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Dosage 2 > Missed Questions > Flashcards

Missed Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The following describes solution dosage forms (choose 2)
A. Good bioavailability
B. Easy to manufacture
C. Used to increase bioavailability of oil or hydrophobic drugs
D. Heterogeneous
E. Quicker absorption than suspension but slower than emulsion

A

A, B

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2
Q

Which one of the following does NOT help minimize tissue irritation due to parenteral, ophthalmic, or nasal solutions?
A. Make the solution pH as close to the physiological pH as possible
B. Use a buffer with a low buffering capacity
C. Minimize the volume of administered solution
D. Administer quickly
E. Make the solution with a dilute buffer

A

D.

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3
Q

The following describes the roles of inactive ingredients in solution or emulsion products. Which one is INCORRECT?
A. Ascorbic acid- antioxidant
B. Citric acid- chelating agent
C. Sodium bisulfite- antioxidant
D. Benzyl alcohol- preservative
E. Magnesium aluminum silicate- surfactant

A

E.

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4
Q

Which one of the following is a different type (W/O, OW) of emulsion than others?
A. An emulsion stabilized with Tween 80
B: An emulsion containing 80% petrolatum and 20% water
C: An emulsion stabilized with aluminum hydroxide
D: An emulsion stabilized with a mixture of acacia and tracacanth
E: An emulsion used for water-washable cream

A

B.

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5
Q

Which one of the following describes interfacial phenomena in emulsion INCORRECTLY?
A: Two liquids with a great tendency to interact with each other have a high interfacial tension.
B: Interfacial tension decreases with increasing temperature.
C: Internal phase tends to coalesce to reduce interfacial tension.
D: Surfactants with HLB value >10 can stabilize an O/W emulsion.
E: At concentrations above the critical micelle concentration, surfactants do not reduce interfacial tension anymore.

A

A

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6
Q

T/F: Creaming is a type of emulsion instability, which is irreversible and will form separate layers of oil and water.
Creaming cannot be fixed by shaking; thus, the product needs to be reformulated.

A

False

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7
Q

An O/W emulsion including sodium stearate should not be prepared with hard water. Why?
A: Hard water can accelerate sedimentation of oil droplets.
B: Hard water can cause creaming.
C: Hard water can lead to coalescence.
D: Hard water can induce phase inversion of the emulsion.
E: Hard water can degrade oil droplets.

A

D.

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8
Q

You intend to make a sulfadiazine suspension. You are asked to reduce the particle size from 26 mcg to 5 mcg by
micronization and use a sorbitol solution with a density of 1.3 g/mL and viscosity of 110 cps instead of water.
Which one of the following describes each design choice correctly?
A: Particle size is reduced to increase the settling velocity.
B: Viscous solution is used as a suspension vehicle to delay settling.
C: Particle size is reduced to delay drug dissolution.
D: Dense solution is used as a suspension vehicle to induce flocculation.

A

B.

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9
Q

Which one of the following describes a dispersed suspension best?
A: Cloudy suspension
B: Large sediment volume
C: May appear as a semi-solid when undisturbed but is fluid when shaken.
D: Easily redispersed by shaking
E: High rate of sedimentation

A

A

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10
Q

The following lists components and their functions of Rhinocort Aqua Nasal Spray suspension. Which one of the
following is INCORRECT?
A: Budesonide - Active ingredient
B: Carboxymethylcellulose - Structured vehicle system
C: Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) - Chelating agent to help prevent oxidation
D: Sorbic acid - Flocculating agent
E: Magnesium aluminum silicate - Structured vehicle system

A

D

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11
Q

Consider a suspension of sulfadiazine with an average diameter of 26 µm. Which one of the following makes the
suspension settle most quickly? Density of sulfadiazine is 1.5 g/mL.
A: Add diluted bentonite magma to form floccules.
B: Reduce sulfadiazine particle size to 2.6 µm by spray drying and use water as a vehicle.
C: Add methylcellulose to increase viscosity of water to 200 cps.
D: Reduce particle size to 10 µm by jet milling and increase water viscosity to 100 cps.
E: Replace water with sorbitol solution (density: 1.3 g/mL, viscosity: 110 cps)

A

A

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12
Q

Consider the Figure that describes the relationship between [KH2PO4] added to the suspension vs. the sediment
volume of the suspension. What describes the zone highlighted by a red box in the Figure best?
A: The suspension turned to a dispersed suspension.
B: H2PO4- neutralized the surface charge of dispersed particles.
C: The dominant interparticle force is repulsive force.
D: The suspension does not settle.
E: The suspension forms cloudy supernatant when settled

A

B

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13
Q

The structure in the figure describes polyethylene. Which one of the following is NOT relevant?
A: This is a block-copolymer.
B: This may be described as:
C: This is a synthetic polymer.
D: The repeating unit of this polymer is -(CH2-CH2)-
E: This is called “polyethylene”.

A

A

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14
Q

Select the correct statement.
A: Sterilization eliminates bacteria and bacterial endotoxins.
B: Sterilization eliminates bacteria but not bacterial endotoxins.
C: Sterilization eliminates bacterial endotoxins but not bacteria.
D: Sterilization eliminates neither bacteria nor bacterial endotoxins

A

B

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15
Q

Select the statement that correctly describes what LVPs are:
A: Single dose injections packaged in a container containing up to 100 mL.
B: Single dose injections packaged in a container containing 100 mL or more.
C: Single dose injections packaged in a container containing more than 100 mL.
D: Single or multiple dose injections packaged in a container containing up to 100 mL.
E: Single or multiple dose injections packaged in a container containing more than 100 mL.

A

C

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16
Q

Select the correct statement.
A: Buffers have to be used in all parenteral preparations to ensure they have their intended pH value.
B: The pH of all parenteral preparations must always match the physiological pH.
C: If the pH of a parenteral preparation differs significantly (by more than 2 pH units) from the physiological pH, the preparation has to be buffered.
D: If the pH of a parenteral preparation differs significantly (by more than 2 pH units) from the physiological pH, it is best to use concentrated buffers to control the pH.
E: None of the above

A

E

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17
Q

The current official standard for the air quality in the laminar hoods used for CSP is: [A] = Class [B] = Convention
[C] = Composition [D] = International [E] = ISO [F] = 5 [G] = 10 [H] = 50 [I] = 100
A: [D][A][F]
B: [D][B][H]
C: [E][A][F]
D: [E][B][G]
E: [E][C][

A

C

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18
Q

Which of the following identifies the type of syringe tip to be used when compounding sterile preparations of
hazardous drugs?
A: Luer Tip
B: Luer Lok
C: Swage Lok
D: Swage Tip
E: Any of the above

A

B

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19
Q

Indicate which of the diagrams in the Figure are found in the USP <797> document.
A: A, B and C
B: A and B
C: A and C
D: B and C
E: None

A

D

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20
Q

Autoclaving a liquid preparation will ensure that the solution is:
A: Sterile
B: Pyrogen free
C: Particle free
D: Sterile and pyrogen free
E: Sterile, pyrogen free and particle free

A

A

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21
Q

Which one of the following sterile solutions are NOT isotonic? Choose two.
A: D5W/NS
B: D2.5W/1/2NS
C: D5W
D: NS
E: D5W/1/2NS

A

A and E

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22
Q

How many milligrams of esmolol HCl (M.W. = 331.83 g/mol) would need to be dissolved in SWFI to make 10 mL of
a solution with an osmolarity of 300 mOsmol/L? If your calculations do not give you the exact number listed
below, select the closest match.
A: 11 mg
B: 498 mg
C: 995 mg
D: 4977 mg
E: 9955 mg

A

B

23
Q

When tested with an osmometer in the laboratory, a solution of H2SO4 gives exactly the same reading value as
Normal Saline. The tested H2SO4 solution is:
A: Isotonic only with blood serum
B: Iso-osmotic only with blood serum
C: Both isotonic and iso-osmotic with blood serum
D: Neither isotonic nor Iso-osmotic with blood serum

A

B

24
Q

Semipermeable membranes are used in osmotic devices to:
A: Allow drug to diffuse through the membrane at a controlled rate
B: Control release to the small intestine and not the stomach
C: Serve as an interior membrane to push drug out
D: Provide easy identification of osmotic devices
E: Allow water to diffuse across membrane at a controlled rate

A

E

25
Q

Which most accurately describes both reservoir diffusion and matrix diffusion systems?
A: Zero order release rate
B: The coating/membrane thickness can be used to control the drug release rate
C: All particles contain uniform coating thicknesses to ensure proper release
D: Drug diffuses through a polymeric matrix or a semipermeable membrane
E: All of the above

A

D

26
Q

The mass per unit time (dM/dt) for a diffusion reservoir device decreases with increasing ___________:
A: Diffusion coefficient of rate-controlling membrane
B: Surface area of rate-controlling membrane
C: Drug concentration in reservoir
D: Partition coefficient of rate-controlling membrane
E: Membrane thickness

A

E

27
Q

The partition coefficient:
A: Is the affinity of a drug for the polymer membrane relative to its affinity for water.
B: Low value indicates that a drug prefers to be in polymer membrane rather than in water.
C: Has a range from 10 to 10,000
D: Has units of concentration (typically mL).
E: All of the above

A

A

28
Q

Which one of the following is typically an advantage of an extended release system compared to an immediate
release system?
A: Smaller dosage form (e.g. smaller tablet)
B: Reduced dosing intervals (more frequent dosing)
C: Better patient adherence to regimen
D: More peaks and valleys in the concentration vs. time profile
E: Easier to stop dosage if side effects observed

A

C

29
Q

The polymer used in the LUPRON DEPOT controlled-release devices is:
A: Polystyrene
B: Polyethylene
C: Poly(lactic-co-glycolic acid)
D: Polycaprolactone
E: Teflon

A

C

30
Q

Which one of the following is LEAST relevant to transdermal delivery?
A: Drugs with a molecular weight < 1000 Da and high oil/water partition coefficients are suitable for transdermal delivery.
B: Hydrated skin is easier for a drug to penetrate than dry skin.
C: Reducing agents such as ascorbate or dithiothreitol can enhance skin permeability by disrupting the ordered lipid bilayer
structure of stratum corneum.
D: Transdermal delivery is suitable for drugs with low dose requirement.
E: Electroporation can enhance skin permeability by creating transient pores in the skin by a high voltage electrical pulse.
Rationale: It is organic solvents such as azone or DMSO that disrupt the ordered lipid bilayer structure of stratum corneu

A

C

31
Q

Consider two batches of polymers. Batch 1 has 20 molecules of 50 kDa polymer and 100 molecules of 20 kDa
polymer. Batch 2 has 20 molecules of 100 kDa polymer and 100 molecules of 10 kDa polymer. Both batches have
a number average molecular weight of 25 kDa, but Batch 1 has a weight average molecular weight of 30 kDa and
Batch 2 has a weight average molecular weight of 70 kDa. Which one of the two has lower polydispersity, and
what does it mean?
A: Batch 1 - The molecular weight distribution is narrow (relatively monodispersed).
B: Batch 2 - The molecular weight distribution is narrow (relatively monodispersed).
C: Batch 1 - The molecular weight distribution is broad (relatively polydispersed).
D: Batch 2 - The molecular weight distribution is broad (relatively polydispersed).

A

A

32
Q

The polymer in the figure is mucoadhesive. Which one of the following is least relevant to its mucoadhesiveness?
Choose TWO.
A: Electrostatic interaction with mucin
B: Hydrogen bonding with mucin
C: Physical interpenetration with mucin
D: Covalent bonding with mucin

A

A and D

33
Q

Encapsulated cell technology (ECT) implants consist of genetically modified cells that are encapsulated in a
section of semi-permeable hollow fiber membrane. The implant has a suture loop at one end to anchor it to the
sclera in the vitreo-retinal body inside the eye. The current product is 6 mm in length, roughly the size of a grain
of rice. What is the role of membrane in this device?
A: Allows for the release of therapeutic protein from the device
B: Allows for immune cells to enter the device
C: Protects therapeutic cells from oxygen
D: Allows for the controlled release of therapeutic cells
E: None of the abo

A

A

34
Q

Which one of the following is INCORRECT?
A: Buccal layer is less permeable than sublingual layer.
B: Buccal patches are not suitable for drugs with low potency.
C: Oral mucosa is not a suitable route for the delivery of large hydrophilic molecules.
D: Mucosal delivery subjects a drug to the first pass metabolism.

A

D

35
Q

Of the following, which one is most suitable for the delivery of a drug that requires fast onset of systemic action
(e.g., nitroglycerin for acute angina attack)?
A: Topical cream
B: Transdermal patch
C: Sublingual tablet
D: Buccal patch

A

C

36
Q

Fentora is an effervescent tablet that rapidly releases fentanyl into the buccal pouch and is used to treat
breakthrough pain in opioid-tolerant cancer patients. Which one of the following is incorrect?
A: To achieve a proper pain relief, Fentora should not be taken with water like regular oral tablets.
B: Fentora should not be chewed or melted in the mouth.
C: Fentora may be substituted for Actiq, another transmucosal dosage form of fentanyl, at equal dose (microgram to microgram).
D: Fentora may be administered via buccal layer and sublingual layer, but their absorption may be different depending on how it is taken.

A

C

37
Q

In the context of sourcing immune cells for adoptive transfer, what is one strategy that can potentially be
employed to decrease the risk of graft-versus-host disease?
A: Engineer cells with chimeric antigen receptors
B: Do not use T cells from cancer patients
C: Source cells from more closely-matched donors
D: Irradiate cells prior to infusion

A

C

38
Q

Most FDA-approved cell therapy products are for which indication:
A: Hematopoietic cell transplantation
B: Cancer treatment
C: CAR-T therapy
D: Immunotherapy

A

A

39
Q

Which of these does NOT apply to all FDA-approved CAR-T therapies?
A: They utilize allogeneic T cells
B: They are for the treatment of blood cancers
C: They are all considered gene therapies

A

A

40
Q

Which of these can be used to describe CAR-T therapies that have been approved by the FDA?
A: They are gene therapies
B: They can only be used allogeneically
C: They can treat blood and solid cancers when the patient has previously undergone chemotherapy
D: They all require sourcing of blood from volunteer donors

A

A

41
Q

What is the drug tocilizumab used in CAR-T therapy for?
A: It stimulates CAR-T cells to more effectively kill cancer cells
B: It is used in lymphodepletion
C: To mitigate cytokine release syndrome
D: To help T cells expand and proliferate

A

C

42
Q

Which one of the following is NOT the advantage of solution formulations of biologics as compared to other
common dosage forms?
A: Simplest formulation
B: Least expensive to manufacture
C: Convenient for hospital personnel since they do not require reconstitution
D: Reduced rates of chemical and physical degradation
E: Can be inspected visually prior to administration

A

D

43
Q

The type of catheter inserted into the arm is
A. PICC
B. VAP
C. CVC
D. Hickman
E. Brovlac

A

A

44
Q

Which one of the following is least relevant to Taxol?
A. Contains paclitaxol (active ingredient), Cremophor EL, and dehydrated alcohol
B. Patients receiving Taxol need to be premedicated due to hypersensitivity reactions related to the surfactant included
C. Needs a special infusion set due to the potential leach out of plasticizer
D. Taxol is a micelle formulation
E. All of the above

A

E

45
Q

Which one of the following is least relevant to Doxil?
A. Liposomal formulation of doxorubicin
B. Induces hand-foot syndrome as a side effect
C. Has a greater risk of cardiotoxicity than doxorubin solution
D. The surface of Doxil is decorated with PEG

A

C.

46
Q

What is largely unwanted by-product of lymphodepletion in patients prior to immune reconstitution in the context of CAR-T therapy?
A. Graft-vs-host disease and CAR-T rejection
B. Loss of absolute lymphocyte counts
C. Loss of regulatory T-cells
D. Increased numbers of circulating T cells

A

B

47
Q

Which of these adoptive cell transfer scenarios has the most risk for off-target toxicities?
A. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
B. Systemic infusion of CAR-T cells
C. ADCC

A

B

48
Q

Most FDA-approved cell therapy products are for which indication
A. Hematopoietic cell transplantation
B. Cell-based tissue regeneration
C. CAR-T therapy
D. Immunotherapy

A

A

49
Q

In a CAR-T cell-based therapy, what is a characteristic of the drug substance?
A. It is made from the patient’s own DNA
B. It needs to be irradiated prior to infusion to avoid side effects such as CRS or GvHD
C. It must be effective in transducing the T cell

A

C

50
Q

Which one of the following is NOT relevant to the structured vehicle system (Choose all)
A. Thixotropy
B. Newtonian flow
C. Shear-thinning
D. Plastic flow
E. Distant flow

A

B and E

51
Q

The following can be directly injected
A. Purduemycin for injection
B. Purduemycin injectable suspension
C. Purduemycin for injectable suspension
D. None of the above

A

B.

52
Q

Dextrose (MW=180.16 gm/mol) and glycerol (MW=92.09 gm/mol) are frequently used to make isotonic solutions. Consider a solution of dextrose at a concentration of 5% (w/v) in SWFI. Exposing blood cells to this solution should be expected to have the following effect:
A. Shrink the cells
B. Expand the cells
C. Leave the size/volume unchanged

A

C

53
Q

In a reservoir diffusion system (Choose 2):
A. The polymeric matrix dissolves to release the drug
B. It is more susceptible to dose dumping than a matric diffusion system
C. Drug release follows zero-order kinetics
D. The drug release rate is proportional to the square root of time

A

B and C

54
Q

The figure shows components of a new mRNA vaccine. Which one is responsible for complexation with mRNA?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

A

D

Dosage 2 (4 decks)

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