Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

STEP 1 > MIX > Flashcards

MIX Flashcards

1
Q

Von Gierke Disease (type I) mutated enzyme

A

glucose-6-phosphatatse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pompe disease (type II) mutated enzyme

A

lysosomal alpha-1,4-glucosidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cori Disease (type III) mutated enzyme

A

debranching enzyme (alpha-1,6-glucosidase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

McArdle disease (type V) mutated enzyme

A

skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fabry disease mutated enzyme

A

alpha-galactosidease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Gaucher disease mutated enzyme

A

glucocerebrosidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Niemann-Pick mutated enzyme

A

sphingomyelinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tay-Sachs mutated enzyme

A

hexosaminidase A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Krabbe disease mutated enzyme

A

galactrocerebrosidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

metachromic leukodystrophy mutated enzyme

A

arylsulfatase A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hurler syndrome mutated enzyme

A

alpha-L-iduronidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hunter syndrome mutated enzyme

A

iduronate sulfatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_1 (alpha1) receptor action

A

increase vascular smooth muscle contraction, increase pupillary dilator muscle contraction (mydriasis), increase intestinal and bladder sphincter muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

_2 (alpha2)receptor action

A

decrease sympathetic outflow, decrease insulin reslease, decrease lipolysis, increase platelet aggregation, decrease aqueous humor production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

_1 (beta1) receptor action

A

increase heart rate, increase contractility, increase renin release, increase lipolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

_2 (beta2) receptor action

A

vasodilation, bronchodilation, increase lipolysis, increase insulin release, decrease uterine tone (tocolysis), ciliary muscle relaxation, increase aqueous humor production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

M1 receptor action

A

CNS, enteric nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

M2 receptor action

A

decrease heart rate and contractility of atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

M3 receptor action

A

increase exocrine gland secretions (lacrimal, salivary, gastric acid), increase peristalsis of gut, increase bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction, increase pupillary sphincter muscle contraction (miosis), ciliary muscle contraction (accomodation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

D1 receptor action

A

relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

D2 receptor action

A

modulates transmitter release, especially in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

H1 receptor action

A

increases nasal and bronchial mucus production, increase vascular permeability, contraction of bronchioles, pruritus, pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

H2 receptor action

A

increase gastric acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

V1 receptor action

A

increase vascular smooth muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

V2 receptor action

A

increased H2O permeability and reabsorption in collecting tubules of the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

bethanechol use

A

post-op ileus, neurogenic ileus, urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

carbachol use

A

constricts pupil, relieves intraocular pressure in glaucomoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

methacholine use

A

challenge test for asthma dx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

pilocarpine use

A

open angle and closed angle glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

donepezil use

A

alzheimer disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

galantamine use

A

alzheimer disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

rivastigmine use

A

alzheimer disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

edrophonium use

A

historically used to diagnose myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

neostigmine use

A

post-op ileus, neurogenic ileus, urinary retention, myasthenia gravis, reversal of neuromuscular junction blockade post-op

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

physostigmine use

A

used to treat anticholinergic toxicity (ie atropine tox, TCA od); is able to cross BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

pyridostigmine use

A

myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

atropine use

A

eye: mydriasis (pupillary dilation), hard to seeairway: decreased secretionsstomach: decreased acid secretiongut: decreased motilitybladder: decreased urgency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

homatropine use

A

eye: mydriasis (pupillary dilation), hard to see

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

tropicamide use

A

eye: mydriasis (pupillary dilation), hard to see

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

benztropine use

A

Parkinson disease; acute dystonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

glycopyrrolate use

A

GI (oral administration): drooling, peptic ulcerrespiratory (parenteral administration): pre-op to reduce secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

hyoscyamine use

A

GI: antispasmotic for IBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

dicyclomine use

A

GI: antispasmotic for IBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

ipatropium use

A

respiratory: COPD, asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

tiopropium use

A

respiratory: COPD, asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

oxybutynin use

A

GU: reduce bladder spasm and urge incontinence (overactive bladder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

solifenacin use

A

GU: reduce bladder spasm and urge incontinence (overactive bladder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

tolterodine use

A

GU: reduce bladder spasm and urge incontinence (overactive bladder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

scopalamine use

A

CNS: motion sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

tetrodotoxin symptoms

A

nausea, vomiting, paresthesias, weakness, dizziness, loss of reflexes after eating poorly prepared pufferfish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

ciguatoxin symptoms

A

temperature related dysesthesia (Cold feels hot)= specific finding; otherwise looks like cholinergic poisoning (diarrhea, urination, miosis, bradycardia, lacrimation, sweating salivation) after eating reef fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

scombroid poisoning

A

burning sensation in mouth, flushing of face, erythema, urticaria, pruritus, headache; anaphylaxis-like presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

albuterol use

A

acute asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

salmeterol use

A

long-term asthma, COPD control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

dobutamine use

A

heart failure (inotropic> chronotropic), cardiac stress testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

dopamine use

A

unstable bradycardia, HF, shock; inotropic/chronotropic effects predominate at high dosese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

epinephrine use

A

anaphylaxis, asthma, open-angle glaucoma (alpha effects predominate at high doses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

isoproterenol use

A

electrophysiologic evaluation of tachyarrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

norepinephrine use

A

hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

phenylephrine use

A

hypotension (vasoconstrictor), dilates pupils, decongestant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

amphetamine use

A

narcolepsy, obesity, ADHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

cocaine use

A

vasoconstriction, local anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

ephedrine use

A

nasal decongestant, urinary incontinence, hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

clonidine use

A

hypertensive urgency, ADHD, Tourettes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

_-methyldopa use

A

hypertension in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

phenoxybenzamine use

A

used pre-op before pheochromocytoma surgery to prevent catecholamine/hypertensive crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

phentolamine use

A

for patients on MAO inhibitors who eat tyramine-containing foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

prazosin use

A

BPH urinary symptoms; PTSD; hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

terazosin use

A

BPH urinary symptoms; hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

doxazosin use

A

BPH urinary symptoms; hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

tamsulosin use

A

BPH urinary symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

mirtazapine use

A

depresson, increases appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

metoprolol use

A

angina pectoris, MI (dec mortaility), SVT, hypertension, HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

esmolol use

A

angina pectoris, SVT, hypertension, HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

carvedilol use

A

angina pectoris, MI (dec mortaility), hypertension, HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

timolol use

A

glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

toxin use

A

antidote/treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

acetaminophen antidote

A

N-acetylcysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

AchE inhibitors antidote

A

atropine, pralidoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

organophosphates antidote

A

atropine, pralidoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

amphetamines antidote

A

NH4Cl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

antimuscarinic agents antidote

A

physostigmine salicylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

anticholinergic agents antidote

A

physostigmine salicylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

benzodiazepines antidote

A

flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

beta blockers antidote

A

glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

carbon monoxide antidote

A

100% O2, hyperbaric O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

copper, arsenic, gold antidote

A

penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

cyanide antidote

A

nitrite+ thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

digitalis (Digoxin) antidote

A

anti-dig Fab fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

heparin antidote

A

protamine sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

iron antidote

A

deferoxamine, deferasirox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

lead antidote

A

EDTA, dimercaprol, succimer, pencillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

mercury, arsenic, gold antidote

A

dimercaprol (BAL), succimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

methanol antidote

A

fomepizole, ethanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

ethylene glycol antidote

A

fomepizole, ethanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

methemoglobin antidote

A

methylene blue, vitamin c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

opioids antidote

A

naloxone, naltrexone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

salicylates antidote

A

sodium bicarb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

TCAs antidote

A

sodium bicarb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

tPA, streptokinase, urokinase antidote

A

aminocaproic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

warfarin antidote

A

FFP, vit K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Inspiration does what to flow to the heart

A

increased venous return to RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Hand Grip does what to flow to the heart

A

increases afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

valsalva (phase II)does what to flow to the heart

A

decreased preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

standing up does what to flow to the heart

A

decreased preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

rapid squatting does what to flow to the heart

A

increased venous return, increased preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Inspiration changes heart sounds how?

A

increased intensity of right heart sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Hand Grip changes heart sounds how?

A

increased intensity of MR, AR, VSD murmursdecreased intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmur MVP: later onset of click/murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

valsalva (phase II) changes heart sounds how?

A

decreased intensity of most murmurs (inc. AS)increased intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmurMVP: earlier onset of click/murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

standing up changes heart sounds how?

A

decreased intensity of most murmurs (inc. AS)increased intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmurMVP: earlier onset of click/murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

rapid squatting changes heart sounds how?

A

decreased intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmur increased intensity of AS murmurMVP: later onset of click/murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Alcohol exposure in utero

A

VSD, PDA, ASD, TOF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

congenital rubella

A

septal defects, PDA, pulmonary artery stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Down syndrome

A

AV septal defect (endocardial cushion defect), ASD, VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Infant of Diabetic Mother

A

Transposition of the great vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Marfan

A

MVP, thoracic aortic aneurysm and dissection, aortic regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

prenatal lithium exposure

A

Ebstein anomaly (tricuspid valve anomaly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Turner syndrome

A

coarctation of the aorta, bicuspid aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Williams Syndrome

A

supravalvular aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

22q11 (Di George)

A

truncus arteriosus, TOF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

VSD is associated with

A

alcohol exposure, Down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

PDA is associated with

A

alcohol exposure, Down syndrome, congenital rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

TGA is associated with

A

infants of diabetic mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

truncus arteriosus is associated with

A

digeorge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

coarctation of the aorta is associated with

A

Turner syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

TOF is associated with

A

alcohol exposure, DiGeorge

127
Q

ASD is associated with

A

Down syndrome, alcohol exposure

128
Q

dihydropyridines except nimodipine

A

act on vascular smooth musle (vs. non-dihydropyridines which act on heart)

block voltage dependent L-type calcium channels of smooth muscle–> decrease muscle contractility

129
Q

nimodipine

A

(dihydropyridine)
acts on vascular smooth musle (vs. non-dihydropyridines which act on heart)

block voltage dependent L-type calcium channels of smooth muscle–> decrease muscle contractility

130
Q

clevidipine

A

(dihydropyridine)
acts on vascular smooth musle (vs. non-dihydropyridines which act on heart)

block voltage dependent L-type calcium channels of smooth muscle–> decrease muscle contractility

131
Q

verapamil

A

(non-dihydropyridine); class IV antiarrhythmic

acts on heart

block voltage dependent L-type calcium channels of cardiac muscle–> decrease muscle contractility

decrease conduction velocity, increase refractory period, increase PR interval

132
Q

diltiazem

A

(non-dihydropyridine); class IV antiarrhythmic

acts on heart

block voltage dependent L-type calcium channels of cardiac muscle–> decrease muscle contractility

decrease conduction velocity, increase refractory period, increase PR interval

133
Q

hydralazine

A

increases cGMP–> smooth muscle relaxation; vasodilation of arterioles > veins –> results in reduced afterload

134
Q

nitroprusside

A

increases cGMP by directly releasing NO

135
Q

fenoldopam

A

dopamine D1 receptor agonist–> coronary, peripheral, renal, splanchnic vasodilation–> decreased BP, increased natriuresis

136
Q

nitrates (nitroglycerin, isosorbide dinitrate, isosorbide mononitrate)

A

increase NO in vascular smooth muscle–> increase in cGMP and smooth muscle relaxation (veins&raquo_space; arteries, decreased preload)

137
Q

lovastatin, simvastatin, etc

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

inhibits conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate (cholesterol precursor)

DECREASES LDL, some decrease in TG, some increase in HDL

138
Q

cholestyramine

A

bile acid resin

prevents intestinal reabsorption of bile acids; liver must use cholesterol to make more

decreases LDL, slight increase in HDL, slight increase in TG (not good)

139
Q

colestipol

A

bile acid resin

prevents intestinal reabsorption of bile acids; liver must use cholesterol to make more

decreases LDL, slight increase in HDL, slight increase in TG (not good)

140
Q

colesevelam

A

bile acid resin

prevents intestinal reabsorption of bile acids; liver must use cholesterol to make more

decreases LDL, slight increase in HDL, slight increase in TG (not good)

141
Q

ezetimibe

A

prevents cholesterol absorption at the small intestine brush border

decreases LDL

142
Q

gemifibrozil

A

fibrate

upregulates LPL–> increased triglyceride clearance
activates PPARalpha to induce HDL synthesis

DECREASES TGs, some decrease in LDL, some increase in HDL

143
Q

clofibrate

A

fibrate

upregulates LPL–> increased triglyceride clearance
activates PPARalpha to induce HDL synthesis

DECREASES TGs, some decrease in LDL, some increase in HDL

144
Q

benzafibrate

A

fibrate

upregulates LPL–> increased triglyceride clearance
activates PPARalpha to induce HDL synthesis

DECREASES TGs, some decrease in LDL, some increase in HDL

145
Q

fenofibrate

A

fibrate

upregulates LPL–> increased triglyceride clearance
activates PPARalpha to induce HDL synthesis

DECREASES TGs, some decrease in LDL, some increase in HDL

146
Q

Niacin (Vit b3)

A

inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue; reduces hepatic VLDL synthesis

decreases LDL, increases HDL, slight decrease in TG

147
Q

digoxin

A

cardiac glycoside

direct inhibitition of Na/K ATPase –> indirect inhibition of the Na/Ca exchanger–> increased intracellular calcium–> positive inotropy

stimulates vagus nerve–> decreased heart rate

148
Q

quinidine

A

sodium channel blockers (class Ia)

slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization

state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized– eg tachycardia)

increase AP duration, increase effective refractory period in ventricular action, prolong QT interval

149
Q

procainamide

A

sodium channel blockers (class Ia)

slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization

state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized– eg tachycardia)

increase AP duration, increase effective refractory period in ventricular action, prolong QT interval

150
Q

disopyramide

A

sodium channel blockers (class Ia)

slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization

state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized– eg tachycardia)

increase AP duration, increase effective refractory period in ventricular action, prolong QT interval

151
Q

lidocaine

A

sodium channel blockers (class Ib)

slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization

state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized– eg tachycardia)

decreases AP duration, preferentially affects ischemic or depolarized purkinje and ventricular tissue

152
Q

mexiletine

A

sodium channel blockers (class Ib)

slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization

state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized– eg tachycardia)

decreases AP duration, preferentially affects ischemic or depolarized purkinje and ventricular tissue

153
Q

flecainide

A

sodium channel blockers (class IC)

slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization

state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized– eg tachycardia)

significantly prolongs effective refractory period in AV node and accessory bypass tracts; no effect in Purkinje or ventricular tissue; minimal effect on AP duration

154
Q

propafenone

A

sodium channel blockers (class IC)

slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization

state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized– eg tachycardia)

significantly prolongs effective refractory period in AV node and accessory bypass tracts; no effect in Purkinje or ventricular tissue; minimal effect on AP duration

155
Q

metoprolol

A

beta blockers (class II)

decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4

AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval

156
Q

propanolol

A

beta blockers (class II)

decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4

AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval

157
Q

esmolol

A

beta blockers (class II)

decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4

AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval

VERY SHORT ACTING

158
Q

atenolol

A

beta blockers (class II)

decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4

AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval

159
Q

timolol

A

beta blockers (class II)

decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4

AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval

160
Q

carvedilol

A

beta blockers (class II)

decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4

AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval

161
Q

amiodarone

A

potassium channel blockers (class III)

increases AP duration, increases refractory period, and increases QT interval

162
Q

ibutilide

A

potassium channel blockers (class III)

increases AP duration, increases refractory period, and increases QT interval

163
Q

dofetilide

A

potassium channel blockers (class III)

increases AP duration, increases refractory period, and increases QT interval

164
Q

sotalol

A

potassium channel blockers (class III)

increases AP duration, increases refractory period, and increases QT interval

165
Q

adenosine

A

increased K+ efflux from cells–> hyperpolarizes cell–> decreases calcium influx

166
Q

dihydropyridines except nimodipine

A

hypertension, angina (inc. Prinzmetal), Raynaud phenomenon

167
Q

nimodipine

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage (prevents cerebral vasospasm)

168
Q

clevidipine

A

hypertensive urgency or emergency

169
Q

verapamil

A

hypertension, angina, atrial fibrillation/flutter

prevention of nodal arrhythmias (SVT), rate control in a fib

170
Q

diltiazem

A

hypertension, angina, atrial fibrillation/flutter

prevention of nodal arrhythmias (SVT), rate control in a fib

171
Q

hydralazine

A

severe, acute HTN, heart failure

safe to use in pregnancy

172
Q

nitroprusside

A

hypertensive emergency

173
Q

fenoldopam

A

hypertensive emergency

174
Q

nitrates (nitroglycerin, isosorbide dinitrate, isosorbide mononitrate)

A

angina, acute coronary artery syndrome, pulmonary edema

175
Q

lovastatin, simvastatin, etc

A

lipid lowering agent

176
Q

cholestyramine

A

lipid lowering agent

177
Q

colestipol

A

lipid lowering agent

178
Q

colesevelam

A

lipid lowering agent

179
Q

ezetimibe

A

lipid lowering agent

180
Q

gemifibrozil

A

lipid lowering agent

181
Q

clofibrate

A

lipid lowering agent

182
Q

benzafibrate

A

lipid lowering agent

183
Q

fenofibrate

A

lipid lowering agent

184
Q

Niacin (Vit b3)

A

hyperlipidemia

185
Q

digoxin

A

heart failure (increased contractility), a fib (decreased conduction at AV note, depression of SA node)

186
Q

quinidine

A

atrial and ventricular arrhythmias; reentrant and ectopic SVT and VT

187
Q

procainamide

A

atrial and ventricular arrhythmias; reentrant and ectopic SVT and VT

188
Q

disopyramide

A

atrial and ventricular arrhythmias; reentrant and ectopic SVT and VT

189
Q

lidocaine

A

acute ventricular arrhythmias (especially post-MI), digitalis-induced arrhythmias

190
Q

mexiletine

A

acute ventricular arrhythmias (especially post-MI), digitalis-induced arrhythmias

191
Q

flecainide

A

SVT (inc. a fib)

192
Q

propafenone

A

SVT (inc. a fib)

193
Q

metoprolol

A

SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter

194
Q

propanolol

A

SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter

195
Q

esmolol

A

SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter

196
Q

atenolol

A

SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter

197
Q

timolol

A

SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter

198
Q

carvedilol

A

SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter

199
Q

amiodarone

A

a fib, a flutter, ventricular tachycardia

200
Q

ibutilide

A

a fib, a flutter

201
Q

dofetilide

A

a fib, a flutter

202
Q

sotalol

A

a fib, a flutter, ventricular tachycardia

203
Q

adenosine

A

diagnosis and stopping SVT

very short acting

204
Q

magnesium

A

torsades de points and digoxin toxicity

205
Q

with which conditions do you have a failure to agglutinate with ristocetin assay?

A

vWD and Bernard-Soulier syndrome

206
Q

t(8;14)

A

Burkitt Lymphoma

207
Q

t(9;22)

A

CML

208
Q

t(11;14)

A

mantle cell lymphoma

209
Q

t(14;18)

A

follicular lymphoma

210
Q

t(15;17)

A

M3 type of AML

211
Q

Medication

A

Effect on fetus

212
Q

ACE inhibitors

A

renal damage

213
Q

alkylating agents

A

absence of digits, multiple anomalies

214
Q

aminoglycosides

A

CN VIII toxicity (deafness)

215
Q

carbamazepine

A

facial dysmorphism, developmental delay, neural tube defects, phalanx/fingernail hypoplasia

216
Q

Diethylstilbestrol (DES)

A

vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma, congenital mullerian anomalies

217
Q

folate antagonists

A

neural tube defects

218
Q

isoretinoin

A

multiple birth defects

219
Q

lithium

A

ebstein anomaly (atrialized RV)

220
Q

methimazole

A

aplasia cutis congenita

221
Q

phenytoin

A

fetal hydantoin syndrome- cleft palate, cardiac defects, phalanx/fingernail hypoplasia

222
Q

tetracyclines

A

discolored teeth

223
Q

thalidomide

A

limb defects (flipper limbs)

224
Q

valproate

A

inhibition of maternal folate absorption (–> neural tube defects)

225
Q

warfarin

A

bone deformities, fetal hemorrhage, abortion, ophthalmologic abnormalities

226
Q

alcohol

A

FAS

227
Q

cocaine

A

abnormal fetal growth, fetal addiction, placental abruption

228
Q

smoking

A

low birth weight, preterm labor, placental problems, IUGR, ADHD

229
Q

iodine (lack or excess)

A

congenital goiter or hypothyroidism

230
Q

maternal diabetes

A

caudal regression syndrome, congenital heart defects, neural tube defects

231
Q

vitamin A excess

A

high risk for SAB and birth defects

232
Q

x-rays

A

microcephaly, intellectual disability

233
Q

vagina

A

stratified squamous epithelium, non-keratinized

234
Q

ectocervix

A

stratified squamous epithelium, non-keratinized

235
Q

transformation zone

A

squamocolumnar junction (MC area for cervical cancer)

236
Q

endocervix

A

simple columnar epithelium

237
Q

uterus

A

simple pseudostratified columnar epithelium; long tubular glands in follicular phase and coiled glands in the luteal phase

238
Q

fallopian tube

A

simple columnar epithelium, ciliated; peg cells secrete nutrients

239
Q

ovary outer surface

A

simple cuboidal epithelium (aka germinal epithelium)

240
Q

demeclocycline

A

ADH antagonist

241
Q

somatostatin (octreotide)

A

basically stops the secretion of a bunch of hormones; reduces acid secretion from parietal cells, suppresses release of gastrin and CCK, inhibits release of glucagon

242
Q

canagliflozin (SGLT-2 inhibitor)

A

block reabsorption of glucose in the proximal collecting tubule

243
Q

conivaptan, tolvaptan (ADH antagonist)

A

blocks action of ADH at the V2 receptor

244
Q

methimazole

A

blocks thyroid peroxidase–> inhibits oxidation of iodide and coupling of iodine–> inhibition of thyroid hormone synthesis

245
Q

propylthiouracil

A

blocks thyroid peroxidase–> inhibits oxidation of iodide and coupling of iodine–> inhibition of thyroid hormone synthesis

also blocks 5’-deiodase which decreases peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

246
Q

chlorpropamide (1st gen sulfonylurea)

A

closes K+ channel in the beta cell–> cell depolarization–> calcium influx–> insulin release

247
Q

tolbutamide (1st gen sulfonylurea)

A

closes K+ channel in the beta cell–> cell depolarization–> calcium influx–> insulin release

248
Q

glimepiride (2nd gen sulfoylurea)

A

closes K+ channel in the beta cell–> cell depolarization–> calcium influx–> insulin release

249
Q

glipizide (2nd gen sulfoylurea)

A

closes K+ channel in the beta cell–> cell depolarization–> calcium influx–> insulin release

250
Q

glyburide (2nd gen sulfoylurea)

A

closes K+ channel in the beta cell–> cell depolarization–> calcium influx–> insulin release

251
Q

pramlintide (amylin analogs)

A

decreased gastric emptying, decreased glucagon

252
Q

Metformin (biguanide)

A

decreases gluconeogenesis, increases glycolysis, increases peripheral glucose uptake (increases insulin sensitivity)

253
Q

pioglitazone, rosiglitazone (glitazones, thiazolidinediones)

A

increased insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissue (via binding to PPAR-y which regulates fatty acid storage and glucose metabolism)

254
Q

exenatide (GLP-1 analog)

A

increases insulin release and decreases glucagon release

255
Q

liraglutide (GLP-1 analog)

A

increases insulin release and decreases glucagon release

256
Q

linagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor)

A

increases insulin release and decreases glucagon release

257
Q

saxagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor)

A

increases insulin release and decreases glucagon release

258
Q

sitagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor)

A

increases insulin release and decreases glucagon release

259
Q

acarbose (alpha-glucosidase inhibitor)

A

inhibits intestinal bursh border alpha-glucosidases (which normally breaks down starches into glucose)–> delayed carbohydrate hydrolysis and glucose absorption–> decreased postprandial hyperglycemia

260
Q

glucocorticoids

A

interactions with glucocorticoid response elements, inhibition of phospholipase A2, inhibition of transcription factors such as NF-KB

261
Q

cinacalcet

A

sensitizes calcium sensing receptor (CaSR) in parathyroid gland to circulating calcium–> decreased PTH release

262
Q

Microcytic Anemias

A

Iron deficiency, anemia of chronic disease, thalassemias, lead poisoning, sideroblastic anemia

263
Q

normocytic, non-hemolytic anemia (nml to low retic count)

A

anemia of chronic disease, aplastic anemia, chronic kidney disease, early iron deficiency anemia, pure red cell aplasia

264
Q

normocytic, hemolytic anemia (increased retic count)- INTRINSIC

A

hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency, pyruvate kinase deficiency, HbC defect, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, sickle cell anemia

265
Q

normocytic, hemolytic anemia (increased retic count)- EXTRINSIC

A

autoimmune, microangiopathic, macroangiopathic, infections

266
Q

macrocytic, megaloblastic

A

folate deficiency, B12 deficiency, orotic aciduria

267
Q

macrocytic, non-megaloblastic

A

liver disease, alcoholism, reticulocytosis

268
Q

RBC casts are seen in which 2 conditions?

A

glomerulonephritis, malignant hypertension

269
Q

WBC cast are seen in which 3 conditions?

A

tubulointerstitial inflammation, acute pyelonephritis, transplant rejection

270
Q

fatty casts (oval fat bodies) are seen in which condition?

A

nephrotic syndrome

271
Q

granular (muddy brown) casts are seen in which condition?

A

acute tubular necrosis

272
Q

waxy casts are seen in which condition?

A

end-stage renal disease/ chronich renal failure

273
Q

hyaline casts are seen in which condition?

A

nonspecific, can be normal finding, often seen in concentrated urine samples

274
Q

what casts are found in glomerulonephritis?

A

RBC casts

275
Q

what casts are found in malignant hypertension?

A

RBC casts

276
Q

what casts are found in tubulointerstitial inflammation?

A

WBC casts

277
Q

what casts are found in acute pyelonephritis?

A

WBC casts

278
Q

what casts are found in transplant rejection?

A

WBC casts

279
Q

what casts are found in nephrotic syndrome?

A

fatty casts

280
Q

what casts are found in acute tubular necrosis?

A

granular, muddy brown casts

281
Q

what casts are found in ESRD?

A

waxy casts

282
Q

arginine

A

nitric oxide

283
Q

arginine+ aspartate

A

urea

284
Q

glycine+ succinyl coa

A

heme

285
Q

glycine + arginine + sam

A

creatinine

286
Q

glutamate

A

gaba

287
Q

gluatmate

A

glutathione

288
Q

glutamate + aspartate

A

pyrimidines

289
Q

glutamate + aspartate + glycine

A

pryimidines

290
Q

histidine

A

histamine

291
Q

phenylalanine

A

tyrosine (–>DOPA–> DOPAMINE)

292
Q

tryptophan

A

serotonin (–> melatonin)

293
Q

tryptophan

A

niacin

294
Q

tyrosine

A

thyroxine, melanin

295
Q

acanthocyte (spur cell)

A

liver disease, abetalipoproteinemia

296
Q

basophilic stippling

A

lead disease

297
Q

degmacyte (bite cell)

A

G6PD deficiency

298
Q

elliptocyte

A

heretidary elliptocytosis

299
Q

macro-ovalocyte

A

megaloblastic anemia

300
Q

ringed sideroblast

A

sideroblastic anemia (excess iron in mitochondria=pathologic)

301
Q

shistocyte (helmet cell)

A

DIC, TTP/HUS, HELLP, mechanical hemolysis

302
Q

sickle cell

A

sickle cell anemia

303
Q

spherocyte

A

hereditary spherocytosis, drug and infection induced hemolytic anemia

304
Q

dacrocyte (teardrop cell)

A

bone marrow infiltration (myelofibrosis)

305
Q

target cell

A

HbC disease, asplenia, liver disease, thalassemia (HALT)

306
Q

heinz bodies

A

preciptiation of Hb–> leads to bite cells; see in G6PD deficiency and also alpha thalassemia

307
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies

A

basophilic nuclear remnants unable to be cleared by spenic macrophages; seen in functional asplenia or asplenia

308
Q

S-100 is a marker for?

A

melanoma, langerhans cell histiocytosis (mesodermal origin)

309
Q

What causes methemoglobin

A

nitrates, benzocaine

310
Q

psammoma bodies?

A

mesothelioma, ovarian serous cystadenocarcinomas, meningiomas, papillary thyroid carcinoma

311
Q

what cases methemoglobin?

A

nitrites, benzocaine

312
Q

what kind of shift does carboxyhemoglobin cause?

A

LEFT SHIFT! (decreased O2 binding capacity)

313
Q

what is caplan syndrome

A

pneumoconiosis w/ intrapulmonary nodules and RA

STEP 1 (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions