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MIX Flashcards

1
Q

Von Gierke Disease (type I) mutated enzyme

A

glucose-6-phosphatatse

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2
Q

Pompe disease (type II) mutated enzyme

A

lysosomal alpha-1,4-glucosidase

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3
Q

Cori Disease (type III) mutated enzyme

A

debranching enzyme (alpha-1,6-glucosidase)

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4
Q

McArdle disease (type V) mutated enzyme

A

skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase

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5
Q

Fabry disease mutated enzyme

A

alpha-galactosidease

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6
Q

Gaucher disease mutated enzyme

A

glucocerebrosidase

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7
Q

Niemann-Pick mutated enzyme

A

sphingomyelinase

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8
Q

Tay-Sachs mutated enzyme

A

hexosaminidase A

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9
Q

Krabbe disease mutated enzyme

A

galactrocerebrosidase

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10
Q

metachromic leukodystrophy mutated enzyme

A

arylsulfatase A

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11
Q

Hurler syndrome mutated enzyme

A

alpha-L-iduronidase

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12
Q

Hunter syndrome mutated enzyme

A

iduronate sulfatase

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13
Q

_1 (alpha1) receptor action

A

increase vascular smooth muscle contraction, increase pupillary dilator muscle contraction (mydriasis), increase intestinal and bladder sphincter muscle contraction

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14
Q

_2 (alpha2)receptor action

A

decrease sympathetic outflow, decrease insulin reslease, decrease lipolysis, increase platelet aggregation, decrease aqueous humor production

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15
Q

_1 (beta1) receptor action

A

increase heart rate, increase contractility, increase renin release, increase lipolysis

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16
Q

_2 (beta2) receptor action

A

vasodilation, bronchodilation, increase lipolysis, increase insulin release, decrease uterine tone (tocolysis), ciliary muscle relaxation, increase aqueous humor production

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17
Q

M1 receptor action

A

CNS, enteric nervous system

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18
Q

M2 receptor action

A

decrease heart rate and contractility of atria

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19
Q

M3 receptor action

A

increase exocrine gland secretions (lacrimal, salivary, gastric acid), increase peristalsis of gut, increase bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction, increase pupillary sphincter muscle contraction (miosis), ciliary muscle contraction (accomodation)

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20
Q

D1 receptor action

A

relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle

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21
Q

D2 receptor action

A

modulates transmitter release, especially in the brain

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22
Q

H1 receptor action

A

increases nasal and bronchial mucus production, increase vascular permeability, contraction of bronchioles, pruritus, pain

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23
Q

H2 receptor action

A

increase gastric acid secretion

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24
Q

V1 receptor action

A

increase vascular smooth muscle contraction

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25
Q

V2 receptor action

A

increased H2O permeability and reabsorption in collecting tubules of the kidney

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26
Q

bethanechol use

A

post-op ileus, neurogenic ileus, urinary retention

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27
Q

carbachol use

A

constricts pupil, relieves intraocular pressure in glaucomoa

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28
Q

methacholine use

A

challenge test for asthma dx

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29
Q

pilocarpine use

A

open angle and closed angle glaucoma

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30
Q

donepezil use

A

alzheimer disease

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31
Q

galantamine use

A

alzheimer disease

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32
Q

rivastigmine use

A

alzheimer disease

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33
Q

edrophonium use

A

historically used to diagnose myasthenia gravis

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34
Q

neostigmine use

A

post-op ileus, neurogenic ileus, urinary retention, myasthenia gravis, reversal of neuromuscular junction blockade post-op

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35
Q

physostigmine use

A

used to treat anticholinergic toxicity (ie atropine tox, TCA od); is able to cross BBB

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36
Q

pyridostigmine use

A

myasthenia gravis

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37
Q

atropine use

A

eye: mydriasis (pupillary dilation), hard to seeairway: decreased secretionsstomach: decreased acid secretiongut: decreased motilitybladder: decreased urgency

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38
Q

homatropine use

A

eye: mydriasis (pupillary dilation), hard to see

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39
Q

tropicamide use

A

eye: mydriasis (pupillary dilation), hard to see

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40
Q

benztropine use

A

Parkinson disease; acute dystonia

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41
Q

glycopyrrolate use

A

GI (oral administration): drooling, peptic ulcerrespiratory (parenteral administration): pre-op to reduce secretions

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42
Q

hyoscyamine use

A

GI: antispasmotic for IBS

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43
Q

dicyclomine use

A

GI: antispasmotic for IBS

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44
Q

ipatropium use

A

respiratory: COPD, asthma

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45
Q

tiopropium use

A

respiratory: COPD, asthma

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46
Q

oxybutynin use

A

GU: reduce bladder spasm and urge incontinence (overactive bladder)

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47
Q

solifenacin use

A

GU: reduce bladder spasm and urge incontinence (overactive bladder)

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48
Q

tolterodine use

A

GU: reduce bladder spasm and urge incontinence (overactive bladder)

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49
Q

scopalamine use

A

CNS: motion sickness

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50
Q

tetrodotoxin symptoms

A

nausea, vomiting, paresthesias, weakness, dizziness, loss of reflexes after eating poorly prepared pufferfish

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51
Q

ciguatoxin symptoms

A

temperature related dysesthesia (Cold feels hot)= specific finding; otherwise looks like cholinergic poisoning (diarrhea, urination, miosis, bradycardia, lacrimation, sweating salivation) after eating reef fish

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52
Q

scombroid poisoning

A

burning sensation in mouth, flushing of face, erythema, urticaria, pruritus, headache; anaphylaxis-like presentation

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53
Q

albuterol use

A

acute asthma

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54
Q

salmeterol use

A

long-term asthma, COPD control

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55
Q

dobutamine use

A

heart failure (inotropic> chronotropic), cardiac stress testing

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56
Q

dopamine use

A

unstable bradycardia, HF, shock; inotropic/chronotropic effects predominate at high dosese

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57
Q

epinephrine use

A

anaphylaxis, asthma, open-angle glaucoma (alpha effects predominate at high doses)

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58
Q

isoproterenol use

A

electrophysiologic evaluation of tachyarrhythmias

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59
Q

norepinephrine use

A

hypotension

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60
Q

phenylephrine use

A

hypotension (vasoconstrictor), dilates pupils, decongestant

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61
Q

amphetamine use

A

narcolepsy, obesity, ADHD

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62
Q

cocaine use

A

vasoconstriction, local anesthesia

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63
Q

ephedrine use

A

nasal decongestant, urinary incontinence, hypotension

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64
Q

clonidine use

A

hypertensive urgency, ADHD, Tourettes

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65
Q

_-methyldopa use

A

hypertension in pregnancy

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66
Q

phenoxybenzamine use

A

used pre-op before pheochromocytoma surgery to prevent catecholamine/hypertensive crisis

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67
Q

phentolamine use

A

for patients on MAO inhibitors who eat tyramine-containing foods

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68
Q

prazosin use

A

BPH urinary symptoms; PTSD; hypertension

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69
Q

terazosin use

A

BPH urinary symptoms; hypertension

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70
Q

doxazosin use

A

BPH urinary symptoms; hypertension

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71
Q

tamsulosin use

A

BPH urinary symptoms

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72
Q

mirtazapine use

A

depresson, increases appetite

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73
Q

metoprolol use

A

angina pectoris, MI (dec mortaility), SVT, hypertension, HF

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74
Q

esmolol use

A

angina pectoris, SVT, hypertension, HF

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75
Q

carvedilol use

A

angina pectoris, MI (dec mortaility), hypertension, HF

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76
Q

timolol use

A

glaucoma

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77
Q

toxin use

A

antidote/treatment

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78
Q

acetaminophen antidote

A

N-acetylcysteine

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79
Q

AchE inhibitors antidote

A

atropine, pralidoxime

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80
Q

organophosphates antidote

A

atropine, pralidoxime

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81
Q

amphetamines antidote

A

NH4Cl

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82
Q

antimuscarinic agents antidote

A

physostigmine salicylate

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83
Q

anticholinergic agents antidote

A

physostigmine salicylate

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84
Q

benzodiazepines antidote

A

flumazenil

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85
Q

beta blockers antidote

A

glucagon

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86
Q

carbon monoxide antidote

A

100% O2, hyperbaric O2

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87
Q

copper, arsenic, gold antidote

A

penicillamine

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88
Q

cyanide antidote

A

nitrite+ thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin

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89
Q

digitalis (Digoxin) antidote

A

anti-dig Fab fragments

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90
Q

heparin antidote

A

protamine sulfate

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91
Q

iron antidote

A

deferoxamine, deferasirox

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92
Q

lead antidote

A

EDTA, dimercaprol, succimer, pencillamine

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93
Q

mercury, arsenic, gold antidote

A

dimercaprol (BAL), succimer

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94
Q

methanol antidote

A

fomepizole, ethanol

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95
Q

ethylene glycol antidote

A

fomepizole, ethanol

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96
Q

methemoglobin antidote

A

methylene blue, vitamin c

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97
Q

opioids antidote

A

naloxone, naltrexone

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98
Q

salicylates antidote

A

sodium bicarb

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99
Q

TCAs antidote

A

sodium bicarb

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100
Q

tPA, streptokinase, urokinase antidote

A

aminocaproic acid

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101
Q

warfarin antidote

A

FFP, vit K

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102
Q

Inspiration does what to flow to the heart

A

increased venous return to RA

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103
Q

Hand Grip does what to flow to the heart

A

increases afterload

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104
Q

valsalva (phase II)does what to flow to the heart

A

decreased preload

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105
Q

standing up does what to flow to the heart

A

decreased preload

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106
Q

rapid squatting does what to flow to the heart

A

increased venous return, increased preload

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107
Q

Inspiration changes heart sounds how?

A

increased intensity of right heart sounds

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108
Q

Hand Grip changes heart sounds how?

A

increased intensity of MR, AR, VSD murmursdecreased intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmur MVP: later onset of click/murmur

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109
Q

valsalva (phase II) changes heart sounds how?

A

decreased intensity of most murmurs (inc. AS)increased intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmurMVP: earlier onset of click/murmur

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110
Q

standing up changes heart sounds how?

A

decreased intensity of most murmurs (inc. AS)increased intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmurMVP: earlier onset of click/murmur

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111
Q

rapid squatting changes heart sounds how?

A

decreased intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmur increased intensity of AS murmurMVP: later onset of click/murmur

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112
Q

Alcohol exposure in utero

A

VSD, PDA, ASD, TOF

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113
Q

congenital rubella

A

septal defects, PDA, pulmonary artery stenosis

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114
Q

Down syndrome

A

AV septal defect (endocardial cushion defect), ASD, VSD

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115
Q

Infant of Diabetic Mother

A

Transposition of the great vessels

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116
Q

Marfan

A

MVP, thoracic aortic aneurysm and dissection, aortic regurg

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117
Q

prenatal lithium exposure

A

Ebstein anomaly (tricuspid valve anomaly)

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118
Q

Turner syndrome

A

coarctation of the aorta, bicuspid aortic valve

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119
Q

Williams Syndrome

A

supravalvular aortic stenosis

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120
Q

22q11 (Di George)

A

truncus arteriosus, TOF

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121
Q

VSD is associated with

A

alcohol exposure, Down syndrome

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122
Q

PDA is associated with

A

alcohol exposure, Down syndrome, congenital rubella

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123
Q

TGA is associated with

A

infants of diabetic mother

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124
Q

truncus arteriosus is associated with

A

digeorge

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125
Q

coarctation of the aorta is associated with

A

Turner syndrome

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126
Q

TOF is associated with

A

alcohol exposure, DiGeorge

127
Q

ASD is associated with

A

Down syndrome, alcohol exposure

128
Q

dihydropyridines except nimodipine

A

act on vascular smooth musle (vs. non-dihydropyridines which act on heart)

block voltage dependent L-type calcium channels of smooth muscle–> decrease muscle contractility

129
Q

nimodipine

A

(dihydropyridine)
acts on vascular smooth musle (vs. non-dihydropyridines which act on heart)

block voltage dependent L-type calcium channels of smooth muscle–> decrease muscle contractility

130
Q

clevidipine

A

(dihydropyridine)
acts on vascular smooth musle (vs. non-dihydropyridines which act on heart)

block voltage dependent L-type calcium channels of smooth muscle–> decrease muscle contractility

131
Q

verapamil

A

(non-dihydropyridine); class IV antiarrhythmic

acts on heart

block voltage dependent L-type calcium channels of cardiac muscle–> decrease muscle contractility

decrease conduction velocity, increase refractory period, increase PR interval

132
Q

diltiazem

A

(non-dihydropyridine); class IV antiarrhythmic

acts on heart

block voltage dependent L-type calcium channels of cardiac muscle–> decrease muscle contractility

decrease conduction velocity, increase refractory period, increase PR interval

133
Q

hydralazine

A

increases cGMP–> smooth muscle relaxation; vasodilation of arterioles > veins –> results in reduced afterload

134
Q

nitroprusside

A

increases cGMP by directly releasing NO

135
Q

fenoldopam

A

dopamine D1 receptor agonist–> coronary, peripheral, renal, splanchnic vasodilation–> decreased BP, increased natriuresis

136
Q

nitrates (nitroglycerin, isosorbide dinitrate, isosorbide mononitrate)

A

increase NO in vascular smooth muscle–> increase in cGMP and smooth muscle relaxation (veins&raquo_space; arteries, decreased preload)

137
Q

lovastatin, simvastatin, etc

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

inhibits conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate (cholesterol precursor)

DECREASES LDL, some decrease in TG, some increase in HDL

138
Q

cholestyramine

A

bile acid resin

prevents intestinal reabsorption of bile acids; liver must use cholesterol to make more

decreases LDL, slight increase in HDL, slight increase in TG (not good)

139
Q

colestipol

A

bile acid resin

prevents intestinal reabsorption of bile acids; liver must use cholesterol to make more

decreases LDL, slight increase in HDL, slight increase in TG (not good)

140
Q

colesevelam

A

bile acid resin

prevents intestinal reabsorption of bile acids; liver must use cholesterol to make more

decreases LDL, slight increase in HDL, slight increase in TG (not good)

141
Q

ezetimibe

A

prevents cholesterol absorption at the small intestine brush border

decreases LDL

142
Q

gemifibrozil

A

fibrate

upregulates LPL–> increased triglyceride clearance
activates PPARalpha to induce HDL synthesis

DECREASES TGs, some decrease in LDL, some increase in HDL

143
Q

clofibrate

A

fibrate

upregulates LPL–> increased triglyceride clearance
activates PPARalpha to induce HDL synthesis

DECREASES TGs, some decrease in LDL, some increase in HDL

144
Q

benzafibrate

A

fibrate

upregulates LPL–> increased triglyceride clearance
activates PPARalpha to induce HDL synthesis

DECREASES TGs, some decrease in LDL, some increase in HDL

145
Q

fenofibrate

A

fibrate

upregulates LPL–> increased triglyceride clearance
activates PPARalpha to induce HDL synthesis

DECREASES TGs, some decrease in LDL, some increase in HDL

146
Q

Niacin (Vit b3)

A

inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue; reduces hepatic VLDL synthesis

decreases LDL, increases HDL, slight decrease in TG

147
Q

digoxin

A

cardiac glycoside

direct inhibitition of Na/K ATPase –> indirect inhibition of the Na/Ca exchanger–> increased intracellular calcium–> positive inotropy

stimulates vagus nerve–> decreased heart rate

148
Q

quinidine

A

sodium channel blockers (class Ia)

slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization

state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized– eg tachycardia)

increase AP duration, increase effective refractory period in ventricular action, prolong QT interval

149
Q

procainamide

A

sodium channel blockers (class Ia)

slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization

state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized– eg tachycardia)

increase AP duration, increase effective refractory period in ventricular action, prolong QT interval

150
Q

disopyramide

A

sodium channel blockers (class Ia)

slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization

state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized– eg tachycardia)

increase AP duration, increase effective refractory period in ventricular action, prolong QT interval

151
Q

lidocaine

A

sodium channel blockers (class Ib)

slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization

state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized– eg tachycardia)

decreases AP duration, preferentially affects ischemic or depolarized purkinje and ventricular tissue

152
Q

mexiletine

A

sodium channel blockers (class Ib)

slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization

state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized– eg tachycardia)

decreases AP duration, preferentially affects ischemic or depolarized purkinje and ventricular tissue

153
Q

flecainide

A

sodium channel blockers (class IC)

slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization

state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized– eg tachycardia)

significantly prolongs effective refractory period in AV node and accessory bypass tracts; no effect in Purkinje or ventricular tissue; minimal effect on AP duration

154
Q

propafenone

A

sodium channel blockers (class IC)

slow or block conduction (especially in depolarized cells); decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization

state dependent (selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized– eg tachycardia)

significantly prolongs effective refractory period in AV node and accessory bypass tracts; no effect in Purkinje or ventricular tissue; minimal effect on AP duration

155
Q

metoprolol

A

beta blockers (class II)

decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4

AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval

156
Q

propanolol

A

beta blockers (class II)

decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4

AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval

157
Q

esmolol

A

beta blockers (class II)

decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4

AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval

VERY SHORT ACTING

158
Q

atenolol

A

beta blockers (class II)

decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4

AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval

159
Q

timolol

A

beta blockers (class II)

decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4

AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval

160
Q

carvedilol

A

beta blockers (class II)

decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and decreasing calcium currents; suppress abnormal pacemakers by decreasing the slope of phase 4

AV node particularly sensitive; increases PR interval

161
Q

amiodarone

A

potassium channel blockers (class III)

increases AP duration, increases refractory period, and increases QT interval

162
Q

ibutilide

A

potassium channel blockers (class III)

increases AP duration, increases refractory period, and increases QT interval

163
Q

dofetilide

A

potassium channel blockers (class III)

increases AP duration, increases refractory period, and increases QT interval

164
Q

sotalol

A

potassium channel blockers (class III)

increases AP duration, increases refractory period, and increases QT interval

165
Q

adenosine

A

increased K+ efflux from cells–> hyperpolarizes cell–> decreases calcium influx

166
Q

dihydropyridines except nimodipine

A

hypertension, angina (inc. Prinzmetal), Raynaud phenomenon

167
Q

nimodipine

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage (prevents cerebral vasospasm)

168
Q

clevidipine

A

hypertensive urgency or emergency

169
Q

verapamil

A

hypertension, angina, atrial fibrillation/flutter

prevention of nodal arrhythmias (SVT), rate control in a fib

170
Q

diltiazem

A

hypertension, angina, atrial fibrillation/flutter

prevention of nodal arrhythmias (SVT), rate control in a fib

171
Q

hydralazine

A

severe, acute HTN, heart failure

safe to use in pregnancy

172
Q

nitroprusside

A

hypertensive emergency

173
Q

fenoldopam

A

hypertensive emergency

174
Q

nitrates (nitroglycerin, isosorbide dinitrate, isosorbide mononitrate)

A

angina, acute coronary artery syndrome, pulmonary edema

175
Q

lovastatin, simvastatin, etc

A

lipid lowering agent

176
Q

cholestyramine

A

lipid lowering agent

177
Q

colestipol

A

lipid lowering agent

178
Q

colesevelam

A

lipid lowering agent

179
Q

ezetimibe

A

lipid lowering agent

180
Q

gemifibrozil

A

lipid lowering agent

181
Q

clofibrate

A

lipid lowering agent

182
Q

benzafibrate

A

lipid lowering agent

183
Q

fenofibrate

A

lipid lowering agent

184
Q

Niacin (Vit b3)

A

hyperlipidemia

185
Q

digoxin

A

heart failure (increased contractility), a fib (decreased conduction at AV note, depression of SA node)

186
Q

quinidine

A

atrial and ventricular arrhythmias; reentrant and ectopic SVT and VT

187
Q

procainamide

A

atrial and ventricular arrhythmias; reentrant and ectopic SVT and VT

188
Q

disopyramide

A

atrial and ventricular arrhythmias; reentrant and ectopic SVT and VT

189
Q

lidocaine

A

acute ventricular arrhythmias (especially post-MI), digitalis-induced arrhythmias

190
Q

mexiletine

A

acute ventricular arrhythmias (especially post-MI), digitalis-induced arrhythmias

191
Q

flecainide

A

SVT (inc. a fib)

192
Q

propafenone

A

SVT (inc. a fib)

193
Q

metoprolol

A

SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter

194
Q

propanolol

A

SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter

195
Q

esmolol

A

SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter

196
Q

atenolol

A

SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter

197
Q

timolol

A

SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter

198
Q

carvedilol

A

SVT, ventricular rate control for afib and aflutter

199
Q

amiodarone

A

a fib, a flutter, ventricular tachycardia

200
Q

ibutilide

A

a fib, a flutter

201
Q

dofetilide

A

a fib, a flutter

202
Q

sotalol

A

a fib, a flutter, ventricular tachycardia

203
Q

adenosine

A

diagnosis and stopping SVT

very short acting

204
Q

magnesium

A

torsades de points and digoxin toxicity

205
Q

with which conditions do you have a failure to agglutinate with ristocetin assay?

A

vWD and Bernard-Soulier syndrome

206
Q

t(8;14)

A

Burkitt Lymphoma

207
Q

t(9;22)

208
Q

t(11;14)

A

mantle cell lymphoma

209
Q

t(14;18)

A

follicular lymphoma

210
Q

t(15;17)

A

M3 type of AML

211
Q

Medication

A

Effect on fetus

212
Q

ACE inhibitors

A

renal damage

213
Q

alkylating agents

A

absence of digits, multiple anomalies

214
Q

aminoglycosides

A

CN VIII toxicity (deafness)

215
Q

carbamazepine

A

facial dysmorphism, developmental delay, neural tube defects, phalanx/fingernail hypoplasia

216
Q

Diethylstilbestrol (DES)

A

vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma, congenital mullerian anomalies

217
Q

folate antagonists

A

neural tube defects

218
Q

isoretinoin

A

multiple birth defects

219
Q

lithium

A

ebstein anomaly (atrialized RV)

220
Q

methimazole

A

aplasia cutis congenita

221
Q

phenytoin

A

fetal hydantoin syndrome- cleft palate, cardiac defects, phalanx/fingernail hypoplasia

222
Q

tetracyclines

A

discolored teeth

223
Q

thalidomide

A

limb defects (flipper limbs)

224
Q

valproate

A

inhibition of maternal folate absorption (–> neural tube defects)

225
Q

warfarin

A

bone deformities, fetal hemorrhage, abortion, ophthalmologic abnormalities

226
Q

alcohol

227
Q

cocaine

A

abnormal fetal growth, fetal addiction, placental abruption

228
Q

smoking

A

low birth weight, preterm labor, placental problems, IUGR, ADHD

229
Q

iodine (lack or excess)

A

congenital goiter or hypothyroidism

230
Q

maternal diabetes

A

caudal regression syndrome, congenital heart defects, neural tube defects

231
Q

vitamin A excess

A

high risk for SAB and birth defects

232
Q

x-rays

A

microcephaly, intellectual disability

233
Q

vagina

A

stratified squamous epithelium, non-keratinized

234
Q

ectocervix

A

stratified squamous epithelium, non-keratinized

235
Q

transformation zone

A

squamocolumnar junction (MC area for cervical cancer)

236
Q

endocervix

A

simple columnar epithelium

237
Q

uterus

A

simple pseudostratified columnar epithelium; long tubular glands in follicular phase and coiled glands in the luteal phase

238
Q

fallopian tube

A

simple columnar epithelium, ciliated; peg cells secrete nutrients

239
Q

ovary outer surface

A

simple cuboidal epithelium (aka germinal epithelium)

240
Q

demeclocycline

A

ADH antagonist

241
Q

somatostatin (octreotide)

A

basically stops the secretion of a bunch of hormones; reduces acid secretion from parietal cells, suppresses release of gastrin and CCK, inhibits release of glucagon

242
Q

canagliflozin (SGLT-2 inhibitor)

A

block reabsorption of glucose in the proximal collecting tubule

243
Q

conivaptan, tolvaptan (ADH antagonist)

A

blocks action of ADH at the V2 receptor

244
Q

methimazole

A

blocks thyroid peroxidase–> inhibits oxidation of iodide and coupling of iodine–> inhibition of thyroid hormone synthesis

245
Q

propylthiouracil

A

blocks thyroid peroxidase–> inhibits oxidation of iodide and coupling of iodine–> inhibition of thyroid hormone synthesis

also blocks 5’-deiodase which decreases peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

246
Q

chlorpropamide (1st gen sulfonylurea)

A

closes K+ channel in the beta cell–> cell depolarization–> calcium influx–> insulin release

247
Q

tolbutamide (1st gen sulfonylurea)

A

closes K+ channel in the beta cell–> cell depolarization–> calcium influx–> insulin release

248
Q

glimepiride (2nd gen sulfoylurea)

A

closes K+ channel in the beta cell–> cell depolarization–> calcium influx–> insulin release

249
Q

glipizide (2nd gen sulfoylurea)

A

closes K+ channel in the beta cell–> cell depolarization–> calcium influx–> insulin release

250
Q

glyburide (2nd gen sulfoylurea)

A

closes K+ channel in the beta cell–> cell depolarization–> calcium influx–> insulin release

251
Q

pramlintide (amylin analogs)

A

decreased gastric emptying, decreased glucagon

252
Q

Metformin (biguanide)

A

decreases gluconeogenesis, increases glycolysis, increases peripheral glucose uptake (increases insulin sensitivity)

253
Q

pioglitazone, rosiglitazone (glitazones, thiazolidinediones)

A

increased insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissue (via binding to PPAR-y which regulates fatty acid storage and glucose metabolism)

254
Q

exenatide (GLP-1 analog)

A

increases insulin release and decreases glucagon release

255
Q

liraglutide (GLP-1 analog)

A

increases insulin release and decreases glucagon release

256
Q

linagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor)

A

increases insulin release and decreases glucagon release

257
Q

saxagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor)

A

increases insulin release and decreases glucagon release

258
Q

sitagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor)

A

increases insulin release and decreases glucagon release

259
Q

acarbose (alpha-glucosidase inhibitor)

A

inhibits intestinal bursh border alpha-glucosidases (which normally breaks down starches into glucose)–> delayed carbohydrate hydrolysis and glucose absorption–> decreased postprandial hyperglycemia

260
Q

glucocorticoids

A

interactions with glucocorticoid response elements, inhibition of phospholipase A2, inhibition of transcription factors such as NF-KB

261
Q

cinacalcet

A

sensitizes calcium sensing receptor (CaSR) in parathyroid gland to circulating calcium–> decreased PTH release

262
Q

Microcytic Anemias

A

Iron deficiency, anemia of chronic disease, thalassemias, lead poisoning, sideroblastic anemia

263
Q

normocytic, non-hemolytic anemia (nml to low retic count)

A

anemia of chronic disease, aplastic anemia, chronic kidney disease, early iron deficiency anemia, pure red cell aplasia

264
Q

normocytic, hemolytic anemia (increased retic count)- INTRINSIC

A

hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency, pyruvate kinase deficiency, HbC defect, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, sickle cell anemia

265
Q

normocytic, hemolytic anemia (increased retic count)- EXTRINSIC

A

autoimmune, microangiopathic, macroangiopathic, infections

266
Q

macrocytic, megaloblastic

A

folate deficiency, B12 deficiency, orotic aciduria

267
Q

macrocytic, non-megaloblastic

A

liver disease, alcoholism, reticulocytosis

268
Q

RBC casts are seen in which 2 conditions?

A

glomerulonephritis, malignant hypertension

269
Q

WBC cast are seen in which 3 conditions?

A

tubulointerstitial inflammation, acute pyelonephritis, transplant rejection

270
Q

fatty casts (oval fat bodies) are seen in which condition?

A

nephrotic syndrome

271
Q

granular (muddy brown) casts are seen in which condition?

A

acute tubular necrosis

272
Q

waxy casts are seen in which condition?

A

end-stage renal disease/ chronich renal failure

273
Q

hyaline casts are seen in which condition?

A

nonspecific, can be normal finding, often seen in concentrated urine samples

274
Q

what casts are found in glomerulonephritis?

275
Q

what casts are found in malignant hypertension?

276
Q

what casts are found in tubulointerstitial inflammation?

277
Q

what casts are found in acute pyelonephritis?

278
Q

what casts are found in transplant rejection?

279
Q

what casts are found in nephrotic syndrome?

A

fatty casts

280
Q

what casts are found in acute tubular necrosis?

A

granular, muddy brown casts

281
Q

what casts are found in ESRD?

A

waxy casts

282
Q

arginine

A

nitric oxide

283
Q

arginine+ aspartate

284
Q

glycine+ succinyl coa

285
Q

glycine + arginine + sam

A

creatinine

286
Q

glutamate

287
Q

gluatmate

A

glutathione

288
Q

glutamate + aspartate

A

pyrimidines

289
Q

glutamate + aspartate + glycine

A

pryimidines

290
Q

histidine

291
Q

phenylalanine

A

tyrosine (–>DOPA–> DOPAMINE)

292
Q

tryptophan

A

serotonin (–> melatonin)

293
Q

tryptophan

294
Q

tyrosine

A

thyroxine, melanin

295
Q

acanthocyte (spur cell)

A

liver disease, abetalipoproteinemia

296
Q

basophilic stippling

A

lead disease

297
Q

degmacyte (bite cell)

A

G6PD deficiency

298
Q

elliptocyte

A

heretidary elliptocytosis

299
Q

macro-ovalocyte

A

megaloblastic anemia

300
Q

ringed sideroblast

A

sideroblastic anemia (excess iron in mitochondria=pathologic)

301
Q

shistocyte (helmet cell)

A

DIC, TTP/HUS, HELLP, mechanical hemolysis

302
Q

sickle cell

A

sickle cell anemia

303
Q

spherocyte

A

hereditary spherocytosis, drug and infection induced hemolytic anemia

304
Q

dacrocyte (teardrop cell)

A

bone marrow infiltration (myelofibrosis)

305
Q

target cell

A

HbC disease, asplenia, liver disease, thalassemia (HALT)

306
Q

heinz bodies

A

preciptiation of Hb–> leads to bite cells; see in G6PD deficiency and also alpha thalassemia

307
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies

A

basophilic nuclear remnants unable to be cleared by spenic macrophages; seen in functional asplenia or asplenia

308
Q

S-100 is a marker for?

A

melanoma, langerhans cell histiocytosis (mesodermal origin)

309
Q

What causes methemoglobin

A

nitrates, benzocaine

310
Q

psammoma bodies?

A

mesothelioma, ovarian serous cystadenocarcinomas, meningiomas, papillary thyroid carcinoma

311
Q

what cases methemoglobin?

A

nitrites, benzocaine

312
Q

what kind of shift does carboxyhemoglobin cause?

A

LEFT SHIFT! (decreased O2 binding capacity)

313
Q

what is caplan syndrome

A

pneumoconiosis w/ intrapulmonary nodules and RA

STEP 1 (20 decks)

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