows bilateral pulmonary infiltrates
D: desaturating (pO2/FiO2 < 40kpa/300mmHg
S: safely not cardiogenic (pulmonary artery wedge pressure needed if in doubt, should be normal)

Question 12

lupus pernio seen in…

Answer 12

SARCOIDOSIS

Question 13

lung cancer surgery contraindication

Answer 13

A Sick Fellow May Think “Vhy Surgery?”

A - assess general health
S - SVC obstruction
F: FEV1 < 1.5L
M: malignant pleural effusion
T: tumour near hilar region
V: vocal cord paralysis
S: stage IIIb/IV (mets)

Question 14

precipitating factors for migraine

Answer 14

CHOCOLATE

• Chocolate
• Hangovers
• Orgasms
• Cheese, Caffeine
• Oral contraceptive pill
• Lie-ins
• Alcohol
• Travel
• Exercise

Question 15

Glasgow score

Answer 15

The Glasgow score is used to assess the severity of pancreatitis. It gives a numerical score based on how many of the key criteria are present:

* 0 or 1 – mild pancreatitis
* 2 – moderate pancreatitis
* 3 or more – severe pancreatitis

The criteria for the Glasgow score can be remembered using the PANCREAS mnemonic (1 point for each answer):

* P – Pa02 < 8 KPa
* A – Age > 55
* N – Neutrophils (WBC > 15)
* C – Calcium < 2
* R – uRea >16
* E – Enzymes (LDH > 600 or AST/ALT >200)
* A – Albumin < 32 S – Sugar (Glucose >10)

Question 16

Report to coroner

Answer 16

UNEXPECTEDSS (shoutout to shaan)

U: unexpected or sudden
N: not seen by a doctor within 28 days
E: early hospital deaths (within 24h of admission)
X: Xternal injuries (accidents or injuries)
P: poisoning (incl drugs)
E: exposure to industrial hazards e.g. asbestos
C: custody cases (prisoners or police custody)
T: treatment related deaths (during surgery or anaesthetic)
E: elder neglect or starvation
D: disability pensioners
S: suicide
S: stillborn (if doubt re whether child was born alive)

Question 17

causes of peripheral neuropathy

Answer 17

ABCDE
* Alcohol
* B12 deficiency
* Cancer e.g. myeloma and CKD
* Diabetic neuropathy and DRUGS (isoniazid, amiodarone, leflunomide, cisplatin)
Every vasculitis

Question 18

Well’s score for DVT

Answer 18

ABC CAST PPP

all 1 point except alternative diagnosis likely

A - active cancer
B - bedridden > 3 days or major surgery < 12 weeks
C - collateral veins superficially

C - calf swelling > 3cm
A - alternative diagnosis more or as likely (-2)
S - swelling of whole leg
T - tenderness

P - paralysis/plaster/paresis
P - pitting oedema only in affected leg
P - prev DVT documented

0 or less: moderate sensitivity D- dimer
- if d-dimer positive => ultrasound
- if d-dimer negative, rule out DVT

1-2: high sensitivity D-dimer
- if d-dimer positive => ultrasound
- if d-dimer negative, rule out DVT

3 or higher suggests: DVT is likely.

All DVT likely patients should receive US.

D-dimer testing should be utilized to help risk-stratify these DVT-likely patients.
    In DVT likely patients with negative d-dimer:

• USS -ve => rule out DVT

    In DVT likely patients with a positive d-dimer:

+ve USS => treat
-ve USS => repeat in 1 week