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MLSCI242 LAB > MLSCI340 Blood/ Fluids/ Anaerobes > Flashcards

MLSCI340 Blood/ Fluids/ Anaerobes Flashcards

1
Q

Normal flora in blood and CSF

A

NONE; sterile sites

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2
Q

List potential bacteria isolated in blood cultures

A

NOTE: may be a skin contaminant OR pathogen

  • S. aureus
  • S. pneumoniae (β strep)
  • Haemophilus sp.
  • Listeria monocytogenes
  • Bacteroides sp. (anaerobes)
  • Pseudomonas sp.
  • Enterococcus sp.
  • Campylobacter sp.
  • Enterobacteriaceae
  • Candida sp.
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3
Q

Define bacterial endocarditis

A
  • disease resulting from bacterial invasion of heart valves
  • widespread inflammation and destructive changes
  • affects many organ systems
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4
Q

What causes ACUTE bacterial endocarditis ?

A
  • develops within 2 months after implantation of prosthetic heart valve
  • S. aureus, S. epidermis**
  • S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, S. pyogenes, N. gonorrhoeae, P. aeruginosa, and Enterobacteriaceae sp.
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5
Q

What causes SUB-ACUTE bacterial endocarditis ?

A
  • normally avirulent viridans group streptococci
  • enter bloodstream during dental procedure
  • colonize endothelial surfaces previously damaged by rheumatic disease or congenital cardiac malformation
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6
Q

Differentiate septicemia vs bacteremia

A

Septicemia: systemic disease due to persistence of pathogenic organisms OR toxins in blood
Bacteremia: simply presence of bacteria in blood

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7
Q

Define Pyrexia of Unknown Origin; “PUO”

A

investigation of cause for a fever

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8
Q

List potential bacteria isolated in CSF cultures

A
  • N. meningiditis
  • S. agalactiae
  • S. aureus
  • K. pneumoniae and S. pneumoniae
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Listeria monocytogenes
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • E. coli
  • Cryptococcus neoformans
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9
Q

T or F: handling of all lumbar puncture specimens is ALWAYS considered STAT

A

TRUE; due to seriousness of infections in the nervous system, handling of all lumbar puncture specimens is ALWAYS considered STAT

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10
Q

Define meningitis

A
  • inflammation of meninges membrane (covers brain and spinal cord)
  • due to infections via bloodstream, direct invasion via fractures, or underlying cause (otitis media, mastoiditis, paranasal sinusitis)
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11
Q

Define aseptic meningitis. What causes it ?

A
  • no bacteria can be isolated
  • viruses (Coxsackie A/B, echoviruses, mumps) are responsible
  • more common than bacterial pathogens
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12
Q

Define granulomatous meningitis

A
  • Caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis OR Cryptococcus neoformans
  • subclinical course with definite remissions and relapses
  • granuloma formation**
  • spreads via bloodstream from infection in the lungs
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13
Q

Define viral encephalitis. What causes it ?

A
  • localized or diffuse inflammatory processing involving the brain tissue = high mortality
  • herpes virus and arboviruses
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14
Q

Define brain abscesses. What causes it ?

A
  • may follow traumatic head injury
  • brain becomes more susceptible to normal flora from middle ear, mastoids, nasal cavities…
  • abscesses occur when other infections from body spreads to brain via bloodstream
  • bacteroides sp. (anaerobes), CNS, S. pyogenes, Group D strep (S. bovis, enterococcus faecalis)
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15
Q

List other sterile body fluids

A
  • amniotic fluid
  • pericardial fluid
  • peritoneal fluid
  • pleural fluid
  • synovial fluid
  • vitreous fluid
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16
Q

Which pathogen is common in other sterile bodily fluids but NOT BLOOD OR CSF ?

A

N. gonorrhoeae

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17
Q

Define pericardial fluid

A
  • The fibrous sac enclosing the heart, and the roots of the great vessels (pericardium)
  • Viral cases are most common.
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18
Q

Define peritoneal fluid

A

Formed within the peritoneal cavity, which is bound by a serous membrane covering the abdominal cavity and organs.

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19
Q

Define pleural effusion

A

abnormal collection of pleural fluid (produced in small amounts to lubricate surfaces of the pleura, the thin membrane that lines the chest cavity and surrounds the lungs)

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20
Q

Define synovial fluid

A
  • The synovial membrane is the inner membrane of tissue that lines a joint.
  • Synovial fluid is secreted to lubricate the joint
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21
Q

Define vitreous fluid

A

transparent substance that fill the eyeball between the lens and the retina

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22
Q

Test Results to ID S. aureus

A

col morph= wop(h), gop(h)
%= gpc cl
cat= pos
slide/ tube coag= pos
DNAse= pos
TA= R

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23
Q

Which KB disk differentiates MSSA vs MRSA ?

A

Cefoxitin (FOX)

MSSA= S
MRSA= R

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24
Q

Test results for ID of S. pneumonia

A

col morph= (wet) alpha
%= gpc prs
TP= S
Bile Sol= pos

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25
Q

Test results for ID of N. gonorrhoeae

A

col morph= shygy
%= gndc
Ox= pos

CTA sugars:
Dextrose= pos
Maltose, Sucrose, Lactose= neg

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26
Q

Media for N. gonorrhoeae, N. meningitidis

A

Thayer Martin in CO2, New York City Agar in CO2

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27
Q

Test results for ID of N. meningitidis

A

col morph= shygy
%= gndc
Ox= pos

CTA sugars:
Dextrose, Maltose= pos
Sucrose, Lactose= neg

NOTE: M for Maltose and Meningitidis

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28
Q

Test results for N. lactamica

A

col morph= shygy
%= gndc
Ox= pos

CTA sugars:
Dextrose, Maltose, Lactose = pos
Sucrose= neg

NOTE: L for Lactose and Lactamica

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29
Q

List the CTA sugars

A

Cystine Tryptic Agar:

Base
Dextrose
Maltose
Sucrose
Lactose

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30
Q

How can M. catarrhalis be differentiated from Neisseria sp?

A

Butyrate esterase (catarrhalis disk)= pos
CTA sugars= neg for all (dextrose, maltose, sucrose, lactose)

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31
Q

Test results to ID S. agalactiae

A

col morph= small beta
%= gpc ch
cat= neg
PYR= neg
Latex= B
CAMP= pos
TA= R

NOTE: C for Camp and agalaCtiae

32
Q

Test results to ID K. pneumoniae

A

MAC= pk
HE= yel
Orient= blu
TSI= A/Ag
Indole= neg
Lysine= pos

33
Q

Test results to ID E. coli

A

%= gnb
MAC= pk
HE= gn
Orient= pk
TSI= A/Ag
Indole= pos
Lys= pos

34
Q

What is propionibacterium ?

A

Contaminating anaerobic flora

35
Q

Test results to ID H. influenzae

A

%= gncb
BAPss= sats
ALA= neg

36
Q

Test results to ID L. monocytogenes

A

col morph= beta
%= gpb
cat= pos
BE= pos
TSI= A/A sick
RT Motility= tumbling
37°C Motility= neg
Semi-solid Motility= umbrella pattern

37
Q

Test results for ID of Cryptococcus neoformans

A

India Ink= negative stain of capsule

38
Q

Test results to ID Enterococcus

A

col morph= ent
%= gpc ch
cat= neg/ wk+
PYR= pos
BE= pos
6.5% NaCl= pos

39
Q

Test results to ID P. aeruginosa

A

col morph= sheen
%= gnb
MAC= wh
TSI= K/K
Ox= pos
Nitrate= pos
Motility= pos
42°C =pos
UV= pos

40
Q

Test results to ID Campylobacter jejuni

A

Col morph= clr, flt, spr, drop-like
%= gnb
Cat= pos
Ox= pos
Motility= cork-screw

41
Q

What is the correct additional media OR test to the microscopic morphology: GPCCL

A

Tube coagulase

42
Q

What is the correct additional media OR test to the microscopic morphology: GPCCH

A

Ethyl hydrocupreine hydrocholride

43
Q

What is the correct additional media OR test to the microscopic morphology: GNDC

A

New York city agar

44
Q

What is the correct additional media OR test to the microscopic morphology: Box-square GPB

A

Egg yolk agar

45
Q

Which of the following statements is true about the collection of blood culture specimens?

a.
If coagulase negative Staphylococci isolated it is due to poor collection technique

b.
Should be collected after the fever has subsided and the patient is feeling better

c.
Should always collect 2 sets; one with two anaerobic vials and the second set with one aerobic vial

d.
Collection should occur from 2 separate sites in case skin contamination occurs from one of the sites

A

d.
Collection should occur from 2 separate sites in case skin contamination occurs from one of the sites

46
Q

List the correct steps in viral replication:

  1. Synthesis
  2. Adsorption
  3. Release
  4. Maturation
  5. Penetration

Which of the following order of steps is correct?

A

2: Adsorption
5: Penetration
1: Synthesis
4: Maturation
3: Release

47
Q

Which of the following organisms are susceptible to SPS?

a.
N. gonorrhoeae

b.
S. pneumoniae

c.
H. influenzae

d.
All of the above

A

a.
N. gonorrhoeae

48
Q

Which of the following tests confirm Hepatitis C infection?

a.
PCR

b.
ELISA

c.
MALDI-TOF MS

d.
DFA

A

a.
PCR

49
Q

Which of the following stains is used to examine for the presence of bacteria in a blood culture after the gram stain reveals no bacteria seen?

a.
Acridine Orange

b.
Auramine Rhodamine

c.
Ziehl-Neelsen

d.
Calcofluor White

A

a.
Acridine Orange

50
Q

Which of the following methods is / are useful for direct viral examination?

Select all that apply:

a.
ELISA

b.
Western blot

c.
Polymerase chain reaction

d.
Electron microscopy

A

a.
ELISA

c.
Polymerase chain reaction

d.
Electron microscopy

51
Q

Which of the following terms best describe an organism which prefers an environment with oxygen present but which functions well without oxygen?

a.
Aerobe

b.
Microaerophilic

c.
Aerotolerant

d.
Facultative anaerobe

A

d.
Facultative anaerobe

52
Q

Which of the following organisms is associated with transient bacteremia?

a.
Coagulase negative staphylococci

b.
Diphtheroids

c.
Staphylococcus aureus

d.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

a.
Coagulase negative staphylococci

53
Q

Which of the following light sources is / are suitable for a fluorescence microscope?

a.
Xenon arc

b.
Mercury vapor

c.
Halogen quartz

d.
Tungsten filament

A

a.
Xenon arc

b.
Mercury vapor

c.
Halogen quartz

54
Q

The following results are recorded for a tissue specimen:

Direct Smear Results:
4+ WBC
3+ RBC
3+ GPB

Culture Results:
BAPO2: no growth
BAP*: large translucent colony with two zones of hemolysis
MAC: no growth

Which of the following descriptors would best match the Gram stain result?

a.
Thin Gram positive bacilli with terminal spore

b.
Thick Gram positive bacilli with blunt ends and no spores

c.
Short Gram positive bacilli, almost coccoid in shape

d.
Short Gram positive bacilli, palisading

A

b.
Thick Gram positive bacilli with blunt ends and no spores

NOTE: C. perfringens

55
Q

The following results are recorded for a tissue specimen:

Direct Smear Results:
4+ WBC
3+ RBC
3+ GPB

Culture Results:
BAPO2: no growth
BAP*: large translucent colony with two zones of hemolysis
MAC: no growth

Which of the following terms best describe the atmospheric requirements of the organism?

a.
Facultative anaerobe

b.
Capnophilic organism

c.
Microaerophilic organism

d.
Obligate anaerobe

A

d.
Obligate anaerobe

56
Q

Which of the following organisms is resistant to kanamycin, vancomycin, and colistin?

a.
Peptostreptococcus sp

b.
Bacteroides fragilis

c.
Clostridium sp

d.
Veillonella sp

A

b.
Bacteroides fragilis

57
Q

Which of the following results best match the CSF from a patient with bacterial meningitis?

a.
PMNs, elevated glucose, elevated protein

b.
Lymphocytes, normal glucose, elevated protein

c.
PMNs, low glucose, elevated protein

d.
Lymphocytes, low glucose, elevated protein

A

c.
PMNs, low glucose, elevated protein

58
Q

A patient is diagnosed with peritonitis after bowel surgery. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be isolated in the peritoneal fluid?

a.
Campylobacter jejuni

b.
Shigella dysentariae

c.
Bacteroides fragilis

d.
Salmonella enterica Serovar typhi

A

c.
Bacteroides fragilis

59
Q

The following results are recorded for a tissue specimen:

Direct Smear Results:
4+ WBC
3+ RBC
3+ GPB

Culture Results:
BAPO2: no growth
BAP*: large translucent colony with two zones of hemolysis
MAC: no growth

Which of the following tests will help identify the pathogen?

a.
KVC disks

b.
SPS disk

c.
Room temperature motility

d.
Reverse CAMP

A

d.
Reverse CAMP

NOTE: C. perfringens = pos

60
Q

The following results are recorded for a tissue specimen:

Direct Smear Results:
4+ WBC
3+ RBC
3+ GPB

Culture Results:
BAPO2: no growth
BAP*: large translucent colony with two zones of hemolysis
MAC: no growth

Which of the following conditions is often associated with this pathogen?

a.
Gas gangrene

b.
Otitis media

c.
Spontaneous abortion

d.
Pseudomembranous colitis

A

a.
Gas gangrene

61
Q

The following results are recorded for an isolate:

Gram stain: GPB large
Catalase: negative
Egg Yolk:
Lecithinase negative
Lipase positive
Reverse CAMP: negative

Which of the following organisms best fit the results?

a.
Clostridium sporogenes

b.
Actinomyces israelii

c.
Bacillus cereus

d.
Clostridium perfringens

A

a.
Clostridium sporogenes

NOTE: Lipase positive, Reverse CAMP negative

62
Q

The following results
The following results are recorded for a CSF direct smear:

3+ WBC
1+RBC
4+ YST? (large round, yeast like organism? no budding or branching)

Which of the following organisms is the most likely pathogen?

a.
Cryptosporidium parvum

b.
Cryptococcus neoformans

c.
Echovirus

d.
Candida albicans

A

b.
Cryptococcus neoformans

63
Q

Which of the following organisms is considered a Risk Group III organism?

a.
Francisella tularensis

b.
Pasteurella multocida

c.
Bordetella pertussis

d.
Neisseria meningitidis

A

a.
Francisella tularensis

64
Q

Which of the following statements is / are true about eye wash stations?

Select all that apply:

a.
Weekly cleaning and maintenance is required

b.
Water should be cold to decrease risk of burns

c.
Eyes must be flushed for a minimum of 5 minutes

d.
Remove contacts before using

A

a.
Weekly cleaning and maintenance is required

65
Q

Principle of Plate Bile Solubility. What is a positive result ?

A

Principle:

Presence of bile salts accelerate activity of autolytic enzyme

Positive: flattened/ dissolved colonies after 15 min

66
Q

Bile Sol reagent

A

Sodium deoxycholate

67
Q

Chemical name for TP

A

(Optochin)/ Ethyl hydrocupreine hydrochloride

68
Q

Principle of PYR test. What is a positive result ?

A

Principle:

Detects PYRase= hydrolyzes L-pyrrolidonyl-beta-beta-naphthylamide (PYR)

Positive: pink color within 1 minute

69
Q

PYR reagent

A

N,N-dimethyl-aminocinnamaldehyde

70
Q

How to differentiate anaerobic GPB ?

A

L. monocytogenes = cat pos
Clostridium sp = cat neg

71
Q

KVC results for Fusobacterium

A

Kanamycin = S
Vancomycin =R
Colistin = S

72
Q

Test to differentiate Micrococcus from S. aureus

A

Bacitracin/ TA:

Micrococcus = S
S. aureus = R

73
Q

T or F: Tube coagulase detects free coag, while slide coag detects bound coagulase

A

TRUE; Tube coagulase detects free coagulase

74
Q

Which is known as “clumping factor:” free or bound coag?

A

bound coagulase in slide coag

75
Q

List HACEK group. What are they known for ?

A

Haemophilus
Aggregatibacter
Cardiobacterium
Eiknella corrodens
Kingella

= ENDOCARDITIS

76
Q

Ideal ratio of blood: media in BACTEC vials

A

1:5

MLSCI242 LAB (21 decks)

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