Missed Lt Questions

Question 1

Phase B has just been implemented due to Hurricane Jeff that has descended upon the NYC area. All BCs shall evaluate conditions by personal survey and unit advisement in their administrative area and report findings to the Division at what hour intervals?
A: 4

B: 3

C: 2

D: 1

Answer 1

B

Explanation:
AUC 159 sec 5.3.9
Information to be relayed to the Division:
1-Main arteries impassable (by name)
2-Response areas flooded
3-Large areas or special hazards which are inaccessible
4-Action taken to alleviate conditions
5-Possible relocation of units to Host Companies

MAAPS

MAIN ARTERIES
AREAS INACCESSIBLE
ACTIONS TAKEN
RESPONSE AREAS FLOODED
POSSIBLE RELOCATION OF UNITS

Question 2

The Resource Unit Leader can become one of the most important positions during chaotic and expanding operations. Which of the following statements regarding the assignment of the RUL is Correct?
A: At an All-Hands fire with multiple 1045’s, the IC may special call a BC to serve as RUL if necessary.

B: An Acting Battalion Chief cannot be assigned as the RUL.

C: Upon the transmission of a 3rd Alarm, the dispatcher will notify the Incident Commander of the identity of the RUL.

D: Upgrading a 10-60 to a 10-60 Code 1 will cause the dispatcher to assign a BC as RUL.

Answer 2

A

Explanation:
ICS Chapter 2 Addendum 2 Section 3
A is correct… The IC may special call a BC as RUL if necessary.
B - An Acting Battalion Chief MAY be assigned as the RUL.
C - the RUL is assigned upon the transmission of a 2nd alarm.
D - A RUL is assigned to all 1060 incidents.

Question 3

An experienced BC would know which description of the following special units to be correct?
A: The IMT Planning Vehicle will only respond when requested by a BC or higher.

B: Hi-Rise Unit 1 and 2 are also designated as Ventilation Support Units.

C: A HMTU may operate alone, but must stay within the limits of its equipment and training. An additional FAST Truck shall be special called for support if an entry into a contaminated area is involved.

D: Collapse PODS (Portable-On Demand Storage) Transport Unit response can be requested by a BC.

Answer 3

B

Explanation:
A) The IMT Planning Vehicle will only respond when requested by a Staff Chief.
C) A HMTU may operate alone, but must stay within the limits of its equipment and training. A second HMTU shall be special called for support if an entry into a contaminated area is involved.
D) Collapse PODS (Portable-On Demand Storage) Transport Unit response can be requested by a Command Chief only.
Comm 7.5

Question 4

Several Chief Officers were having a discussion following a 5th Alarm fire that extended from a 4-Story frame into exposures 2, 2A, 4, & 4A. Which of the following actions taken at the rapidly expanding fire regarding the positioning of Chief Officers was correct?
A: Upon the arrival of the dedicated Communications Unit Leader, the IC reassigned the RUL as the roof sector to get ahead of the extension.

B: Prior to the arrival of the Safety Operating Battalion, the IC assigned the Safety Officer to the Exposure 4 sector.

C: The RUL continued to monitor the HT for emergency transmissions after the arrival of the dedicated Communications Unit Leader.

D: Upon arrival of Field Comm, the Communications Unit Leader was reassigned to the Exposure 2A sector

Answer 4

C

Explanation:
A. ICS ch 2 Add 2 sec 5.1 - The Resource Unit Leader shall not be used for firefighting purposes.
B. ICS ch 2 Add 5 pg 4 - When the Safety Battalion arrives, the Safety Officer will be designated Assistant Safety Officer, released, or reassigned as determined by the IC
C. ICS ch 2 Add 2 sec 4.3
D. ICS ch 2 Add 3 sec 5.6 - The Communications Unit Leader shall not be used for firefighting purposes.

Question 5

A recently promoted BC was incorrect in which action taken at a radiological emergency in Penn Station?
A: Dry decontamination measures were ordered to expedite the transfer of patients to EMS for treatment.

B: Since the dose inside of a nursing home was projected to be a maximum of 6 REMs, the BC did not evacuate the nursing home residents.

C: The Operations Chief designated a Rescue Company Officer to oversee Extraction Task Forces to achieve proper lifesaving emergency medical care in high-rise buildings and subway tunnels.

D: Extraction Task Forces included firefighters and EMS personnel in proper PPE to rapidly triage, treat and move patients with life-threatening injuries as quickly as possible out of the area to ambulances outside.

Answer 5

C

Explanation:
A) ERP 4 Sec 6.2.4 Wet Decon may be needed for LARGE scale radiological emergencies because it is a quick way to deal with extensive external contamination
B) Evacuate if the projected dose inside a building will reach 5 Rem for the general population or 10 Rem for special groups such as non-ambulatory hospital patients, prison residents, or nursing home residents.
C) The Operations Chief may need to designate a Battalion Chief to oversee Extraction Task Forces to achieve this goal in high-rise buildings or subway tunnels.
ERP Add 4 3.2.1 C, D, E

Question 6

Venting the store windows at a taxpayer fire can relieve conditions or make conditions worse. When fighting a cellar fire in a taxpayer, who must firefighters communicate and coordinate with before venting the store front windows?
A: 1st ladder officer

B: 2nd ladder officer

C: Battalion chief (IC)

D: Permission is not needed, because it is a cellar fire and the windows are at store level

Answer 6

A

Explanation:
Taxpayers sec 8.2.2 (cellar fires)
Also look under Store/cockloft Fire, sec 8.3….Store/cockloft fire “Ventilation of the store at the front by the removal of show window shall be done if ordered by the Incident Commander.”
Make sure you know cellar fire vs store/cockloft fire

Question 7

The incorrect procedure for a HT radio discovered stolen can be found in which choice?
A: If HT is stolen at the scene of a fire/emergency, the IC (Chief Officer) must conduct an investigation. The police shall be notified if the suspect is a civilian , the IG notified if the suspect is a department member

B: If HT is stolen at quarters in connection with an illegal entry, the police shall be immediately notified, an illegal entry or quarters report shall be forwarded by officer on duty to the Chief of Operations, and if false alarm is involved, the fire marshals notified

C: Under no circumstances shall a unit go back in service after a HT has been stolen until all notifications have been made, and a spare HT has been received

D: When a department employee is suspected of stealing a radio from quarters, BITS must be notified

Answer 7

D

Explanation:
Inspector General (IG)
Comm ch 11 add 8 sec 4
This is new (June 2022).

Question 8

You are designated the Resources Unit Chief. Upon arrival to the Command Board you have several responsibilities . Choose the incorrect responsibility.
A: You shall inform the IC of the need for a Communications Unit if one is not assigned to respond

B: You continued to monitor the HT frequency for emergency transmissions after the arrival of a dedicated Communication Unit Leader

C: After permission from the IC you implemented relief of units especially when operations approach 0800 or 1700 hours

D: You operate on the Command channel and your aide will monitor the tactical channel

Answer 8

D

Explanation:
ICS ch 2 add 2 sec 4.3
Resources Unit Chief will monitor the Tactical channel, and battalion FF (aide) will monitor the Command channel

Question 9

As the Incident Commander of an operation where Rescue has deployed Scuba Divers off shore to search for a drowning adult, you would be correct to ensure such divers do not dive deeper than?
A: 100 feet

B: 60 meters

C: 90 feet

D: 60 feet

Answer 9

D

Explanation:
AUC 337 p14
water current 2 knot max
up to 60 feet deep
diver must surface with 500 psi
90 minute max operational time

Question 10

You, the BC, receive a response ticket for a severe flooding condition during a severe storm at the intersection of Queens blvd and 63 drive. You have three engines and two ladder companies on scene and decide to implement dewatering operations because you can immediately alleviate dangerous traffic conditions. Shortly into the operation, you realize that more companies are needed above the first alarm. Your next coarse of action is to?
A: Transmit a 2nd alarm

B: Notify the DC

C: Notify the Command Chief after business hours

D: Notify the Borough Commander during business hours

Answer 10

B

Explanation:
AUC 159 add 9 sec 2.4
2.4 Assignment of units above a first alarm assignment for dewatering operations must be approved by a DC
There is only 4 times that we can dewater during a severe storm….look at sec 2.3
1-Where major safety and dangerous traffic problems can be alleviated by immediately beginning the dewatering of major streets and highways that have been flooded by the storm
2-Where lives are endangered, such as, but not limited to; hospitals, nursing homes, and similar type occupancies
3-Where failure to dewater creates a serious fire hazard, such as; flood or rising water in close proximity to live electrical equipment or service, which cannot be disconnected safely
4- Where extensive property damage can be averted with a reasonable commitment of resources

Question 11

You are a newly promoted BC working in Battalion 3, quartered with Engine 100. At 1314 hours Engine 100 responds to a Class “E” alarm at a local high-rise office building and you decide to monitor the alarm. In accordance with the FDNY’s policy on “Reduced Response E & J Alarms,” you would be correct in all of the following actions except?
A: If the preliminary report is not received in a reasonable time frame (5-10 minutes), contact the dispatcher and request a preliminary report.

B: If a subsequent alarm is received while the BC is monitoring a Class “E” or “J” alarm, the Battalion shall respond.

C: You may respond, based on your discretion. If you respond, the dispatcher shall be notified.

D: If the report from Engine 100 indicates that the alarm is for a 10-35 or 10-92 and such signal is transmitted, you will return to service.

Answer 11

B

Explanation:
If a subsequent alarm is received while the Battalion Chief is monitoring a Class “E” or “J” alarm, the Battalion shall NOT be directed to respond unless the dispatcher receives information of a serious fire and the assigned Battalion is the nearest available Battalion Chief (i.e. 10-75 or 10-76).
Comm Ch 6 add 2 sec 4.2, 4.3, 4.4

Question 12

You arrive as the Incident Commander at a fire in a private dwelling just as the 1st due truck transmits three 10-45’s for fire victims. There is an urgent need for EMS yet you don’t see them anywhere near your command post and they are not answering on HT channel 1. Which of the following represents the CORRECT procedure when contacting EMS regarding your 10-45’s?
A: If unable to contact EMS via HT, contact the FD dispatcher with full particulars for relay.

B: You have the aide contact EMS Citywide on the UHF Radio advising that we have three 10-45’s in need of urgent care.

C: You switch to channel 10 in an attempt to raise them on the HT.

D: Use the DARS radio for direct communication on the EMS Borough frequency for relay to EMS units.

Answer 12

A

Explanation:
Communications Chapter 14 – Addendum 1
A. 3.6.2
B. No 10 codes during relay on EMS Citywide (only plain speak. 3.6.3
C. HT Channel 1 is used for fire, non fire and CFR related incidents 2
D. DARS radios can be used for direct communication with EMS CITYWIDE dispatch for relay to EMS units by switching to the EMS Zone, Channel 1 (EMS-CW-1). Transmissions on this frequency will NOT be heard by Fire units.3.6 Note

Question 13

Any request for an exemption from the yearly limit for discretionary overtime/comp time must be pre-approved in writing by the?
A: Chief of Operations

B: Chief of Department

C: Fire Commissioner

D: Overtime Control Officer in the Mayors Office

Answer 13

A

Explanation:
PAID 3 ch 4 sec 2.5

Question 14

Two BCs discussing outside operations at a recent 5th alarm warehouse fire pointed out one incorrect action taken. Indicate the incorrect action.
A: Since distance was short and sufficient slack was in the line, TL1 was moved without disconnecting lines as adequate manpower was available.

B: Since distance was great and hose lines had to be disconnected, lines were stretched and made ready at the new location before shutting down TL2’s stream at the TL Siamese and repositioning.

C: When special called for use of their master stream, members of TL3 will generally operate as a unit and focus on getting the apparatus properly positioned and supplied. Chief officers should assign an Engine Company to pre-stretch 3 1/2” supply lines, and inform the TL officer of the identity of the supply Engine

D: Being notified that TL1 bucket is wedged on the parapet the IC immediately notified all units on scene that the TL is unavailable for use, had members remain low in bucket, formulated a rescue plan, ordered the apparatus to be shut down with the PTO still engaged, and requested a Rescue or Squad to evaluate the structure and assist in formulating a rescue plan

Answer 14

B

Explanation:
Tower Ladders (L-6)
A) Ch 4 sec 4.1
B) Ch 4 sec 4.1- Water is not shut down at the TL siamese, but at the supply pumper.
C) Ch 6
D) Ch 3 p-7….remember, this is an Urgent transmission (after depressing the EAP) from the member in the bucket to the IC stating the bucket is wedged

Question 15

Light, Medium, & Heavy Clutter are fire scene characteristics we frequently deal with. Of the following, which choices correctly describe medium clutter conditions? 1-Entrances & interior pathways will be partially blocked hampering movement. **2-Smoke/CO detectors will not likely be present or operating correctly. **3-Primary searches possible but delayed. Secondary searches will be delayed. **4-Fire load may exceed the capability of landlines. ***5-Minimal concern for entrapment, structural issues or unusual fire spread.
A: 2,4,5 are Correct

B: 1,3,4 are Correct

C: 3,4,5 are Correct

D: 2,3,4 are Correct

Answer 15

B

Explanation:
Safety Bulletin 7 ch 4 pg 4.
All of these choices are from the chart on Page 3.
Option 1 is listed under the access/egress section of medium clutter characteristics.
Option 3 is listed under the search section of medium clutter characteristics.
Option 4 is listed under the suppression section of medium clutter characteristics.
Option 2 is listed under the heavy clutter characteristics.
Option 5 is listed under the light clutter characteristics.

Question 16

A Phase II “Water Pressure Emergency” procedure has just been implemented. Units shall patrol their districts as per schedules established by their DCs. Upon completing their assigned patrol duties, officers on duty shall fax to the Battalion the following information: 1) The number of illegally opened hydrants……..2) The number of hydrants shut down………3) The number of spray caps placed………4) Any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressure that could adversely affect firefighting operations. The Battalion Chief on duty receiving this information shall provide the administrative DC this information every _______ hours.
A: 2

B: 3

C: 4

D: 5

Answer 16

A

Explanation:
Eng 3 Add 2 sec 5.3.4 and 5.3.5
A must read for a chief officers exam

Question 17

BCs may find themselves responsible for proper notifications during “noteworthy” or “potentially noteworthy” incidents. Which choice below is an incorrect example of a noteworthy incident?
A: Fires/emergencies in high-profile occupancies/locations.

B: Transportation incidents (aviation, railroad, subway, etc.) involving multiple casualties or severe service disruption.

C: A BC may be special called as the Resources Unit Leader to assist the IC with appropriate notifications.

D: One (1) or more 10-45 Code 1, Two (2) or more 10-45 Code 2 or Four (4) or more 10-45 Code 3 or 4.

Answer 17

D

Explanation:
D) Two (2) or more 10-45 Code 1, Three (3) or more 10-45 Code 2 or Eight (8) or more 10-45 Code 3 or 4.
Also:
Large scale evacuation of buildings, special events, etc.
Vacates involving public buildings or shelters.
Regs 11 11.5.9

Question 18

There are many notifications/procedures that are made or implemented when an IC decides to use auxiliary radio communications systems (ARCS) during a fire/emergency. Choose the incorrect notification/procedure
A: IC must notify the Dispatcher for relay to responding units any time an ARCS is activated

B: IC must notify the FAST Unit when additional communication channels are used. The FAST Unit will need to obtain an additional HT for each channel in use

C: IC must notify the Dispatcher/FDOC to request a Building/Facility representative report to the Command Post if one is not on the scene

D: IC should attempt to contact members through utilization of the H/T on Channel 1 for an ARCS failure

E: IC should consider conducting a Roll Call on the Command channel of all Chiefs at the scene of an incident to insure they are operating on the correct communications channel, once a Command channel is established

Answer 18

E

Explanation:
IC MUST conduct a Roll Call on the Command channel of all Chiefs at the scene of an incident to insure they are operating on the correct communications channel, once a Command channel is established
Comm ch 13 sec 4 and 5.1

Question 19

Which of the following private dwelling construction characteristics is correctly stated?
A: Balloon frame construction has fire stopping between floors on exterior walls, preventing rapid fire extension.

B: Open joist construction will lead to early collapse.

C: Secondary entrances can be located on the front, side and/or rear.

D: The main entrance is always located in the front of a PD.

Answer 19

C

Explanation:
PD Ch 2-Size Up sect 2.6
A. Balloon frame construction LACKS fire stopping between floors on EXTERIOR walls, allowing for rapid fire extension.
B. Open lightweight construction (absence of a sheetrock ceiling) will lead to early collapse.
C. sect 2.6
D. The main entrance is USUALLY located in the front of a PD.

Question 20

In general, Department of Transportation regulations require placards to be posted only on trucks that are transporting _______ pounds of the particular material. Choose the most correct answer.
A: 500 or more

B: more than 500

C: 1,000 or more

D: more than 1,000

Answer 20

D

Explanation:
It is possible to have vehicles transporting up to 1000 pounds of a hazardous substance without placards visible on the outside of the vehicle
Haz Mat 2 Precautions 7. 1st bullet
***Code-Placard 1,001

Question 21

When an Officer and/or Chauffeur is involved in a third preventable collision in an 18-month period, they will be given a Supervisory Conference by the Battalion Commander and he/she will evaluate the circumstances of the collisions and if deemed necessary recommend to the Division Commander the revocation of Chauffeur status for up to ___ days, and/or reassignment of the Officer for a ___ day period.

A: 180

B: 120

C: 90

D: 60

Answer 21

D

Question 22

A BC reviewing procedures for handling possible arson cases was incorrect in which choice?
A: Overhauling operations should be terminated immediately when the fire is suspicious.

B: If the officer in charge of a commercial fire establishes that it may be of an incendiary origin, there is likelihood a Fire Marshal will arrive before overhauling is completed.

C: Request the Photo Unit to respond to take pictures of the evidence if a marshal is not responding.

D: If after arrival at a commercial fire, the Fire Marshal classifies it as being incendiary, the police can thereafter maintain security.

Answer 22

Explanation:
A) Overhauling operations should be minimized, if possible, when the fire is suspicious.
TB Arson 5.4.1, 7.2, 8.1, 8.3

Question 23

A BC should know that for a detail exceeding two (2) tours that will extend more than thirty (30) days, an OSA - 2 shall be forwarded through the chain of command to the _____ for approval.
A: Chief of Operations

B: Chief of Department

C: Chief of Personnel

D: Borough Commander

Answer 23

A

Explanation:
AUC 304 2.1, 2.2

Question 24

You are working in B-100 for the 9X6 tour on August 12, 2018. A ticket comes in for a derailed Airtrain in the Borough of Queens. Enroute to the scene, you remember all of the following procedures to be correct for this type of incident except?
A: After power is requested to be turned off via FDNY dispatcher, Airtrain personnel will place grounding straps forward and aft of the operation to insure that the power is grounded and cannot be restored between the two grounding straps

B: Two TLs will be assigned to all Airtrain derailments

C: When an emergency is reported onboard an AirTrain that is stopped between stations, the Airtrain Operations Center will provide the Fire Department Borough Communications Office with the column number of the reported incident/location.

D: The primary method for evacuating passengers from an Airtrain that is located between stations is to have Airtrain personnel bring a rescue train from either the front or the rear of the disabled train, or to the adjoining track, and safely evacuate and transport the passengers to the next station

E: If using a TL to evacuate passengers from the guideway, the TL must be followed closely by another unit FD apparatus, whose purpose shall to block traffic, shut down roadway, and provide protection from oncoming traffic

Answer 24

B

Explanation:
At least ONE TL must be assigned to all Airtrain incidents/emergencies
If they give you a response ticket for this type of question, make sure there is a TL on the ticket
AUC 207 add 12

Question 25

BC Brown is the IC for a top floor brownstone fire and hears the following transmission: L-115 roof to command, we have fire in the cockloft. Which of the following best describes the height of the cockloft in a brownstone? A: This cockloft may vary in height from one foot to a height tall enough for a man to stand in. B: Can vary in height from four inches to more than six feet. C: Approximately 2' to 3' in height. D: Some cocklofts are as much as four feet deep.

Answer 25

C Explanation: A. Rowframe 5.2.2 B. Taxpayer 3.2.1 C. Brownstone 2.2.18 D. MD H-Type Ch 1 4.9.9.I

Question 26

While operating at a collapse site you hear three short blasts (1 second each) from an apparatus air horn. The three short blasts are a signal to do what? A: Continue operations B: Evacuate the area C: Cease operations D: Report to the command post

Answer 26

B Explanation: Collapse Operations 9.2 1 Long Blast (3 seconds)..... Cease Operations/All Quiet 3 short blasts (1 second each) Evacuate the area 1 long and 1 short blast...... Resume Operations

Question 27

Which of the following choices is not in accordance with the FDNY’s policy on school attendance variances? A: Mutual exchange of tours may only be made between members assigned to the same battalion. B: Partial tour mutuals shall be not less than one (1) hour. C: Partial tour mutuals shall be not more than six (6) hours. D: If the cooperator desires, the reimbursement of several part tour mutuals may be accumulated to be reimbursed as a complete tour. Not more than one 15 hour tour may be accumulated.

Answer 27

A Explanation: Mutual exchange of tours may be made between members assigned to the same DIVISION. PAID 7 ch 2 sec 3

Question 28

chief study group discussing unconscious firefighter removal should know that once an unconscious member is supplied with air, turn the purge valve _____ to allow a constant flow of air. A: 1/2 way B: 1/4 of the way C: Fully open D: 3/4 of the way

Answer 28

A Explanation: MMID ch 3 7.9 *FAST PAK Training Bulletin SCBA Add.#1 Sec 8.6.3 states turn the purge valve downward This is not a conflict, but we recommend knowing both.

Question 29

BC Wrecker has a band-aide for the day and is involved in an accident just blocks away from arrival at a second alarm fire. Which action taken by Chief Wrecker was correct according to department policy? A: The BC/Vehicle Operator is only required to obtain a copy of the police report if death or serious injury is involved. B: Any police report or MV-104 report is to be emailed to CollisionRecordingUnit@fdny.nyc.gov email following the collision/incident. C: The collision report shall be submitted by the BC/Vehicle Operator within 48 hours of the apparatus collision. D: The Collision Investigation Report may be submitted by the Chief Officer involved in the collision/incident.

Answer 29

C A- The BC/Vehicle Operator is REQUIRED to obtain a copy of the police report. B- No police reports or MV-104 reports are to be forwarded to the CollisionRecordingUnit@fdny.nyc.gov email. That email address can be used to request instructions to upload the documents the the CRS using the desktop app. D-The Collision Investigation Report shall be submitted by the Chief Officer assigned to INVESTIGATE the collision/incident. A Chief Officer involved in an apparatus collision/incident may not investigate their own collision/incident. A different Chief Officer will be assigned to investigation the collision/incident. SB3 11, 12.1, 12.4

Question 30

You the BC, are in attendance at a HQ nightly conference. The hot topic of the conference is the use of the NYC transit subway repeater system. The following statements were made in reference to the subway repeater system: 1) The repeater system is on 24/7...…...2) Power backup for the repeater provides a minimum of 4 hours of protection in the event of a power outage...…...3) The CORE H/T relay can be eliminated if the repeater system is tested and operational...…..4) The IC shall test the functionality of the repeater system prior to the start of operations...…...5) Any member operating on the repeater channel must be teamed with an H/T equipped member operating on H/T channel 1...….6) On the Post Radio, "Subway 1" is for channel 14 and "Subway 2" is for Channel 15...……..Choose the correct statements made at this conference. A: 1,2,3,5,6 B: 2,4,5 C: 2,3,4,5 D: 1,2,4,5,6 E: 1,2,5,6

Answer 30

E Explanation: 3) CORE HT relay must be established whether the station is equipped with a repeater or not...…..4) Once operations are underway and conditions dictate, the IC can have the repeater system tested to see if it is functioning. AUC 207 add 16

Question 31

Accidents are classified as preventable and those that may or may not be considered preventable depending upon the circumstances. Which of the accidents listed below shall be considered preventable? *****1- Ladder 1's apparatus strikes a parked car while proceeding without an operator in the tiller. *****2- Ladder 1's apparatus strikes a double parked car while responding in 10-20 mode to a fire. *****3- Ladder 1's apparatus rolls into a parked car while operating at a fire (no chocks). *****4- Ladder 1's apparatus strikes several parked cars making a turn responding to a reported gas leak in 10-20 mode. A: 1, 2 & 3 only B: 1, 2, & 4 only C: 2, 3, & 4 only D: 1, 3, & 4 only

Answer 31

A Explanation: 1,2, & 3 are listed as collisions that are considered preventable. 4 is listed as a collision that may or may not be considered preventable depending upon circumstances. 10-20 mode is only listed in reference to striking a vehicle while passing a double parked car. Make sure you know this bulletin. BCs investigate collisions SB 3 add 3 Sec 2.1 & 2.2

Question 32

The Chief in charge at a 4th alarm factory fire orders the exposure 4 sector, B-28, to use a large caliber stream. A large caliber stream is any fire stream with a flow of _____ gallons per minute or more A: 250 B: 300 C: 350 D: 400

Answer 32

B

Question 33

Engine Company 222 is ordered by the IC to stretch the third hoseline at a 2nd alarm in a fully involved brownstone building. There is no extension into the exposures at this time. According to Brownstones, this line may be stretched to what position? A: Through an exposure to the rear yard of the fire building B: The top floor of the most severe exposure C: The top floor of the least severe exposure D: To the front of the fire building

Answer 33

A Explanation: When a brownstone is fully involved in fire, the 1st two lines are stretched into the fire building. 3rd line will be stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander and may be: 1. Advanced into the fire building. 2. If fire is reported in an exposure, stretched to that exposure. 3. If there is no fire in the exposures, stretch through an exposure to the rear yard of the fire building. Brownstones (3.4)

Question 34

Buildings supplied with steam will have a steam control room filled with pipes. There will be a number of valves to control the supply of steam. Which of the following would be correct regarding these buildings and the control valves? A: Con Edison is the only entity generating high pressure steam in New York City. B: Members may never shut the Inside Service Valve. It will be labeled and sealed. C: At a HELB in a building, it is mandatory that units immediately enter the affected area for search and rescue. D: Monitor for the presence of radiological contaminants at a ruptured steam incident.

Answer 34

D Explanation: Steam A. sect 1.2 - Con Edison is NOT the only entity generating high pressure steam in New York City. B. sect 4.4 - In an emergency, members may shut the Inside Service Valve. It will be labeled and sealed. C. sect 4.4 - The high heat may make it impossible to enter the affected area for search and rescue until the steam is shut and the area vented. D. sect 5

Question 35

Recently, NYC has seen a few catastrophic gas explosions. You arrive on scene at a major indoor gas leak in the center store of a 9-store taxpayer. Which would be an incorrect action to take? A: At all major natural gas leaks, notify the dispatcher to have the appropriate Electric Utility Company respond and request an ETA. B: Check at least 3 exposures on each side of the affected occupancies for the presence of a gas odor or leak. C: The Gas Utility Company should be contacted by the IC to define the underground infrastructure for subsurface leaks and determine any additional exposures that may be affected. D: The IC should consider the evacuation of all buildings in proximity to the incident location when necessary.

Answer 35

B Explanation: Emergency Procedures Gas Page 40 B. That has been deleted from our books... not now reads... Members should access exposures to define the extent of gas migration.

Question 36

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the mutual exchange of scheduled RSOT tours? A: Both RSOT mutual tours must be “scheduled” RSOT tours. B: A RSOT tour that has been mutualed or rescheduled may only be mutualed or rescheduled again once more. C: Mutual exchange of RSOT tours must be submitted to the Battalion on Form RS-6 at least 24 hours before the first RSOT tour for approval. D: Mutual exchange of scheduled RSOT tours by full duty Firefighters must be completed (worked) by both parties within thirty (30) days of the first scheduled RSOT tour or by the end of the calendar year (whichever is earlier).

Answer 36

B Explanation: A RSOT tour that has been mutualed or rescheduled may not be mutualed or rescheduled again. Choice “D” explained...you normally have to swap RSOT tours within 30 days of each other, however, the exception is the end of the year. A 12/15/2018 tour cannot be swapped for a 1/14/2019 tour even though it is within 30 days; this is because your are going into the next calendar year. In this case, the 12/15/2018 tour can only be swapped within 16 days (12/31/2018). PAID 3 ch 2 sec 8.1-8.5

Question 37

Tower Ladder 71 is responding to a reported fire in a taxpayer. Upon arrival, heavy smoke is found issuing from the roll down gates. The ladder officer ordered the following. Which should be corrected? A: The tower ladder was positioned in front of the building. B: The 2 ½” tip is preferable when deep penetration of the stream is necessary to hydraulically overhaul stock. C: The basket of the tower ladder can be positioned a foot or two above the street level and the tower ladder stream can be directed into the store or stores. D: A street level attack using a LCS to penetrate the ceiling and collapse it, thereby exposing fire in the cockloft.

Answer 37

B Explanation: A. Taxpayer sect 8.1.19 B. Ladder 6 ch 4 sec 4.2 The 1 ½” tip is preferable when deep penetration of the stream is necessary to hydraulically overhaul stock. Increasing C. Taxpayer sect 8.1.20 D. Ladder 6 ch 4 page 3 A street level attack at Taxpayer fires using a LCS to penetrate the ceiling and collapse it, thereby exposing fire in the cockloft, enables extinguishment of fire therein.

Question 38

Fresh off vacation, BC Breezes begins her first tour back by reviewing documents that landed on her desk. It was a busy week of fire duty and four multiple member injury reports are first on deck. Which of the following documents was she correct to sign and forward? A: Engine 1 submitted a multiple injury report that listed one member who received minor injuries not requiring medical leave and two others that were granted medical leave. The member with minor injuries takes medical leave the next day from these injuries. B: Engine 2 submitted a multiple injury report that had the officer and one member suffering burn injuries requiring medical leave and a third firefighter suffering a minor injury not requiring medical leave. The member with the minor injury gets hurt at another incident and goes on medical leave the same tour. C: Engine 3 submitted a multiple injury report that had two firefighters receiving strains that required medical leave, the officer with burns requiring medical leave, and a minor injury to another member not requiring medical leave. D: Sign and forward both A and C E: Sign and forward all of the above

Answer 38

C Explanation: Safety Bulletin 1 ch 2 1.3 -- The Chief of Operations requires the supervisor of a unit to submit a multiple member injury report when Three or more members suffer injuries at the SAME incident resulting in medical leave THAT TOUR.

Question 39

Regulations discusses the responsibilities of Battalion Chiefs. Which of the statements below incorrectly describes Battalion Chief duties? A: Battalion Chiefs shall not leave their administrative districts, except in response to an alarm for fire or other emergency, without the approval of the Borough Commander. B: When a Battalion Chief arrives on the scene of an operation where an ABC is the Incident Commander, the BC shall assume command of the operation and assign the ABC as needed. C: Each assigned Battalion Chief must visit, at least once each week, every department building over which the battalion has supervision & inspect members, uniforms, apparatus, equipment, records, and all areas of quarters. D: Battalion Chiefs shall be responsible for investigating all injuries occurring in quarters with particular attention given to injuries at or immediately after the change of tours.

Answer 39

A Explanation: Regulations Chapter 7 A - Incorrect -- the Deputy Chief on duty in the Battalion's Administrative Division 7.2.1 B - Correct 7.2.2 A C - Correct 7.4.1 D - Correct 7.5.1

Question 40

Upon notification of an alleged incident of discrimination by a member, the Officer/Supervisor is required to notify the Fire Department's EEO Officer. Select the incorrect method of doing so. A: Telephone between 0800 to 1800 hours, Monday to Friday B: Email directly to EEO C: For incidents that effect operations during non-office hours, the EEO Officer can be reached through the Fire Department Operations Center D: Memo with endorsements to the EEO officer via the chain of command

Answer 40

D Explanation: PA/ID 8 Ch 2 6.2, 6.3, 6.4 Confidential EEO Incident Report shall be submitted DIRECTLY to the EEO Officer in a sealed envelope marked "Confidential" without intermediate endorsement.

Question 41

The High-Rise Roof Chief (HRRC) duties can be found in all of the following except? A: While responding to the mobilization point, obtain a progress report, ID of attack and evacuation stairs, and ID of stairs that lead to the roof B: Notify the IC of the fire through the Borough dispatcher wherein the mobilization point is located when the High Rise Roof Teams (HRRT), NYPD aviation, and ESU are assembled C: Ensure that the HRRC, HRRTs and PD ESU are on the HT channel 1 prior to lift off D: If available, ensure the Post Radio is taken for use on/within the structure E: Once on the building, the HHRC shall use the Primary Command channel for contacting the Incident Command Post

Answer 41

C Explanation: AUC 269 add 1 pages 2,3 Ensure that the HRRC, HRRTs and PD ESU are on the HT channel 1 prior to lift off. The TAC U Channel would be a suitable choice during air operations and necessary for coordination and communication between FDNY/NYPD personnel NOTE: The HRRC's Battalion FF will remain at the mobilization point to provide security for the Battalion vehicle and HRRT apparatus NOTE: The HRRC's Battalion firefighter must obtain keys to both HRRT apparatus. If additional equipment is needed, a helicopter will return to the mobilization point to transport it. The Battalion firefighter will monitor the department radio for instructions.

Question 42

Members studying for the upcoming chiefs exam were reviewing air pressurized standpipe systems, which are required in buildings under construction greater than 75 feet and buildings undergoing demolition with an existing standpipe. They were correct in all statements made except? A: The number of air release valves is required to be such that air pressure shall be released in no more than 5 minutes B: To use an air pressurized system at a fire operation the air pressure must be released from the system prior to uncapping the siamese and supplying it with water C: A 2 1/2" manual air release/drain valve (usually a standard outlet) is required to be installed immediately adjacent to the siamese connection D: Remove the manual air release valve cap and open the valve fully

Answer 42

A Explanation: A- The number of air release valves is required to be such that air pressure shall be released in no more than 3 minutes (2.2) B- 2.1 C- 2.2 D- 2.2 Engine Ops ch 8 add 4

Question 43

Which of the following statements correctly describes administrative actions after an investigation deems an apparatus collision preventable? A: When an Officer and/or Chauffeur is involved in their first preventable collision, they will be given a Supervisory Conference that shall be performed by the member’s assigned Company Commander only. B: When an Officer and/or Chauffeur is involved in a second preventable collision in an 18-month period they will be given a Supervisory Conference that shall be performed by the administrative Battalion Chief. C: When an Officer and/or Chauffeur is involved in a third preventable collision in an 18-month period, they will be given a Supervisory Conference by the Battalion Commander from the assigned Battalion. D: When an Officer and/or Chauffeur is involved in a second preventable collision in a 18-month period, they will be assigned to attend a one-day Collision Awareness Training (C.A.T.) class at the Bureau of Training.

Answer 43

C Explanation: C SB3 Add 3 A- When an Officer and/or Chauffeur is involved in their first preventable collision, they will be given a Supervisory Conference that shall be performed by the member’s assigned Company Commander and a Chief Officer from the Officer/Chauffeur’s assigned Battalion. B- When an Officer and/or Chauffeur is involved in a second preventable collision in a 12-MONTH period they will be given a Supervisory Conference that shall be performed by the Battalion COMMANDER. D- When an Officer and/or Chauffeur is involved in a second preventable collision in a 12-MONTH period, they will be assigned to attend a one-day Collision Awareness Training (C.A.T.) class at the Bureau of Training.

Question 44

Your battalion is 10-84 at a fire in a high-rise office building under construction. The fire is on the 38th floor and 40 floors have had their concrete poured. As the chief considers firefighting options, which characteristic regarding fire conditions on this floor is most correct? A: Structural failure as a result of heavy fire is a real possibility on this floor. B: The fire load on this floor would represent a bigger problem because of the storage of wood forms. C: The shoring studs for this floor would be spaced four feet apart. D: Shoring studs for this floor should be 8 feet apart and will present a problem if exposed to fire conditions.

Answer 44

B Explanation: Safety Bulletin 7 Ch 5 A -- 40 is the most recently poured floor. The temporary storage is 2 floors below the most recently poured floor (38), which also happens to be the fire floor. Problems associated with structural failure will usually not occur on this temporary storage floor. 2.4 B -- CORRECT -- The problem on this floor would be a fast moving fire caused by the heavy fire load and the large horizontal and vertical openings. C -- The shoring for the most recently poured floor (40) would be 4' apart. The shoring for the fire floor (38) would be spaced 8' apart. 2.11 D -- If units observe studs placed approximately 8' apart, reshoring is indicated. It can be assumed that these floors are in their advanced curing stage and SHOULD NOT present a problem if exposed during fire conditions. 2.12

Question 45

You're the IC at an ammonia leak from an ice skating rink. You're deciding whether to evacuate downwind or shelter- in-place. Sheltering-in-place is the preferred alternative when the hazardous material displays all of the following characteristics except? A: Partially released and dissipating B: Low to moderate toxicity C: Small quantity solid or liquid leak D: A migrating vapor of low toxicity and quantity and people are safer indoors than outside

Answer 45

A Explanation: ERP, Hazardous Materials B. Totally released and dissipating 9.5.5 C 2 * Sheltering-in-place is also the preferred alternative when the release of hazardous materials can be rapidly controlled at the source 9.5.5 C 5

Question 46

You just received a response ticket for a major aircraft incident at the airport. En-route you glance at the ticket and notice you are the second due battalion chief for this run. You would be correct to believe that your designation would be the ___________? A: All-Hands Chief B: Resource Unit Leader C: Safety Officer D: Staging Area Manage

Answer 46

D Explanation: AUC 325 3.3.1 Know this bulletin cold, it was rewritten since last BC exam.

Question 47

Probationary Firefighters evaluations #1 (9th month) and #2 (13th month) shall be endorsed by the Division Commander who will forward these reports directly to the Evaluation Coordinator, Bureau of Personnel. Report #1 and #2 must be time to arrive within how many days of the end of the rating period at the Bureau of Personnel? A: Within 2 days B: Within 5 days C: Within 15 days D: Within 30 days

Answer 47

B Explanation: Within 5 days..... Evaluation #3 (17th month) to arrive at the Bureau of Personnel at least 30 days before the date of tenure This is a Battalion Chief bulletin. Another must read PA/ID 2 ch 1 sec 2

Question 48

Fire extension in a private dwelling is a serious concern for everyone operating at the scene. Members need to be aware of certain construction features and how they affect fire travel. As the IC at this fire, you would know that one statement below is incorrect. Choose the most incorrect answer? A: A quick determination as to whether a structure is balloon frame is to remove a baseboard on an exterior wall and check for the presence of a sole plate. B: In Queen Anne balloon frame construction the 2"x4" exterior wall studs are continuous and are capped with a top plate. C: High heat accompanied by a light to medium smoke condition with no visible fire is a sign of fire burning in the walls of balloon frame construction. D: Platform construction effectively acts as a fire stop, and limits or restricts vertical extension via the exterior walls.

Answer 48

C Explanation: PD Ch 4-Ladder Company Ops A. sec 3.1 B. sec 3.1 C. sec 3.1 High heat accompanied by heavy smoke with no visible fire is a sign of fire burning in these hidden spaces. D. sec 3.3

Question 49

In preparation for the Battalion Chief rank, Battalion Chief Houser assembled all the captains for the annual captains meeting to discuss District Service Cabinet (DSC) and Community Board (CB) Public Meetings. Chief Houser made the following statements about DSC and CB meetings: 1) DSC meetings are generally conducted in the morning or early afternoon......2) CB meetings are generally are conducted in the evening...….3) If the CB Battalion Coordinator (or alternate) is unable to attend on compensatory time, the Battalion Commander shall have the BC on duty (assigned or not) attend such meetings while on duty...….4) Off duty BCs will attend these meetings in Class "A" uniform...….5) On duty BCs will attend these meetings in work duty uniform, and will remain in service unless the administrative DC gives permission to be OOS for the duration of meeting...….6) On duty BCs scheduled for a DSC or a CB meeting shall notify their respective Divisions and Dispatchers at the start and conclusion of the meetings...…..Battalion Chief Houser was correct in which statements? A: 1,2,3,4,5,6 B: 1,2,4,5,6 C: 2,3,4,6 D: 1,2,4,6

Answer 49

D Explanation: 3) If the CB Battalion Coordinator (or alternate) is unable to attend on compensatory time, the Battalion Commander shall have a regularly assigned BC on duty attend such meetings while on duty ( a regularly assigned BC is a chief officer working in the Battalion for more than a vacation period) 5) On duty BCs will attend these meetings in work duty uniform, and will remain OOS for the duration of such meetings unless the Supervising Dispatcher determines that circumstances necessitate their response NOTE: If no BC is available to attend a DSC or CB meeting, a regularly assigned BC should notify the District Manager by phone prior to the meeting. AUC 285 sec 3

Question 50

You, the BC, working the 9x6 tour in B-101 on January 1, 2018, receive a phone call from a newly promoted lieutenant working in L-201 telling you that he cannot find his Metrocard, and needs advice on what to do. Before you provide advice, you make the following statements: 1) Each Metrocard has an expiration date and is identified with a unique number assigned by the MTA NYC Transit.......2) Once a day, the officer on duty shall record an entry in the Company Journal stating that the assigned Metrocard is accounted for and on the apparatus.......3) When a Metrocard is reported lost, stolen or damaged, the officer on duty shall immediately notify the administrative battalion chief......4) The officer on duty shall file a police report and complete a loss property report and forward via the chain of command to the Chief of Department.........You were correct in which statements? A: 1,2,3,4 B: 1,2,3 only C: 1,4 only D: 2,4 only E: 1 only

Answer 50

E 2- After each roll call, the officer on duty shall record an entry in the Company Journal stating that the assigned Metrocard is accounted for and on the apparatus 3- When a Metrocard is reported lost, stolen or damaged, the officer on duty shall immediately notify the FDNY resource center by phone 4- Forward to FDNY resource center requesting that a replacement Metrocard be issued AUC 207 add 3 sec 3 May or may not be an in-basket.

Question 51

Firefighting operational tactics can be quite complex for most buildings, especially when cell sites are involved. Choose the incorrect operational tactic for a building with a cell site. A: Special call an additional engine and ladder company, if the cell site installation is involved B: Insure TL response on the initial alarm for a fire reported in these buildings C: Consider stretching a handline to the roof at upper floor fires D: Special call an additional Safety Officer above the 10-75 to supervise roof operations

Answer 51

D Explanation: D- Special call an additional BATTALION CHIEF above the 10-75 to supervise roof operations AUC 331 6.3, 6.4, 6.5, 6.7 NOTE: in AUC 351 Photo-voltaic Electrical Systems (last bullet on bottom of page 6) it states: A Safety Officer should be assigned to the roof to oversee operations when FFs are working in close proximity to a PV system

Question 52

You are working in B-400 on January 1st, 2018, when you receive a phone call from E-200 that the apparatus has a flat tire and the unit will be OOS for a few hours. B-400 consists of three double firehouses besides E-200; E-300, L-400, B-400; E-400, L-500; E-500, L-600, and BFU1. As the Battalion Chief of B-400, with E-200 OOS, you decide correctly to do what with the members? A: Leave the unit intact since the repair would be less than four hours B: Activate the BFU C: Detail members to the Division for clerical work D: Detail members to the Borough for clerical work

Answer 52

B Explanation: When a unit quartered in the same battalion as a BFU goes OOS for mechanical reasons during periods when the BFU is not staffed independently, the BC may utilize members of the OOS unit to activate the BFU BFU independently staffed from March 17 to April 30 and October 17th to November 30th AUC 151 4.5.17

Question 53

You are taking up from a subway incident for a rubbish fire on the tracks. You transmit what 10 code? A: 10-21 B: 10-22 C: 10-27-2 D: 10-28-2

Answer 53

D Explanation: A- Brush fire B- Outside rubbish fire C- 10-27 Compactor or Incinerator D- 10-28 (Subway or Railroad System-Fire, Emergency (non-medical) or Smoke Condition 10-28-1 Structural fire 10-28-2 Non-Structural fire (train fire, rubbish on the tracks) 10-28-3 Emergency (non medical Communications ch 8

Question 54

Which choice below most accurately reflects the locations which are defined as a “workplace” for the purposes of the New York City Fire Department’s EEO Policy? 1. Firehouse 2. Drill site 3. Fire/Emergency scene 4. Field Building 5. Hydrant inspection 6. Fire Department Headquarters, Medical Office, etc. 7. Fire Department affiliated functions (parades, marathon runs, ball games, funerals, company dances, parties and picnics, etc.) in the city 8. Fire Department affiliated functions (parades, marathon runs, ball games, funerals, company dances, parties and picnics, etc.) outside the city A: 1,2,3,4,5,6 B: 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8 C: 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 D: 1,2,4,5,6

Answer 54

B Explanation: These include functions whether members are on or off duty TB EEO 1.4

Question 55

Who may approve the issuance of an FDNY Vacate Order? A: Any Fire officer B: Only a Battalion Chief or higher C: Only a Deputy Chief or higher D: Only a Staff Chief

Answer 55

D Explanation: AUC 5 ch 4 add 4 sec 3.1 Note

Question 56

Upon inspection of a firehouse located in your Battalion, you notice that the Hydrant Pressure Chart is not posted. In regards to the Hydrant Pressure Chart, the most correct statement can be found in which choice? A: Units shall use the Hydrant Pressure chart to monitor the PSI of the hydrant nearest quarters during the first full week in June. B: Units shall use the Hydrant Pressure chart to monitor the PSI of the hydrant nearest quarters during the second full week in May. C: All Engine, Ladders and Squads will take pressure readings. D: The Hydrant Pressure chart shall be posted at the housewatch area.

Answer 56

D Explanation: A. May B. first full week C. Engines and Squads (NOT Ladders) Engine Ops Ch 3 Add 2 4.1

Question 57

At an incident where a tank truck carrying gasoline rolled over and caught fire, the BC should anticipate that this situation will escalate and that a large caliber foam nozzle will be required. All of the following actions will be necessary except in which choice? A: A Satellite apparatus or Tower Ladder, if height is an issue, utilizing the Modified Angus Foam Cannon should be positioned as close as possible to the incident. B: A 2000 GPM pumper attached to a positive water source is needed for supply. This apparatus should be as close to the incident as possible. C: Determine a Foam Assembly Point for the Foam Tanker or Tender to deliver foam concentrate. The best placement for this is at an intersection where the units can come in and leave from the same direction. D: The Foam Assembly Point location and direction of access should be relayed to the dispatcher for transmittal over the Department Radio. A Battalion Chief should be assigned this duty.

Answer 57

C Explanation: The best placement for this is at an intersection where the units can come in from one direction and leave by another. TB Foam 8.8

Question 58

Two Battalion Chiefs discussing the Department’s self-mutual policy for firefighters were able to identify which incorrect comment made during their discussion? A: Requests for self-mutual on and self-mutual off shall be submitted using E-Staffing. Company B: If possible, such requests should be made at least 72 hours in advance. C: Firefighters shall only be permitted to link a payback self-mutual tour with a regularly scheduled work tour (24 hours) when assignments for both tours are within the same Battalion. D: Friday 6x9 and Sunday 6x9 shall both be considered weekends

Answer 58

C Explanation: Firefighters shall only be permitted to link a payback self-mutual tour with a regularly scheduled work tour (24 hours) when assignments for both tours are within the SAME or ADJOINING COMPANY. PAID 5 ch 2 sec 2 and 4.3

Question 59

The NYC Transit Authority’s Emergency Evacuation Device (EED) can be found at a number of locations throughout the transit system. Which location below is listed incorrectly? A: At underground stations, the EED is located at the first Blue Light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end). B: At grade level stations, the EED will be located in the area of the full time token booth. C: At elevated stations, the EED will be located in the area of the full time token booth. D: An EED is located at the base of the emergency exit, at both ends of each under river tunnel.

Answer 59

B Explanation: At grade level stations, the EED is located at the first Blue Light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end). In Staten Island, EEDs are located near Tower B, at the Saint George Rail Terminal and near the crew quarters at the Tottenville Train Yard. “Keys” to remove EEDs from their mounting brackets are available at EVERY token booth. AUC 207 Add 11 3

Question 60

While on BISP, your unit encounters a vacant building in poor condition. The senior member driving you reports that he has never noticed this structure before and that it has probably never been reported. You should know all of the following choices to contain correct information with the exception of which choice? A: To report the discovery of a vacant building, the Administrative Company shall forward a DOB Referral Report Normal Priority to the Department of Buildings citing Building Vacant, Open and Unguarded. B: If a vacant building is discovered whose structural integrity is suspect the company should forward a DOB Referral Report as High Priority. Note the structural stability affected and state specific building conditions in the remarks section of the report. C: All units in their admin area are requested to ensure that a CIDS card is submitted for a Vacant Building. The CIDS card should state that the building is vacant and any apparent safety hazards should be listed. D: Items not in compliance with the Fire Code may be enforced by Vacate Orders

Answer 60

D Explanation: Items not in compliance with the Fire Code may be enforced by with a V.O., or FDNY summons, or referred to FPOSU via an A-8 Fire Department Referral Report Vacants sec 3.1,

Question 61

Which point below is incorrect regarding the Department’s Extra Departmental Employement (EDE) policy? A: While on medical leave, members are prohibited from engaging in any EDE, profession, occupation or business. B: While on light duty or limited service, members are prohibited from engaging in any EDE, profession, occupation or business. C: EDE is automatically revoked when a member is put on Supervised Medical Leave Program (SMLP). D: Illness or injury sustained in EDE or while serving as a member of a volunteer fire department must be immediately reported to the Bureau of Personnel Resources and to the Medical Office by letterhead report.

Answer 61

B Explanation: B) While on light duty or limited service, members may engage in EDE only with the approval of the Fire Commissioner or the Commissioner’s designee. D) Note: Members covered by or filing for assistance under workmen's compensation or disability laws as a result of injury or illness sustained in EDE must make a statement to this effect in the report. PAID 7 ch 1 sec 1.2, 1.4, 3.1.4, 4.2, 4.3

Question 62

A Fast unit drill is being conducted and a member makes several statements regarding who is responsible for monitoring EFAS when all units are on scene. The member was most correct in which choice? A: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Battalion Firefighter, after performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by an EFAS trained member of the FAST Unit B: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Battalion Firefighter, before performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by the Division Firefighter C: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Division Firefighter, after performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by a member of the FAST Unit whether or not that member is EFAS trained D: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Division Firefighter, before performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by a Battalion Firefighter

Answer 62

A Explanation: Comm 9 Add 3 2.1 Cross Ref 2.3: When the Division is on scene, it shall be the responsibility of the Division back-up FF, if available, to report to the Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS to either assist the EFAS trained member of the FAST unit or relieve the Battalion FF if the Battalion FF has not yet been relieved by the EFAS trained member of the FAST unit.

Question 63

One of an Incident Commander’s responsibilities includes communication of details of noteworthy events to the on-duty Command Chief for relay to the Chief of Department and Fire Commissioner. Of the following choices, which is not accurately defined as a “noteworthy incident”? A: Large scale evacuation of buildings B: Transportation incidents (aviation, railroad, subway, etc.) involving multiple casualties or severe service disruption C: Vacates involving public buildings or shelters D: Fire/emergencies in any type of occupancy

Answer 63

D Explanation: D) Fire/emergencies in “high profile” occupancies/locations Regulations ch 11 sec 11.5.9

Question 64

Backdrafts and smoke explosions are dangerous fire events that do not occur often but tend to occur more frequently during taxpayer fires than in other types of occupancies. They occur when there is an introduction of oxygen to a compartment that has been pressurized by the smoke and fire gases of an oxygen-deficient fire in the _______ Stage. A: Decay B: Incipient C: Fully Developed D: Growth

Answer 64

A

Question 65

Question 4: Which of the following statements is not in accordance with the Department’s Workplace Violence Prevention Policy? A: Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report shall ensure that it is forwarded in a sealed envelope directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator. This report shall not be forwarded through the chain of command. B: A copy of the written Workplace Violence Prevention Policy is available on the Fire Department Intranet. It may also be obtained by requesting a hard copy from a supervisor or the FDNY OSHA Unit. C: In the event of a workplace violence emergency, employees are instructed to first report the emergency by calling 911, and then report to their supervisor or the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator. D: Supervisors (in consultation with their chain of command) may take any measures within their authority to correct a potential for workplace violence or to respond to a workplace violence incident including contacting law enforcement authorities, temporarily re-assigning personnel, or referring personnel for discipline.

Answer 65

A Explanation: Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report (or a verbal report) shall ensure that it is forwarded via the chain of command to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator. All supervisors within the chain of command shall ensure that the report is forwarded on an expedited basis PA/ID 8 Ch 5 1.5, 1.6, 11.1.1, 11.2.1

Question 66

You are the incident commander on the scene of a confined space emergency where members will have to make an entry to remove an injured and unconscious worker. According to the confined space bulletin, which of the atmospheric conditions listed below needs correcting? A: Carbon Monoxide toxicity levels of 35ppm or less B: Oxygen concentration levels between 18.5% and 23.5% C: Hydrogen Sulfide levels of 10PPM or less D: Flammability range not over 10% of LEL

Answer 66

B Explanation: Should be 19.5% & 23.5%. Confined Space 4.1

Question 67

All marine companies carry an International Shore Connection (ISC). The ISC is a fitting designed to augment the ships fire main system when deemed necessary. It is required on vessels of 500 gross tons and greater. The fitting is connected to the vessels fire main system. All marine companies, as well as some Battalions, carry a corresponding ISC which when attached to a corresponding fitting aboard the vessel permits ______ FDNY threaded hose to be connected to the vessels fire main system. A: 1 3/4 inch B: 2 1/2 inch C: 3 1/2 inch D: 5 inch

Answer 67

B Explanation: Marine Manual Ch 2 1.12.1 Note The ISC was hit on a previous BC exam The new Marine Manual was released in 2021. Don't give it up.

Question 68

Repeater channel 14 has just failed during a subway incident. You, the BC, have to transmit an emergency message to all members operating on scene. You decide to instruct your aide to activate the UHF Mobile Radio located in the Battalion vehicle to switch to what channel? A: Rev Subway 1 B: Rev Subway 2 C: Rev Subway 14 D: Rev Subway 15

Answer 68

A Explanation: One the Post radio and the UHF Mobile radio, channel "Rev Subway 1" has been added for use if Channel 14 fails, and Channel "Rev Subway 2" has been added for use if Channel 15 fails AUC 207 add 16 sec 5.3

Question 69

During a large scale incident within NYC, the DC asked you to retrieve the NYMAC radio and establish a communication link with NYPD. You retrieve the radio and turn it on and switch to which channel? A: NYMAC channel 1 B: NYMAC channel 2 C: NYMAC channel 3 D: NYMAC Channel 4 E: NYMAC Channel 5

Answer 69

A Explanation: NYMAC channel 1 is always active and continuously staffed by NYPD personnel Read this bulletin Communications ch 14 add 3 sec 2.1.2

Question 70

Comp time is accrued by department members during the Memorial Day and Veterans Day Holidays. Ladder 1 is a company of veterans and their Memorial Day 6x9 riding list reads as follows... Lt. Force (PCOT), Fr. Marine (mx), Fr. Army (mx), Fr. Navy (msot), Fr. Coast (11), Fr. Guard (12), Fr. Rescue (mx off)... Which members are entitled to Comp Time during the night tour? A: All members except Fr. Rescue are entitled to 6 hours Comp Time. B: Lt. Force, Fr. Navy, Fr. Coast, Fr. Guard, Fr. Rescue only are entitled to 6hrs Comp Time. C: Lt. Force, Fr. Marine, Fr. Army, Fr. Navy, Fr. Rescue only are entitled to 6hrs Comp Time. D: Lt. Force, Fr. Navy only are entitled to 6hrs Comp Time.

Answer 70

B Explanation: PAID 1 Ch 16 Eligibility is not affected by mutual exchange of tours. It shall be considered as if no mutual exchange has taken place and eligible member who was scheduled in accordance with working charts shall be entitled to actual or comp time. ** Far more likely to see this as an in-basket type question, but it could easily appear like this or as a day book photo asking you who is eligible for Comp Time and how much based on the tour. The rule of thumb is if you're scheduled to work or on overtime, you get it... Hire a Vet! Members on mutuals are not entitled to Comp Time...

Question 71

A knowledgeable BC would know that Japan had an attack on their subway system using the nerve agent Sarin (GB). Sarin has which of the following odors? A: No odor B: Camphor C: Fishy, musty odor D: Odor of musky hay

Answer 71

A Explanation: ERP Add 2 page 18 B. Soman has a camphor odor and fruit odor C. ***Nitrogen mustard has a Fishy, musty odor. Don't confuse with Phosphine gas which has a Fish or Garlic Like odor D. Phosgene has an Odor of musky hay

Question 72

Following the overturned tanker fire, BC Barloftster was supervising a company drill on basic foam operations and the following statements were made. Which statement below regarding when to operate a foam hand-line needs correcting? A: When the product is a flammable liquid B: Any source of ignition is located in the area C: When the product causes an exposure problem D: When members are working in the product

Answer 72

B Explanation: FOAM -- Section 8.2 B is incorrect - When the product is on fire

Question 73

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING TWO QUESTIONS BASED ON THE CIDS. (CLICK ON THE CIDS CARD AFTER IT OPENS TO MAKE IT CLEAR AND BIG)... An after action review was performed following a fire on the 43rd floor of the Banker's Trust Building. Different elevators were used during the operation to access the fire area. Considering all elevators were functional, which of the choices below was most correct regarding elevator usage at High Rise Office Building fires? . A: The A elevator car was taken to the 42nd Floor B: The B Elevator car was taken to the 41st Floor C:✔The C Elevator car was taken to the 40th Floor D: The D Elevator car was taken to the 41st Floor Explanation: Elevators 6.1.3 -- Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within 5 floors of the fire floor 6.1.4 -- When necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor, select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest C-Correct -- The fire floor was 43 and the C bank of elevators terminated within 5 floors of the fire floor -- This was the first and best choice D-Incorrect -- The access stair would require an elevator that services the fire floor to be taken to 39. D starts at 40

Question 74

BC Welch is in charge of an "All Hands" fire where the 1st arriving OV heard a victim's cries for help and entered the IDLH atmosphere alone to rescue the victim, you correctly performed which action following the incident? A: Took no action B: Forwarded a report to the Chief of Operations C: Forwarded a report to the Fire Commissioner D: Forwarded a report to the Chief of Safety

Answer 74

B Explanation: In all incidents of such individual action, the Incident Commander shall forward a report to the Chief of Operations. A thorough review of each of these incidents will be conducted. Ladders 3 5.7.3 Note

Question 75

You are the incident commander arriving at the location an overt biological incident. Which of the following considerations made upon your arrival needs correcting? A: Biological agents released at dawn, dusk, or during the night will have a greater impact B: For a release indoors, avoid entry into the area for 15 to 30 minutes to allow the biological to settle to reduce exposure to the inhalation hazard C: Protection from a secondary device is a top priority before establishing a command post and staging areas. D: Establish an initial exclusion zone of at least 300 feet in all directions from the source or point of release

Answer 75

Explanation: ERP ADDENDUM 1 - CHAPTER 1 BIOLOGICAL AGENTS B is incorrect -- 30 minutes to 1 hour 5.2.3

Question 76

Which code was incorrectly given? A: 10-26 for cooking carelessness B: 10-28 code 2 for a non structural fire such as a train fire C: 10-37 for blocking traffic on a highway for EMS D: 10-34 code 2 for a sprinkler system emergency where there was a surge in pressure

Answer 76

C Explanation: 10-31 All calls for assistance other than medical assignments, including a unit assigned to protect EMS by diverting or blocking traffic at a highway incident, good intention calls, calls handled by other agencies, any type of investigation, searches and complaints, and lock-outs comm 8

Question 77

The hot topic at the annual education day for chief officers was the policies and procedures for manhole fires. The following policies and procedures were mention: 1) Only a chief officer can order the application of FireIce.....2) The objective of the application of FireIce is to enable Chief officers operating at 10-25-1, 10-25-2, and 10-25-4 manhole incidents the opportunity to suppress fires prior to the utility company arrival at the scene.......3) The member operating the nozzle should commence operations at a safe standoff distance of 50 feet........4) Vehicles within the area which are parked over manholes, transformer vaults or service boxes can be moved at the direction of Chief Officer or left in place and protected by a handline........5) If size-up dictates, water of FireIce may be operated into a manhole, vault or service box prior to the arrival of Con Ed by order of an on-scene FD Chief Officer (BC/ABC or higher in rank).....6) When operating water into a manhole, vault or service box, maintain a distance of at least 15 feet from the nozzle to the manhole, vault or service box.......Which policies and procedures are correct? A: 1,2,3,4,5,6 B: 1,2,3,4,5 C: 2,3,4,5 D: 1,2,4,5 E: 1,3,4,5

Answer 77

E Explanation: 2) 10-25-1 and 10-25-2 ** FireIce is not intended for use at any type of transformer fire...10-25-4 is for a transformer 3) this is correct, however, after establishing an adequate gel solution, and as conditions allow, the nozzle team may advance toward the manhole while maintaining a minimum safe distance of 25 feet from the manhole opening 6) 25 feet AUC 180 4.6, 4.7.2, 4.8 and AUC 180 add 2 7.2, 7.3, 8.4 This AUC was rewritten in November 2021 and it will be asked

Question 78

A BC is attending an interagency meeting with Con Ed. Con Ed is discussing their process when they are notified of a fault condition when one of their feeders fail and trips a breaker. The following items are mentioned. Which one is incorrect? A: In order to locate the failure, Con Ed intentionally sends out a high-voltage test signal. B: The condition poses no safety threat to the public. C: Notify Con Ed whenever encountering this condition and report that you detected a "fault finding signal". D: At the location of the failure, there will be a loud rhythmic banging noise approximately every 12 seconds without smoke or fire present.

Answer 78

D Explanation: AUC 180 5.1 Every 6 seconds A lot of new information in this rewritten bulletin since last exam. Make sure you know it.

Question 79

An officer who was notified by a member of an alleged incident of harassment would be correct in all actions below except? A: Complete a Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report and submit it directly to the EEO Officer. B: The Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report should be in a sealed envelope. C: The Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report should have intermediate endorsements. D: No copies of the Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report shall be retained by the Officer on Duty.

Answer 79

C Explanation: C) should be submitted WITHOUT intermediate endorsements. TB EEO 7.2 F

Question 80

A “fire watch” required for an out-of-service standpipe system, sprinkler system or fire alarm system shall be maintained by one or more fireguards with one exception: An impairment coordinator or other building staff trained and knowledgeable in conducting a fire watch may conduct a fire watch in lieu of a fire guard during the initial ________ of a planned removal from service, or after discovery of an unplanned out-of-service condition, provided that the floor or area in which the fire protection system is out of service does not exceed 50,000 square feet. A: 4 hours B: 6 hours C: 12 hours D: 24 hours

Answer 80

A Explanation: AUC 5 sec 4.5.4.Exception Also look at sec 4.5.5 and especially sec 4.5.6 and sec 4.6 (when to notify the Alarm Company vs notifying the Fire Marshals) Highly testable area for Battalion Chiefs

Question 81

Battalion Chiefs are familiar with the benefits provided by Positive Pressure Ventilation (PPV). Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding PPV operations? A: One fan can provide the proper pressure in a stairwell up to 10 stories, depending on conditions. B: Two fans will pressurize a 40 story building when properly positioned. C: If the fire floor is above the 10th floor, or additional pressures are required to maintain the stairwell free of smoke, a second fan must be brought to three floors below the fire floor and set up. D: Proper positioning when pressurizing the stairwell in a high-rise building has the fan set up 6 to 8 feet back, at an 80 degree angle.

Answer 81

D Explanation: D. Proper positioning when pressurizing the stairwell in a high-rise building has the fan set up 4 to 6 feet back, at an 80 degree angle. C) Note: The concept of placing a fan on the ground floor and a second fan three floors below the fire, can also be applied to buildings GREATER than 40 stories. AUC 349 7.3

Question 82

The incorrect statement in regards to Stack Effect can be found in which choice? A: The "Stack Effect Neutral Pressure Zone" will be found near the center of the building that experiences no horizontal air exchange at all (air will not be pulled into or pushed out of an opening or pulled into or pushed out of a floor due to stack effect) B: Shorter buildings will experience a more powerful Stack Effect because more air will be moving a shorter distance inside the building C: The magnitude of the Stack Effect will be dictated by the size of the temperature differential between the interior of the building and the exterior environment and the height of the building D: Stack Effect will be more prominent in extreme weather; when air conditioning or heating systems make the temperature inside the building remarkably different from the outside temperature

Answer 82

B Explanation: Fire Dynamics sec 1.4, 1.4.3 and 1.5 (2019) TALLER buildings will experience a more powerful Stack Effect because more air will be moving over a longer distance inside the building. Also, the presence of large vertical shafts (stairways, elevators, compactors, etc.) will contribute to the strength of the Stack Effect ****This condition can cause smoke and fire gases to bypass several floors near the center of the building (near the stack effect neutral pressure zone), only to be pulled into floors somewhere above or below the center of the building depending on the direction of the stack effect

Question 83

Basic knowledge of the Buckeye Pipeline is essential to units operating properly at pipeline incidents. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information? A: There are two locations along the pipeline that are equipped with Hazardous Vapor Detection Systems which will detect an accumulation of flammable vapors inside these spaces. For any response to these locations, the IC must transmit a 10-80. B: There are some above-ground valves that may require shutting down by Fire Department personnel. These valves are located behind locked metal wire fences openable with a 1620 key. C: There are four Buckeye Pipeline locations that are equipped with intruder alarms. If units need to enter these locations for any reason other than an emergency response (i.e. drills or training) the Buckeye Pipeline Control Center must be notified through the Borough Dispatcher after entry. D: The Hazardous Vapor Detection Alarm resembles a fire alarm strobe outside of these locations.

Answer 83

C Explanation: There are four Buckeye Pipeline locations that are equipped with intruder alarms. If units need to enter these locations for any reason other than an emergency response (i.e. drills or training) the Buckeye Pipeline Control Center must be notified through the Borough Dispatcher PRIOR to entry. B Note: Due to increased security measures from the Department of Homeland Security, if an intruder alarm is received without prior notification, this will cause an emergency shut down of the pipeline. C Note: Members must use extreme caution at these locations as they are potentially entering a flammable atmosphere. The IC must utilize Haz-Mat Co. 1, a Haz Mat Tech Engine or a Squad company with metering capabilities to confirm that there is not an accumulation of flammable vapors. AUC 149 2.1.7, 3.1.1, 3.1.3, 3.2.1

Question 84

What is the primary in-building repeater channel for an FDNY programmed auxiliary radio communications system (ARCS)? A: Channel 9 B: Channel 10 C: Channel 11 D: Channel 12

Answer 84

C Explanation: A. Tactical Secured B. Command Secured D. Secondary in-building repeater channel (ARCS) *CHAPTER UPDATED JULY 2020* Communication Ch 13 3.1

Question 85

During aircraft fires a transitional attack could be utilized. Transitional attack is correctly described below in all choices except? A: A 10-86 should be considered for aircraft fires and/or spills in addition to the crash box assignment on airport property. The use of Foam Tankers, and Satellites will be needed at a large aircraft fire and/or spill. B: First alarm Engine Companies might need to consider the use of large caliber foam or water streams depending on fire conditions, life hazards and exposures. C: For aircraft incidents off airport property, a 10-60 and 10-86 should be considered. D: Initially, application of extinguishing agents are used offensively, then, as additional resources arrive,lines are transitioned to a defensive attack.

Answer 85

D Explanation: A) Initially, mass application of extinguishing agents are used DEFENSIVELY, then, as additional resources arrive, hose-lines are advanced for an OFFENSIVE attack. B Note: In addition to Foam and Haz-Mat resources assigned on the 10-86, Incident Commanders should consider utilizing the two assigned Purple K Units on the 10-86 for fires involving metal components and/or fires involving hazardous materials stored on the aircraft. C Note: The first arriving Engines should follow the procedures found in Training Bulletins Foam: 1) First arriving units should place a foam handline into operation. 2) First alarm units should obtain a positive water source and set up for a Foam Tanker. AUC 325 6.6.1-6.6.3

Question 86

What term should be utilized in eCIDS for existing structures which have extensive repairs or renovations that do not involve any horizontal extension, vertical extension, or extensive changes to the structure changing its occupancy or purpose. A: MJALT B: MEGA C: REHAB D: CONST

Answer 86

C Explanation: A) Major Alteration (MJALT)-should be utilized for existing structures which have extensive alterations that involve horizontal extensions, vertical extensions, or extensive changes to the structure changing its occupancy or purpose (Church is repurposed as a restaurant). Comm Ch 4 4.3

Question 87

The probable presence of asbestos at a major steam emergency makes this a haz-mat incident until proven otherwise by sampling and testing. Which of the following actions is incorrect regarding asbestos at steam emergencies? A: Transmit radio signal 10-80 with appropriate code, specifying asbestos release. B: Expose as few members as possible and strictly enforce the FDNY SCBA policy. C: Isolate exposed members and civilians in the Safe Refuge Area to prevent cross contamination. D: Prepare for decontamination as outlined in the Hazardous Materials Emergency Response Plan. In no case should decontamination be performed prior to the completion of sampling and testing.

Answer 87

D Explanation: D) Consider performing decon PRIOR to the completion of sampling and testing. The IC may consider the use of AirPurifying Respirators (APR) after consulting the Haz-Mat Group Supervisor and all risks have been properly evaluated. EP Steam 5

Question 88

While discussing Extraction Task Forces at a recent division conference, the following points were made by the chief officers in attendance regarding radiation emergencies. Which of the following is incorrect? A: Evacuate civilians from buildings in the surrounding area if the projected dose inside the buildings will reach 10 rem for the general population. B: For radiological materials, decontamination is considered successful if levels of radiation on a person or equipment do not exceed twice background levels. C: The cumulative dose during a catastrophic event that triggers a decision to remove members from the hot zone is 50 rem. D: If manpower and equipment are sufficient, members receiving absorbed doses should be rotated at dose levels of 5 rem or when one SCBA tank is expended.

Answer 88

A ERP ADDENDUM 4 -- RADIOLOGICAL OPERATIONS A is incorrect -- Evacuate civilians from buildings in the surrounding area if the projected dose inside the buildings will reach 5 rem for the general population or 10 rem for special groups such as non-ambulatory hospital patients, prison residents, nursing home residents. 3.2.1C B is Correct -- 6.2 C is Correct -- 3.1.4C D is Correct -- 3.2.2 A

Question 89

Stubborn cellar fires in taxpayer structures can be a challenge for even the most experienced BC. All of the following options are correct except in which choice? A: Cellars of large area or heavy fire conditions may require two lines advancing in unison. B: Stretch lines into adjoining cellars and operate through holes made in partitions. C: As a last resort, use hi-expansion foam to control the cellar fire. D: When conditions indicate, use cellar pipes and distributors through holes in the floor.

Answer 89

C Explanation: Taxpayers---this bulletin was updated in March of 2022 sec 7.2.2.G- "Consideration" should be given to the use of High Expansion foam, Bresnan distributors, lines operating through holes made in partitions in adjoining cellars or flooding the first floor Sec 9.1.12- If the fire originated in the cellar it may require flooding of the first floor as a last resort **** this is tight, just pointing out the change in the updated bulletin

Question 90

If a radiological incident occurs, emergency management officials will determine which radioactive substances are present before recommending that people take Potassium Iodide (KI). Members shall only take Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets when directed by the ______. A: Chief of Operations B: Chief of Department C: Fire Commissioner D: Chief Medical Officer

Answer 90

B ERP Addendum 4C, Potassium Iodide Tablets B. 5.4 Note Engines, Ladders, Squads, Rescues, Battalions, Divisions, Borough Commanders and Command Chiefs shall all carry 130 mg Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets in the GLOVEBOX of their apparatus/vehicle. 5.2

Question 91

Backdraft indicators can be found in all of the following choices except? A: Black-yellow smoke seeping out from around closed and intact doors and windows B: No visible/active flaming within the compartment C: Extremely limited or no ventilation of the fire compartment D: Pulsating smoke, usually pulsating in an in-and-out movement, giving the impression the compartment is breathing

Answer 91

A Explanation: Gray-yellow smoke seeping out from around closed and intact doors and windows...sec 7.3 Fire Dynamics (May 2021)

Question 92

A BC reviewing strategy at an electrical substation emergency was incorrect in which thought? A: Sulfur Hexafluoride Gas (SF6), a colorless, odorless gas used to insulate and extinguish arcs in electrical equipment, is twice as heavy than air. B: Capacitor Banks found in locked, caged-in areas pose an electrocution hazard. Even after power has been removed, capacitors retain a potentially deadly electrical charge. C: Thermal decomposition of SF6 gas produces Hydrogen Fluoride, which has a strong, irritating odor similar to rotten eggs, and Metal Fluoride powder, a white powder that is extremely corrosive to bare skin. D: Led/acid batteries found in the substation’s battery room contain 5 to 10 gallons of 30% to 40% sulfuric acid which is corrosive, and can vaporize, resulting in a deadly mist if inhaled.

Answer 92

A Explanation: A) Sulfur Hexafluoride Gas (SF6), a colorless, odorless gas used to insulate and extinguish arcs in electrical equipment is five times heavier than air. AUC 338 Add 2 2.3, 3.4, 3.5

Question 93

According to the Loft Bulletin, at ______ degrees Fahrenheit, cast-iron loses _____ % of its original strength. A: 800, 42 B: 800, 58 C: 1100, 42 D: 1100, 58

Answer 93

D Explanation: Loft Building Fires The strength lost is cumulative and never regained ***Cast-Iron columns are not designed to withstand an eccentric load ***When properly cast, these structural members will withstand a great deal of thermal stress. The statement that all cast-iron columns exposed to fire will shatter when cooled by a hoseline is a myth. However, if an improperly cast column is cooled by a hoseline it can contract disproportionately leading to potential failure *** Iron fibers (like steel) when heated elongate or extend the column. A structural cast-iron column, however, unable to move will crack

Question 94

You are special called as the foam coordinator to a fire in a crawl space of a commercial building 100x100 that is 5' high. If the generators we use to deliver hi-ex foam are 7500 CFM, then how many would you require to deliver enough foam to extinguish an advanced fire in the crawl space? A: 2 B: 3 C: 5 D: 7

Answer 94

A Explanation: FOAM 13.18 pg 27 I hate math questions, but all of the information is in the bulletin... LxWxH divided by 5 minutes is the formula The correct answer is A -- 100x100x5 = 50000 cubic feet. You have to divide that number by 5 minutes to get 10000 cubic feet. That would require 2 generators. If you forget to divide by 5, you get choice D. You won't have the formula in front of you on game day...

Question 95

You are responding to an accident on the Cross Bronx Expressway involving a UPS truck and you receive HT transmissions from the first arriving truck about elevated radiation levels. Regarding the Transport Index, which transmissions received are an indication of a possible breached package at the accident scene? *****1 - Package A has a transport index reading of 10 mR/hr at 1 meter from the package *****2 - Company meters are detecting Alpha, Beta, & Gamma Radiation. *****3 - The entire truck's shipment has a transport index reading of 100 mr/hr. *****4 - Package B has a transport index of 5 R/hr at 1 meter from the package A: 1 only Indicates a breached package B: 1 & 3 only indicate breached packages C: 2, 3, & 4 only indicate breached packages D: 2 only indicates breached packages

Answer 95

C Explanation: ERP Addendum 4 - Radiation pg 33 2.5.3 - If levels of radiation exceed the Transport Index, the integrity of the package may have been compromised or breached. 2.5.4 - The TI applies to levels of Gamma Radiation only. Readings of Alpha or Beta particles indicate the package may have been breached or the shielding compromised. (#2) 2.5.5 - The Transport Index of a package should not exceed 10 mr/hr (#1 is 10 indicating no breach, #4 is 5 R indicating breach) 2.5.6 - The Transport index of a shipment should not exceed 50 mr/hr (#3 states 100)

Question 96

Of the following choices, which contains correct information regarding NYCs electric service system? A: Almost all manhole fires involve the secondary cable network. Primary cables have more substantial insulation which make them less vulnerable to breakdown and they have breakers which generally trip in the event of any type of fault occurring. B: An electric manhole can contain primary cables, secondary cables or both. When both are present, primary cable will be mounted on the wall near the top of the manhole while secondary cable will be mounted on the wall near the bottom of the manhole. C: Underground secondary cable is covered in orange wrapping called “Arc Proofing” which acts as a fire retardant. Older types of arc proofing can be Asbestos Containing Material. D: Transformers are most commonly found in large, circular-shaped underground vaults under the street or sidewalk. Transformers must be vented, so they typically have grated covers.

Answer 96

A Explanation: A) An electric manhole can contain primary cables, secondary cables or both. When both are present, SECONDARY cable will be mounted on the wall near the top of the manhole while PRIMARY cable will be mounted on the wall near the bottom of the manhole. B) Underground PRIMARY cable is covered in WHITE wrapping called “Arc Proofing” which acts as a fire retardant. Older types of arc proofing can be Asbestos Containing Material. D) Transformers are most commonly found in large, RECTANGULAR-shaped underground vaults under the street or sidewalk. Transformers must be vented, so they typically have grated covers. AUC 180 2.1.2, 2.3.1, 3.4.2, 3.4.5

Question 97

Interpreting information on scene of an incident/fire is important for the first arriving Battalion Chief, especially when it comes to fires involving transformers. The following statements were made at a recent drill involving transformer fires: 1) Deactivation of transformers shall be performed by FDNY members or facility engineer(s) in consultation with the on scene Battalion Chief and Con Edison personnel........2) SCBA shall be used at all times until the Officer in Command confirms that the area is free of toxic gases (including overhauling operations).......3) Decontamination shall occur when members or equipment are exposed to levels of PCBs of 40 PPM or higher........4) A PCB transformer will only be found on the "M2-A" car of the New Haven line of Metro North.......5) A NYC owned transformer will have a 6"x 6" decal placed on it with either a blue or yellow background........6) If the number 5 PPM is shown in the box under the PCB column, the FDNY considers it as a Non-PCB transformer. Choose the correct statements A: 1,2,3,4,5,6 B: 1,3,4,5,6 C: 1,3,4 D: 2,4,5 E: 2,5

Answer 97

E Explanation: AUC 266 1- Only by Con-Edison personnel or Engineering personnel. No member of this department shall attempt deactivation by direction or upon instruction of engineering personnel (6.4.2) 2- 6.4.8 3- 50 PPM or higher (8.1) 5- Yellow = PCB contaminated. Blue = NON PCB. Add 3 sec 1.5.3 and 1.5.5 4- Though there is only 1 pantograph for every 2 cars, there will be a PCB containing transformer in every car which will have attached to it the EPA approval label (3.4 add 2) 6- Unless "0" PPM PCB is shown on the decal the NYC FD considers a transformer with any amount of PCBs as a PCB transformer

Question 98

Engine Companies 200, 300, & 400 and Ladder Companies 500 & 600 are assigned to a phone alarm for a fire on the second floor of a 3½ story peaked roof Queen Anne. The units will arrive in assigned order to the block where there is a heavy snow accumulation, visibility and street conditions are poor, and proper apparatus placement is in doubt. Which choice below represents the CORRECT action based on the conditions encountered? A: The first arriving ladder entered the block followed by the first arriving engine after determining the fire was on the second floor. B: The first and second arriving engine companies remained on the main thoroughfare and stretched in after determining the fire was on the second floor. C: The first arriving engine entered the block followed by the first arriving ladder after determining the fire was on the second floor. D: The first and second arriving ladder companies stayed on the main thoroughfare and transported portable ladders to the fire building after determining the fire was on the second floor.

Answer 98

A Explanation: AUC 200 – WINTER OPERATIONS A IS CORRECT – Where the building involved is HIGHER THAN 3 STORIES, preference shall be given to ladder company apparatus entering the block first with the engine company personnel. When the building involved is 3 STORIES OR LESS, preference shall be given to the engine company apparatus entering the block first with ladder company personnel carrying portable ladders. (FIRE SCENARIO IS 3½ STORIES. THE FIRE LOCATION DOESN’T MATTER. 5.3.10 D4

Question 99

Handie-Talkie recordings of actual incidents are frequently used for drill purposes. Which of the following choices regarding the procedure of requesting such recordings is incorrect? A: Officers or units requesting handie-talkie audio must fax a request form to the Handie-talkie Recording Unit. B: Company Officers can request a recording of handie-talkie transmissions on the Primary and Secondary Tactical channels. C: It would be unusual for an Officer to request recordings for an incident at which that Officer’s unit did not operate. Any such request will be considered by the Bureau of Operations but will be granted only if there are valid reasons justifying such request. D: Recordings are the property of the Department and are only to be used for Department business. They shall be kept in a designated secure location in the company office when not in use.

Answer 99

A Explanation: A) Officers or units requesting handie-talkie audio must send an EMAIL from an FDNY address to HT_Recorderunit@fdny.nyc.gov. Notes: Included in the email shall be: The Date and Time of the Incident. The Borough and Box number associated with the Incident. The First Due Battalion which responded to the Incident. The rank, name and assigned unit of the member requesting the audio. The reason for the request e.g. Drill, Legal, Post Incident Review, etc. Comm 9 Add 1 7.1-7.3, 7.7

Question 100

Battalion 99 arrives at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 7 story H-type MD which has a cell-phone site on the roof. Which was the only correct action taken at the fire? A: The Chief special called an additional engine and truck because the building has a cell phone site. B: The Chief ensured a TL was responding following the transmission of the 1075 because the building has a cell phone site. C: The Chief special called an additional BC above the 1075 to supervise roof operations because the building has a cell phone site. D: The Chief ordered a handline stretched to the roof to protect egress and against extension because the building has a cell phone site.

Answer 100

C Explanation: AUC 331 -- CELL PHONE SITES C is Correct -- Note that unlike the other choices, C makes no mention of where the fire is in the building 6.5 A - Incorrect -- if the cell site is involved, special call an additional engine and ladder 6.3 B - Incorrect -- Insure tower ladder response on the initial alarm for a reported fire in these buildings 6.4 D - Incorrect -- Consider stretching a handline to the roof at upper floor fires. 6.7

Question 101

Legally, a loft building may contain up to two individual units used for living purposes. Which of the following is an inaccurate statement regarding these occupancies? A: A “3F” under the A.I.R. on the sign indicates the living unit is in apt 3F. B: The building may not have these living units if it has any occupancy listed as high hazard. C: A sign displaying “A.I.R.” indicates an artist in residence. D: An “R” under “3F” stands for rear.

Answer 101

A Explanation: AUC 5 CH 2 ADD 1 A-Indicates third floor.

Question 102

The arriving BC at a Bulk Oil Tank Facility incident should know that "Steam" extinguishing systems can be identified by piping and valve bodies and handles which are ______. A: red with contrasting black bands B: red with contrasting brown bands C: red with contrasting blue bands D: red with contrasting bright orange bands

Answer 102

A Explanation: AUC 5 Ch 2 Add 3 p8

Question 103

At a recent study group, Captain Hetfield argued with the other captains in the group about District Service Cabinet (DSC) and Community Board (CB) meetings. After reading and studying AUC 285, Captain Hetfield claims the following statements to be correct: 1) DSC meetings are generally conducted in the morning or early afternoon, whereas, most CB meetings are conducted in the evening......2) If available, the CB Coordinator (or alternate) shall attend such meetings on a compensatory time basis......3) If the CB Coordinator (or alternate) is unable to attend on compensatory time, the Battalion Commander shall have a regularly assigned BC attend such meetings while on-duty......4) A regularly assigned BC is a Chief Officer working in the Battalion for more than a vacation period......5) Off-duty BCs will attend these meetings in Class "A" uniform and On-duty BCs will attend these meetings in work duty uniform . If attending on-duty, unit will be OOS for the duration of meeting unless the Supervising Dispatcher determines that the circumstances necessitate their response......6) If no BC is available to attend a DSC or CB meeting, a regularly assigned BC should notify the District Manager by phone prior to the meeting, if possible. The Battalion Commander shall ensure a follow-up call is made following the meeting...........Captain Hatfield's fellow captains say he is correct in which statements A: All are correct B: Only 2,3,4,5,6 C: Only 2,4,5,6, D: Only 1,3,5,6 E: Only 1,3,5

Answer 103

A Explanation: AUC 285 section 3 Following all meetings, the attending BC is required to forward a DSC and CB meeting report form through the chain of command to the Chief of Operations.....sec 6.2

Question 104

Before committing personnel to operate at a Radiological Emergency, the Incident Commander must assess the risk/benefit involved operating in the Hot Zone. What is the Decision Dose (whole body) for Firefighters when protecting major property? A: 5 Rem B: 10 Rem C: 25 Rem D: 50 Rem

Answer 104

B Explanation: ERP Addendum 4, Radiological Operations 3.1.4 A. Table 3 Protective Action Guidelines A. General operations at a radiological emergency C. Lifesaving or protection of large populations D. Lifesaving for a catastrophic event

Question 105

A Battalion Chief receives a phone call from one of his companies stating that the officer on duty just received a verbal complaint about an absent smoke detector from a civilian. The BC would be most correct to tell the officer to take which action? A: Notify the Fire Marshals B: Notify FDOC C: Notify DOB D: Refer the complainant to Department of Housing Preservation by dialing "311"

Answer 105

D Explanation: AUC 5 Ch 2 Add 5 Sec 8

Question 106

Following a string of Maydays at his fires, Chief Close Call decided to stop by the companies in the battalion to discuss the capabilities of the Pak-tracker. Which is the only correct statement heard during the visits? A: When taking a reading with the Pak-Tracker, always pause for 4-5 seconds. B: The Pak-Tracker will emit a two-tone audible alarm when it receives a signal from a pass device in full alarm for 20 seconds. C: Once a Pak-Tracker locks onto one signal, it still retains the ability to receive additional Pass Alarm signals. D: During a search, the LED's will begin to light when the signal strength rises above the 50% level.

Answer 106

D Explanation: Training Bulletins -- SCBA Add 8 - Pak-Tracker D is correct 7.6 A -- 3 to 4 seconds 7.9 B -- full alarm for 10 seconds 5.2 C -- Pak-Tracker receiver can only lock onto one SCBA at a time 5.4

Question 107

A first alarm assignment arrives at the scene of a manhole where a Con Edison worker has fallen 20' down sustaining life threatening injuries. A series of decisions were made in haste to save his life. Which of the following actions was correctly carried out by the on scene units? A: The Engine firefighters assisted the truck companies in lowering a member secured to a life saving rope while the BC conferred with the truck Captain on a retrieval system. B: Because it could support 600 lbs, the first arriving aerial ladder was quickly positioned to be used as a high point anchor. C: The only safe way to detect a lack of oxygen is through the use of an oxygen meter D: As a result of a poorly assembled retrieval system, a tower ladder was used to lift the victim and rescuer from the hole once packaging was completed.

Answer 107

C Explanation: Emergency Procedures/ Confined Space A - Incorrect --First alarm units should not consider lowering a rescuer with the LSR unless extreme circumstances exist, and they must have a plan for removing that member. 4.3 B - Incorrect -- Aerial ladders can support 250 lbs as a high point anchor....Tower Ladder 1,000 lbs 4.3 C - Correct - 2.1 D - Incorrect - Aerial or Tower Ladders should never be used as a crane to lift a person. 4.3

Question 108

Your unit responds to a call for a Li-ion-ESS container with smoke showing on arrival. Which action is in accordance with Department procedures for this incident? A: Shut down the ESS (ESTOP) at the FDC or inside the electrical room if the ESS is supplying a building. B: The Engine Company shall connect to the FDC, if available, but not charge the water extinguishing system. C: Do not exhaust the container. Most containers do not have an exhaust system place. D: Transmit a 10-80 no code radio signal for a Haz-Mat Response.

Answer 108

A Explanation: The Engine Company shall connect to the FDC, if available, AND CHARGE the water extinguishing system. EXHAUST the container using the exhaust override switch at the FDC. CABINETS may not have exhaust systems. Transmit a 10-80 CODE 1 radio signal for a Haz-Mat Response. Note: Also.... Use exterior lines to cool adjacent cabinets and exposures if present and necessary. Use narrow fog or straight stream application and maximum reach of streams if possible. HM 19 5

Question 109

Of the following choices, which would not meet the Department’s requirements for the granting of “emergency leave?” A: Member reports he needs to leave as his step-father, who does not live with him, is in the hospital with severe chest pains. B: Member reports he needs to leave as the water heater in his home broke down, leaving his wife and children with no hot water on a cold January night. C: Member reports he needs to leave as his sister, who does not live with him, has suffered a stroke. D: Member reports he needs to leave as his brother, who lives in the same home with him, has been admitted to the ER for an unknown, serious illness.

Answer 109

B Explanation: Deputy Chiefs shall, when notified of serious illness of a spouse, child, parent (step, foster or natural), brother or sister of a member, grant an emergency leave to member. Deputy Chief granting such leave shall complete and forward form BP-603. PA/ID 1 ch 6

Question 110

There are many instances where a Firefighter is ineligible for RSOT. Which RSOT tour should be approved? A: FF Wilson who is a 6th grade Firefighter that was hired to the Fire Department 5 1/2 month ago. B: FF Stafford who is on accrued leave. C: FF Sheen whose is on vacation leave that was rescheduled due to being on other than line of duty medical leave. D: FF Jones who is on terminal leave.

Answer 110

C PAID 3 ch 2 A- RSOT is not permitted for 6th grade Firefighters with less than six (6) months in the Department sec 13 B- RSOT is not permitted for Firefighters on accrued or terminal leave. sec 14 C- Firefighters whose vacation leaves have been rescheduled due to their being on other than line of duty medical leave, and as a result have their scheduled RSOT tour fall between their scheduled vacation dates, may either work or mutual exchange their RSOT tour sec 8.11 D- sec 14

Question 111

Members of a BC study group were drilling on the different types of radiation. Which of the following statements about radiation is incorrect? A: Neutron can be shielded by high hydrogen content material such as three feet of water, one foot of concrete, ten inches of plastic B: Gamma can be shielded by several inches of lead, concrete, steel, a foot of dirt or water C: Beta can be shielded by approximately 1/4 - 1/2 inch of plastic, aluminum or glass D: Alpha can be shielded by a sheet of paper

Answer 111

C Explanation: ERP Addendum 4, Radiological Operations 1.1 Table 1 Approximately 1 inch

Question 112

The battalion chief arrives at a fast spreading 2nd alarm Taxpayer fire where he smells a strong odor of gas coming from the structure. He correctly radios the unit who is responsible for shutting down the utilities. Which unit would that be? A: First arriving ladder‘s inside team B: First arriving ladder’s outside team C: Second arriving ladder’s inside team D: Second arriving ladder’s outside team

Answer 112

A

Question 113

Which one of the following choices is not in accord with FDNY policy for fires in class 2 high-rise multiple dwellings? A: The 4th ladder roof FF will proceed to the apartment directly above the fire with the KO curtain. B: The 3rd ladder will search apartments above and below the fire as necessary. C: The 3rd ladder will search all hallways and stairs above the fire on a continual basis. D: If the 3rd ladder is operating in the apartment above the fire, the 4th ladder will search all hallways and stairs above the fire on a continual basis.

Answer 113

A Explanation: Firefighting Procedures, MD’s Ch #4 10.3.1. That will lead you to HRFPMD’s 9.3.3

Question 114

While working in Battalion 59, you receive an administrative assignment to respond to a construction site to meet Engine 100. Upon arrival, the officer has some serious concerns regarding the Standpipe/sprinkler system. Of the following choices, which would be in accordance with the Code? A: When existing sprinkler systems with fire department hose connections are present in buildings undergoing full or partial demolition, such systems shall be maintained as a non-automatic sprinkler system B: When demolition starts, the sprinkler risers shall be capped 2 floors below the floor being demolished so as to maintain the sprinkler system on all lower floors for Fire Department use C: In a building under construction that requires a standpipe system the standpipe system shall be considered to be in a state of readiness by a DOB tag located at the first floor outlet D: In an unoccupied building under construction an existing standpipe system must be maintained wet at all times

Answer 114

A Explanation: AUC 5 Ch 2 add 2 A- Page 3 B- Capped immediately below the floor being demolished so as to maintain the sprinkler system on all lower floors for Fire Department use..p-3 C- No standpipe shall be considered to be in a state of readiness unless it is painted red p-2 D- In an unoccupied building, an existing standpipe system may be maintained as a dry system subject to the approval of the commissioner and the fire commissioner of the fire department, and also provided the standpipe system is equipped with an air pressurized alarm system. p-2

Question 115

The incorrect statement made in regard to Vacates can be found in which choice? A: For residential vacates, up to 6 hours may be granted to allow occupants to prepare for relocation including sleeping purposes B: In general, the Issuance time and the Enforcement time will be the same for commercial vacates C: Vacate warning posters come in several languages. The admin unit shall write the date the Vacate order was issued, the premises address and the part(s) of the premises that were vacated on each poster D: V.O.s shall not be issued to correct the condition which caused the issuance of the Vacate Order

Answer 115

A Explanation: 6 hours is correct, however: NO time should be granted for sleeping purpose Also, the admin unit shall remain OOS at the scene to assist the HPD Division of Relocation or Red Cross, unless otherwise directed by the STAFF CHIEF! AUC 5 ch 4 add 4 sec 4.5

Question 116

Of the following infractions, in which is Command Discipline generally not appropriate? A: Improper uniform or fire clothing equipment. B: Two or more tours where a member was AWOL. C: Disrespect to an officer or superior. D: Leaving assigned place of duty without authority.

Answer 116

B Explanation: AWOL not exceeding one tour of duty. PAID 8 ch 10 2.2

Question 117

At fires, the overhaul stage is especially dangerous because when you remove your mask, toxic fumes can be lingering. Hydrogen Chloride can irritate your respiratory tract which may swell enough to cause suffocation. What odor does Hydrogen Chloride give off? A: Odor of almonds B: Pungent odor C: Fruity odor D: Hydrogen Chloride does not give off an odor but can be recognized by a reddish brown gas which can cause edema to the lungs leading to suffocation

Answer 117

B Explanation: Training Bulletin SCBA Addendum 3 A. Hydrogen cyanide is a gas that is colorless but has a noticeable almond odor. Section 2 B. Hydrogen chloride is colorless, but has a pungent odor and is intensely irritating not only to your eyes but also to your respiratory tract which may swell enough to suffocate you. Section 5 C. Acetaldehyde gives off a fruity odor. Section 8 D. Nitrogen dioxide, a reddish brown gas, irritates your lungs, and enough of it can cause edema that blocks breathing. Section 6

Question 118

BC Knockdown was discussing foam operations at MUD and during the conversation, the following statements were made. Which of the below was the only correct statement made? A: At an old style steel tank truck rollover, a BLEVE can occur and the product must be off-loaded. B: At an overturned aluminum tank truck involved in fire that remains intact, the chance of BLEVE is eliminated. C: At a tank truck accident with fire, an all-hands assignment supplying two hand lines will provide enough foam to operate for approximately 17 minutes. D: At a tank truck accident where there is a leak which has been stopped and contained, the remaining contents must be off-loaded before the vehicle proceeds.

Answer 118

A Explanation: FOAM A is Correct. A vehicle that has rolled onto it's side must be off-loaded. Never attempt to upright a loaded vehicle. 8.6 & 8.7 B is Incorrect -- Chance of a Bleve still exists when shell remains intact 8.7 C is Incorrect -- One hand line will provide approximately 17 minutes of operating time. Using two hand lines will increase the amount of area covered, but will reduce operating time. 8.4 D is Incorrect -- Once the spill is abated and the leak stopped, a decision has to be made whether to allow the tanker to proceed or have it off-loaded. 8.5

Question 119

Special Calls and the transmission of additional alarms at fires in multiple dwellings is a particular responsibility of chief officers. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the general rules related to special calls? A: Special call an additional engine and truck for a medium fire condition in a new law tenement when it is anticipated that two lines will be required. B: Transmit a second alarm for a fire on two floors in an old law or new law tenement. C: Transmit a third alarm for an old law tenement fire that is extending into two exposures. D: A second alarm will generally be necessary at an H-type building when two floors are involved or at extensive cockloft fires.

Answer 119

B Explanation: For two floors of fire special call an additional engine and truck. If progress is not made on at least one floor in a short period of time, transmit a second alarm. MD Ch 1 2.4.6, 4.5.4

Question 120

Today is December 22, 2018, and you are working in B-99 for the 6x9 tour. While enjoying a great steak dinner made by ladder company L-200, you receive a phone call from a young lieutenant (E-200) who is housed with L-100 within your battalion. He informs you that he reasonably suspects that the FFs from E-200 have engaged in drinking alcohol while on duty. From the list below, choose the incorrect procedure you tell him to do in this case. A: Prohibit on and off-duty members at the time of discovery of any violation of this policy from leaving premises without permission of the investigating officer. If any member is permitted to leave premises during an investigation, the investigating officer shall document the reason for the release in a report to be sent to the Chief of Department via the chain of command B: Immediately relieve the on-duty member(s) from emergency response duty C: Immediately place E-200 and L-100 OOS D: Immediately notify BITS and document the incident in the company journal

Answer 120

C Explanation: Immediately have “affected unit” placed OOS (E-200) AUC 202 sec 5.5 Be aware of the following update: An Unusual Occurrence Report (UOR) shall be completed in accordance with Regulations, Chapter 30.3, for any instance where a member has a suspected or known violation of this policy. Documentation on the UOR should include all observations (positive or negative) of the member’s appearance, behavior, speech, performance indicators, or body odors and any other observations that indicates violation of this policy.

Question 121

All members should know how an aircraft incident may be sectored. Which of the following choices is incorrect? A: From the pilot’s point of view, the A sector is on the left side of the cockpit, adjacent to where the pilot sits for fixed winged aircraft. B: The A sector is between the nose of the aircraft (12 o’clock) and the left wing (9 o’clock.) The remaining sectors are then assigned clockwise starting from the A Sector. C: The right side of the aircraft can also be referred to as the rescue side of the aircraft due to the layout of doors. PA ARFF will use this side as a reference point and the primary side for rescues. D: Aircraft doors are labeled by what side of the plane they are on, based on the pilot’s point of view. Doors are numbered 1, 2, and 3, starting with the door closest to the cockpit as door number 1.

Answer 121

C Explanation: The LEFT side of the aircraft can also be referred to as the rescue side of the aircraft due to the layout of doors. PA ARFF will use this side as a reference point and the primary side for rescues. AUC 325 6.2.1-6.2.4

Question 122

Members may be granted time off for school variances to further their education. When a member owes ____ hours of excusal time for a period of _____ or more days no further excusal time shall be allowed. A: 24, 15 B: 24, 30 C: 36, 15 D: 36, 30

Answer 122

D Explanation: PA/ID 7 Ch 2 School Attendance Variances 3.4.4 D. Members shall repay excusal time asap, at their convenience. No time limitations for repayment shall be imposed as long as a member is enrolled. However, when a member owes 36 hours of excusal time for a period of 30 or more days no further excusal time shall be allowed.

Question 123

You have just been designated the evacuation supervisor for a train derailment at Liberty and Pennsylvania avenue in the Borough of Brooklyn. When it comes to the evacuation procedures, all of procedures listed below are correct except? A: Whenever evacuation or removal of passengers from a train to the track or benchwall is contemplated, the power shall be ordered off B: Under no circumstances are FDNY members to operate on track areas unless notified via FDNY dispatcher that the power is off. This may be ignored if life is in imminent peril C: The evacuation of passengers from under river tubes should take place towards any fan operating in the exhaust mode D: In a smoke condition, the track bed may be more comfortable for the passengers than the benchwall/catwalk, since the track bed may be below the smoke level. However, both the track bed and benchwall are acceptable avenues of evacuation

Answer 123

C Explanation: Away from any fan operated in the exhaust mode AUC 207 add 8 sec 5 Also see: Under River Rail operations 4.6 If possible, exhaust smoke and other contaminants away from evacuating passengers by using the fans on one side in the supply mode while using fans on the opposite end in the exhaust mode Also look at Under River Rail Operations page 1 figure 1....It is unsafe to walk between the running rails (trackbed) due to the drainage trough....Personnel and evacuating passengers should walk in the area OUTSIDE the rails, opposite to the 3rd rail.

Question 124

In preparation for Brush Fire season, a group of BC's met to discuss operations at a previous fire on a hillside. Which action taken during the operation was correct according to department guidelines? A: Units were positioned at the top of the hill to cut off rapid fire extension and provide an attack on the fire. B: Additional units were positioned to attack the fire from the left and right flanks and then moved to the interior burning areas. C: Large caliber streams were used to break up heat waves and provide a water curtain to protect exposures. D: Operating landlines were directed at the flames above the brush to provide a wide area of penetration and cover a greater area.

Answer 124

B Explanation: AUC 151 -- Brush fires A - Incorrect - Position units at the top of the hill to protect exposures, but attack the fire from the bottom and work up. 5.4.16 B -- Correct 5.4.10 C -- Incorrect - Attempting to break up heat waves by using a water curtain is generally ineffective. Instead utilize streams to apply water directly to exposures. 5.4.17 D -- Incorrect - Streams should be directed at the burning brush not at the flames burning above the brush. 5.4.13...

Question 125

It is critical for first responding units, including the BC, to address street management and fire control at collapse operations. Select the most correct street management option at a collapse operation. A: All ambulances need to be close to the scene to provide supplies for triage and initial treatment B: Later arriving apparatus should be parked away from the scene in a secondary staging area C: Aerial ladders should be placed in front of the collapsed structure, but outside of the collapse zone D: The first two arriving engines shall seal off the ends of the street

Answer 125

B Explanation: Collapse Operations pages 6 and 7 A- First arriving ambulances need to be close to the scene to provide supplies for triage and initial treatment. Additional units should stage away from the operations site, in an area where egress can be made once patients have been loaded for transport C- Tower ladders should be placed in front of the collapsed structure, outside of the collapse danger zone D- Two of the second alarm engine companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street

Question 126

The Post Radio shall be fully charged when? A: Monthly B: Weekly C: Daily D: Each tou

Answer 126

B Explanation: The Post Radio shall be fully charged weekly (whether used or not) and after each use for at least 8 hours The Post Radio transmits at 45 watts Also: In case of emergency, the IC may switch the Post Radio to the tactical channel to broadcast their message. This should be done only for emergency transmissions Communications ch 12 page 12-1

Question 127

During a busy day tour working in Battalion 3, you receive a phone call that a member of Engine 2 was injured while sliding the pole in quarters when chow was called. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? A: Battalion Chiefs shall be responsible for investigating all injuries occurring in quarters. B: Particular attention shall be given to injuries at or immediately after the change of tours. C: Battalion chiefs shall be responsible for the condition, efficiency and manning of each unit in their Battalion, and when necessary, provide details of members to such units. D: A report with full particulars shall be forwarded to the Chief of Safety.

Answer 127

D Explanation: A report with full particulars shall be forwarded to the Chief of Operations. Regs 7.5.1, 7.5.3

Question 128

In question 6, you advised the young Lt from E-200 on the proper procedures on what to do when members are suspected of drinking alcohol on-duty early into the 6x9 tour. As a chief officer, you have certain duties that you must adhere to involving this same incident. Choose the incorrect duty. A: Notify the Command Chief through the chain of command B: Notify the Borough Command through the chain of command C: Ensure that the Lts notifications and duties found in AUC 202 have been made D: Consult with Command Chief to designate an officer as the investigating officer

Answer 128

B Explanation: This was the 6x9 tour. The notification of the Borough Command through the chain of command shall be on weekdays 0800 hours to 1600 hours or the Command Chief at all other times (nights, weekends, and holidays) Choice D is correct as written. AUC 202 sec 5.6

Question 129

Operations receives a complaint about excessive noise from our apparatus and it trickles down to the chiefs to remind their members about FDNY Regulations. When responding to alarms, bells, air horns, or sirens shall be sounded with a frequency depending upon conditions enroute. These warning signals shall be dispensed with, when consistent with safety, in the immediate vicinity of all the following places except? A: Hospitals and theaters B: Residential areas during school hours C: Churches D: Occupancies where large numbers of people are likely to be assembled

Answer 129

B Explanation: Regulations 11.1.10 B. Discretion shall also be used when passing through hotel and residential districts during the night. These signals shall be dispensed with, when consistent with safety, in the immediate vicinity of hospitals, theaters, churches or other occupancies where large numbers of people are likely to be assembled.

Question 130

Battalion 12 responds to a 10-77. Who shall “confirm” the evacuation stairway door(s) have been closed on the fire floor and are maintained in a closed position? A: The 1st Ladder Company Officer B: The 2nd Ladder Company Officer C: The 3rd Ladder Company Officer D: The 4th Ladder Company Officer

Answer 130

C Explanation: 3rd truck officer CONFIRMS. MD Ch2 9.3.2 The 2nd Truck is responsible for searching the public hallway, and ensuring all evacuation stair doors are closed on the fire floor. This is further elaborated where this chapter says “The 2nd Truck inside team maintains the evacuation stairway door/s closed and initiates the search of public hallway on the fire floor.”

Question 131

24 hours prior to a hurricane, a battalion chief must complete certain duties. Choose the incorrect duty A: Begin a Log Book to record all hurricane related activities and messages B: Ensure battalion "go bag" is ready to be moved C: Distribute extra Post Radios to companies that may be operating in isolated areas D: Ensure the receipt of completion report or copy of 24 hour checklist from companies E: Forward completion report or copy of battalion 24 hour checklist to OEM (Office of Emergency Management)

Answer 131

E Explanation: Forward to Division Look at the "go-bag" it contains telephone numbers, Notification cards, Chargers for tools and radio/extra batteries, and Hurricane Binder and Log Book AUC 159 add 3 Battalion 24 checklist

Question 132

Engine 244 and Ladder 177 are cleaning up from a minor fire in a bodega after business hours. Units cut the locks to the roll down gate and a pane of a skylight was taken to relieve the smoke condition. Following the operation, the premises was secured by a lock supplied by the Battalion. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding this procedure? A: This policy would not apply to this situation. B: The padlock used to secure the premises must be issued to the administrative company for placement. C: The issued key shall be kept in a secure place in the company office. D: Upon removing the lock securing the premises, PD must be summoned to verify the identity of the person desiring entry.

Answer 132

A Explanation: AUC 231 – SAFEGUARDING PROPERTY A IS CORRECT – 2.6 – There must be no other damage to the entire perimeter of the premises. (There was a pane of the skylight taken in the body of the question) B – Administrative company not required to secure a premise. BC will issue a padlock and key to a company at the scene and direct company to secure premises. 3.2 C – The key shall be kept in a secure place on the APPARATUS 4.2.2 D – The officer shall secure positive identification of the person desiring entry, have the appropriate receipt signed and have the padlock removed. If there is any doubt, the PD is to be summoned. 4.4,4.5

Question 133

Battalion 99 returns from a multiple alarm fire where they were the all hands chief. A preliminary inspection of his PSS was normal on the outside, but revealed black discoloration on the rope inside. What is the appropriate action to take next by this chief officer? A: Place the battalion out of service pending a changeover of the chief's PSS System. B: Utilize the spare repacking kit while awaiting a replacement PSS from the Rope Unit. C: Decontaminate the PSS using a mild detergent, sponge and water. D: Place the Battalion in service.

Answer 133

D Explanation: Training Bulletin Rope 4 D is Correct -- 5.4.3 -- Over time, the rope can be discolored in spots by contact with the liner indicated by dark shading to the rope. The discoloration of the rope due to dye does not affect the load bearing capacities of the rope. The inside liner of the bag is dyed black... A -- Incorrect for rope discoloration B -- Incorrect -- If necessary, would come from the Division 6.2 C -- Incorrect -- Procedure if fire ground contaminants. 6.8.1

Question 134

At a HRFPMD fire, all of the following are correct regarding a "flanking attack" when the door to the fire apartment has been left open except? A: This option is available based on the location of the fire apartment, the location of a stairway closer to the selected apartment, and the interior hallway conditions. B: Enter an adjoining apartment to apply the hose stream to the fire room or fire apartment via a breached wall adjacent to the fire area, if this adjoining area can be accessed and occupied safely. C: Once access is obtained to the adjoining apartment the hoseline will be stretched via the fire floor public hallway into the adjoining apartment to operate into the fire apartment. D: A small opening can be made in the adjoining wall to the fire room as close to the exterior wall as possible, so as not to create a flow path. Initially, the hole in the wall should be only large enough for the main stream tip of the nozzle to be placed into the opening allowing the stream to be directed at the ceiling of the fire room

Answer 134

C Explanation: C. This would only be correct if the fire apartment door was CLOSED. Once access is obtained to the adjoining apartment, the door to that apartment must remain closed and the hoseline stretched to this adjoining apartment from the apartment below via an exterior window or balcony using a utility rope. MD Ch 5 4.2.5

Question 135

You are the incident commander responding to a confirmed fire on the 44th floor of a High-Rise building. Which is the only correct statement regarding High Pressure pumping related to this operation? A: Prior to the arrival of the designated BC, the high pressure pumping operation can be implemented. B: No more than 1 length of high-pressure supply hose should be stretched to the FDC. C: Unless ordered to do so by the IC, conventional engines not equipped with high-pressure equipment should not operate in pressures exceeding 250 pi.. D: High Pressure pumping operations are not required at this fire.

Answer 135

A Explanation: Engine Operations Ch 8 Add 1 A -- Correct 2.1.8maxim B -- Incorrect -- No more than 2 lengths 2.1.2 C -- Incorrect -- 300 psi. Sec 1.5 D -- Incorrect -- High Pressure pumping operations are required at this box. 1.4 Note

Question 136

Communications at brush fires are difficult at times, especially when units are spread out over a large geographic area. To overcome the communications difficulties at these incidents, all of the following can be utilized except? A: Use the capabilities of the Field Communications Unit B: Use the capabilities of the Communications Unit C: Utilize the Post Radio on the Command channel D: Utilize the Borough dispatcher when units are out of H/T range E: Utilize the Logistics Unit Leader to maintain status information of all resources allocated to the incident

Answer 136

E Explanation: AUC 151 sec 5.9. Resource unit leader

Question 137

The incorrect procedure when using the TAC "U" channel can be found in which choice? A: When the TAC "U" channel is activated, all operating units shall remain on the Primary Tactical channel unless specifically instructed to switch to another channel B: Each Battalion is provided with a yellow FAST Unit H/T that has the capability to operate on the TAC "U" channel C: The Operations Chief will designate a Battalion Chief (preferably the Rescue Operations Chief or Haz-Mat Battalion Chief) to have direct control over FD units operating on the TAC "U" channel D: The IC will consult with the ranking on-scene police officer when activating the TAC "U" channel when Hazardous Materials Operations involving members of at least 2 FDNY units

Answer 137

D Explanation: The IC will consult with the ranking on-scene police officer when activating the TAC "U" channel when Hazardous Materials Operations involving ENTRY BY MEMBERS OF BOTH DEPARTMENTS INTO A HAZARDOUS AREA Also: Zone "B" channel 12 is designated as the TAC "U" channel. This channel transmits at 5 watts.....All FDNY Units have this capability Communications ch 14 add 2 pages 1-2

Question 138

Which of the following statements contains incorrect information regarding the Department’s modified response program? A: Response to BARS alarms will be a single unit response – 1st due Engine only (emergency mode). B: Response to Class “E” alarms will be a single unit response – 1st due Engine or Ladder (emergency mode) C: Response to Class “J” alarms between 1900 and 0700 hours will be a single unit response (emergency mode). D: When a Battalion Chief or company officer receives additional information regarding the incident from the dispatcher, he/she may cancel the 10-20 response mode.

Answer 138

C Explanation: Response to Class “J” alarms BETWEEN 0700 AND 1900 hours will be a single unit response (emergency mode). Comm Ch6 Add 1 2.2

Question 139

Ventilation at taxpayer buildings is a critical function that when carried out correctly can reduce the possibility of a backdraft and determine whether the operation ends in success. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding ventilation during operations in these buildings? A: Heated, pressurized gases naturally rise. When a ventilation opening is made in the roof directly above an area suspected of being filled with pressurized gases and no other opening exists, a flow of gases will release under pressure from the area below the vertical opening. This flow may temporarily delay fresh air from being drawn into the vent opening until smoke and gases have released and diminished in pressure. B: FDNY will conduct vertical ventilation in conjunction with a flanking attack. The flanking attack should be delayed until vertical ventilation is completed first. C: Backdrafts occur when there is an introduction of oxygen to a compartment that has been pressurized by the smoke and fire gases of an oxygen-deficient fire in the Decay Stage. D: Smoke Explosions occur when fuel-rich smoke mixes with additional air and falls within its flammable / explosive range. It can occur without warning and occurs without a sudden change in ventilation.

Answer 139

B Explanation: FDNY will conduct vertical ventilation (when possible and safe to do so) in conjunction with a flanking attack. The flanking attack will NOT be delayed for vertical ventilation to be completed first. Water application on the fire must not be delayed. If there will be a delay in water being applied to the fire, the ladder company officer or IC should order roof ventilation to be delayed or withheld until water can be applied to the fire. Txpyr 4.4.1 A, B, 4.4.

Question 140

2 Battalion Chiefs are discussing the Post Radio at drill. Which comment was incorrectly stated? A: The key aspect of Post Radio use is the establishment of a Command Channel at 45 watts. B: The IC may utilize the Post Radio anytime its use would enhance communications at an incident. C: Upon arrival, it is the responsibility of the Deputy Chief to ensure that a Post Radio is in position at the Incident Command Post (ICP) at every “all hands” or greater alarm. D: If a Battalion is assigned as an Attack Chief, they can leave their Post Radio at the Fire Sector/Branch set to the command channel.

Answer 140

D Explanation: D) set to the tactical channel. Comm Ch 12 5.1, 6.3 Notes

Question 141

A knowledgeable Battalion Chief would know all of the statements below to be correct regarding the Department's "Command and Control" policy except? A: Upon arrival at a 2nd alarm or greater, the BC assigned as the Resource Unit Leader shall ensure the Portable Command Post (PCP) is deployed at the ICP. B: When communicating to Sectors, use both the Sector Supervisor’s sector designation and unit number (i.e."Command to Fire Sector Battalion 2”). C:✘The first to arrive BC shall continue to manage the tactical operations of the incident under the supervision of the Deputy Chief - IC. Both Chief Officers shall operate together for the duration of the incident. D: Upon arrival of the assigned Deputy Chief, the first to arrive Battalion Chief shall be designated the Deputy Incident Commander or the Operations Section Chief. The transfer of command will include a face-to-face exchange of information.

Answer 141

A Explanation: A) Upon transmission of a 2nd alarm the DC shall ensure the Portable Command Post (PCP) is deployed at the ICP. Command & Control Ch 2 2.1.5, 2.2.3, 2.3.2, 3.9

Question 142

The BC from B-15 contacts the first arriving officer at a structural building collapse and asks him to describe the type of collapse that occurred. This rusty truck officer quickly reviews in his head the following 4 types of collapses before answering the BC and is only correct in which type of collapse? A: Lean-over collapse is a collapse of an exterior wall that breaks apart horizontally; the top collapses inward back on top of the structure and the bottom collapses outward onto the street. Wood braced-frame constructed buildings collapse this way B: Inward/Outward collapse is when an exterior masonry wall drops like a falling curtain cut loose at the top; the collapse of a brick veneer, brick cavity or masonry-backed stone wall C: Lean-To collapse is a type of wood-frame building collapse indicated by the structure slowly starting to tilt or lean over to one side D: Tent-floor collapse is when a floor collapses and an interior partition or wall holds up the center of the fallen floor

Answer 142

D Explanation: The difference between Lean-over collapse and Lean-To collapse can be confusing on test day. We recommend knowing one of the two cold instead of both. This way you won't get tripped up. Collapse add 3 A. An Inward/Outward collapse is the collapse of an exterior wall that breaks apart horizontally; the top collapses inward back on top of the structure and the bottom collapses outward on to the street B. Curtain-Fall Wall Collapse C. Lean-over collapse

Question 143

A newly assigned probationary firefighter made an incorrect comment regarding single-occupant restrooms found in Fire Department facilities. Indicate the incorrect comment. A: A single-occupant restroom is considered a restroom containing no more than two water closets and two urinals, even when egress from it is through a male- or female-designated changing area. B: To the extent that they exist at a given facility, all single-occupant restrooms must be made available for use by persons of any gender. C: Facilities may be subject to random inspection by the EEO Office. D: Any questions or concerns regarding the single-occupant restroom policy should be directed to the EEO Office.

Answer 143

A Explanation: A single-occupant restroom is considered a restroom containing no more than one water closet and one urinal, EXCEPT where egress from it is through a male- or female-designated changing area. PAID 9 Ch 12

Question 144

When the FDNY Incident Commander (IC) needs to communicate with the NYPD via a NYMAC I/O channel, the IC shall call-in to the NYMAC 1 channel. All of the following statements regarding this procedure are correct except in which choice? A: The FDNY IC will be instructed by NYPD to either remain on NYMAC 1 or switch to the assigned NYMAC I/O channel for the incident (NYMAC 2 or 3). B: The FDNY IC shall notify the appropriate Borough Dispatcher and FDOC of the I/O channel that has been activated. C: A NYMAC I/O channel will be assigned without FDNY request for second alarms or greater as well as pre-planned interagency events. D: When using an I/O channel, the FDNY IC shall communicate the Box number and Borough of the incident at the beginning of each transmission.

Answer 144

D Explanation: When using an I/O channel, the FDNY IC shall use the name of the incident at the beginning of each transmission (e.g. 2nd alarm on Northern Blvd in Queens) as simultaneous events may be taking place on the channel. Comm 14 Add 3 2.2, 2.3

Question 145

Portable EFAS tablets with attached HT radios have been issued to all Battalions. Choose the incorrect statement made regarding the portable EFAS A: At large-scale and expanding incidents (10-75's or greater), the portable EFAS can be rapidly deployed from the Battalion vehicle to provide early monitoring of EFAS by the IC until the Battalion vehicle EFAS can be monitored by the Battalion FF and later when the FAST unit member arrives to relieve the Battalion FF B: Provide an initial Portable EFAS at the Command Post if the first arriving Battalion's Portable was OOS C: Provide a second Portable EFAS at the Command Post to monitor additional HT channels D: Portable EFAS can monitor several HT channels at the same time

Answer 145

D Explanation: Only one HT channel at a time. Comm ch 9 add 3 sec 8.5 and 9.6

Question 146

You have just been designated the High-Rise Roof Chief (HRRC). En-route to the mobilization point you obtain from the IC through the dispatcher what 3 pieces of vital information? A: Preliminary report, ID of attack and evacuation stairs, ID of all exits from building B: Progress report, ID of attack and evacuation stairs, ID of stairs that lead to roof C: Progress report, ID of attack stairs only, ID of all exits from building D: Preliminary report, ID of evacuation stair(s) only, ID of stairs that lead to roof

Answer 146

B Explanation: AUC 269 add 1 sec 3.1.2

Question 147

Company officers shall notify the next level of command when a detail from within the Borough does not arrive within ________ and from another Borough in ________ A: 1 hour, 2 hours B: 45 minutes, 1 hour 15 minutes C: 1 hour, 1 hour 30 minutes D: 2 hours, 3 hours

Answer 147

A Explanation: The BC will notify the DC with the following info: Name, Assigned Unit, Detail from/to, Time left/arrived, Method of travel AUC 287 pages 10 and 11

Question 148

The FDNY has developed an agreement with Con Edison that enables Chief Officers at the scene of electrical emergencies to telephone the Shift Manager at the Borough Electrical Control Center. Some conditions that might require a call to a Con Edison Shift Manager can be found in all of the following except? A: Fire condition becomes more severe than originally reported B: Dangerous CO conditions in surrounding properties C: Additional manholes or equipment showing activity D: Transformer fire affecting one occupancy E: Sensitive or high-profile occupancy

Answer 148

D Explanation: Transformer fire affecting several occupancies Remember, If a Con Ed Substation is involved, Chief officers can contact the Con Edison SUBSTATION Shift Manager. This is different than the Electric Control Center AUC 180 add 1 sec 2

Question 149

The FDNY has an established protocol for training, familiarization tours, and drills with agencies such as, Amtrack, LIRR, MetroNorth, etc. As per protocol, who must you send a request to for this to happen? A: Chief of Department B: Administrative Division C: The agency directly D: Public Transportation Safety Unit

Answer 149

D Explanation: All requests for drills, training, and familiarization tours must be requested (as per protocol) through the Bureau of Operations, Public Transportation Safety Unit...Via chain of command AUC 207 add 18 sec 1.2

Question 150

In 2014 a new Fire Code was enacted that requires Auxiliary Radio Communications Systems (ARCS) in all newly constructed Hi-Rise buildings. The incorrect tactics/procedures regarding the ARCS can be found in which choice? A: One 1620 key is needed to activate channel 11 and 12 B: Unlike the elevator lobby control panel, when you insert your 1620 into the ARCS console it is not removable in the ON/Active position C: The IC shall determine which members should switch to the repeater channel. Limit the number of members operating on the repeater channel. The repeaters cannot support multiple messages transmitted at the same time D: Any member operating on the repeater channel must be teamed with a H/T equipped member operating on a tactical channel

Answer 150

A Explanation: If both channels are needed, a 2nd 1620 key will be needed to activate channel 12. The two systems operate independently of each other Communications ch 13 pages 4-5 Ch 13 is a must read

Question 151

While operating at a train derailment, the DC ask you to be the Train derailment sector and perform a hazard assessment for hazardous materials. You would be correct to look for which type of shipping papers? A: The "bill of lading" kept within reach of the master. B: The "waybill" carried by the operator. C: The "bill of lading" kept within reach of the conductor. D: The "waybill" carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine.

Answer 151

D

Question 152

When the EAB is depressed on the HT audible alerts are emitted. Which choice contains incorrect information regarding these audible alerts? A: An impolite call is when the radio sends a transmission even when the channel is busy with other radio traffic, however it will not preempt any ongoing transmissions. B: Approximately 2 seconds after the impolite transmission, the polite alert is sent. C: The HT transmits one impolite and two polite alerts. D: A polite call is when the radio sends a transmission when the channel is not busy with other radio traffic.

Answer 152

B Explanation: B. Approximately 8 SECONDS after the impolite transmission, the polite alert is sent. THIS SECTION IS ALL NEW FEATURES OF THE HT Communications Ch 11 3.5.1.1

Question 153

All of the following collisions shall be considered preventable with the exception of which choice? A: A Fire Department apparatus in a non-response mode strikes a vehicle when passing a double parked car. B: A Fire Department apparatus is involved in a collision while operating in reverse gear when guide personnel should have been available. C: A double-parked apparatus at Multi-Unit Drill is struck by a civilian vehicle. D: A Fire Department apparatus strikes the door of quarters when returning from an alarm.

Answer 153

C Explanation: Also preventable.... Operating a tractor trailer without an operator in the tiller. Collisions caused by the failure to chock wheels. A fall from a moving apparatus. SB 3 add 3

Question 154

Communications systems in High Rise Fireproof Multiple Dwellings can be a tremendous asset when it comes to fire operations. Which choice below correctly describes the building where the responding BC will be able to deliver messages to panicked residents above the fire floor? A: A 500 ft High - 45 Story 100x100 Class 1 MD - Constructed in 2006. B: A 120 ft High - 12 Story 100x50 Class 1 MD - Constructed in 2014 C: A 250 ft High - 25 Story 150x150 Class 1 MD - Constructed in 2008 D: A 100 ft High - 8 Story 100x100 Class 1 MD - Constructed in 2010

Answer 154

C Explanation: MD Ch2 11.1.2 2008 Building Code requires one way communications from the fire command center to all stairways and dwellings for all R-2 buildings greater than 125' in height...

Question 155

The IC at a high rise office building fire shall ensure the response of which unit when auxiliary radio communications systems (ARCS) are utilized? A: Planning Vehicle B: Communications Unit C: Tactical Support Unit D: Field Communications Satellite Unit

Answer 155

B Explanation: D. This term is no longer used ICS Ch 2 Add 3 3.3

Question 156

Five Battalion Chiefs around the city made decisions regarding the units they special called to their fires. Which chiefs made decisions in line with dept guidelines for fire operations? *****(1) BC 1 special called an additional eng & truck for a fire in a private dwelling of lightweight construction. *****(2) BC 2 special called an additional eng & truck while operating two hand lines at an advanced fire in the cellar of a taxpayer. *****(3)BC 3 special called an additional eng & truck for a fully involved top floor in an OLT type Rowframe. *****(4) BC 4 special called an additional eng & truck for two floors of fire in a Brownstone. *****(5) BC 5 special called an additional eng & truck for fire on two floors in an H-type MD. A: 2 & 4 are Correct B: 1 & 5 are Correct C: 3 & 4 are Correct D: 1 & 3 are Correct

Answer 156

C Explanation: C is correct - BS 4.4 & RF 7.6A 1 - Additional Engine for a structural fire in a private dwelling of lightweight construction. PD's Ch 6 4.2.2 2 - Advanced fire in a cellar of a taxpayer is a second alarm. Txpyr 5.7.4 5 - Two floors of fire or extensive cockloft fire in an H-type it is generally necessary to transmit a second alarm. MD Ch 1 4.5.4

Question 157

Two members discussing the Department’s EEO procedures were correct in all statements but one. Indicate the incorrect statement. A: Sexual harassment complaints may be filed directly with the Fire Department's Bureau of Investigations and Trials. B: A complaint must be filed with the Fire Department's EEO Officer within one (1) year from the date the alleged discrimination or harassment occurred. C: Upon notification to an Officer/Supervisor by a member of an EEO incident, the Officer/Supervisor shall inform the member of available filing options. D: For EEO incidents that affect operations, the Officer/Supervisor shall always initiate contact with the EEO Officer through the Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC).

Answer 157

D Explanation: For EEO incidents that effect operations, the Officer/Supervisor shall contact the EEO Officer during office hours. During non-office hours, the EEO Officer can be reached through the Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC). PAID 8 Ch 2 5.4-6.1, 6.2.2

Question 158

A city surrounded by different departments, IO frequencies can always come into play. Which statement regarding the use of IO frequencies during operations is incorrect? A: UTAC repeater channels are intended for outside operations and cannot be relied upon for interior structural communications. B: Conversations on UTAC channels should be in plain speak. Refrain from using FDNY 10 codes. C: If unable to address problems instituting UTAC protocol at the scene, special call a DC to respond. D: Due to potential problems involving distance, all operations occurring on the Hudson River with NJ departments shall be conducted on UTAC 42, the primary repeater channel.

Answer 158

C Explanation: Communications Chapter 14 Addendum 4 A -- Correct - 2.2A B -- Correct - 3.3 C -- Email FD operations with particulars of the incident. 4.2 D -- Correct - Table 1 & Note 5.1

Question 159

The Division Task Force Engine and Ladder Companies can be denoted with what letter suffix? A: D B: T C: F D: K

Answer 159

D Explanation: A- Tech Decon task Force Engine or Ladder B- Transport backup Unit C- FAST Unit Division Task Force E100K or L200K Communications ch 2 page 18

Question 160

Purple K is the only agent recommended to be used directly on a transformer fre prior to utility company arrival. Standoff distance is ______ feet. A: 5 B: 10 C: 15 D: 20

Answer 160

B Explanation: AUC 180 6.4.2

Question 161

As the IC in charge of a tree cutting task force, you are discussing objectives with the teams you have assembled. Which is the only CORRECT statement you made according to department policy? A: Where possible, clear debris from sidewalks and crosswalks. B: Do not attempt to remove a tree that has fallen on an unoccupied vehicle in order to establish an emergency lane. C: Operations on private property can involve removal of obstructions blocking the entrance to a building. D: Chainsaws are not to be operated from a Tower Ladder.

Answer 161

C Explanation: AUC 301 -- Tree Cutting Operations... A -- Not responsible for debris removal from sidewalks. 3.2 B -- Do not attempt to remove a tree which has fallen on a vehicle unless such action is required to perform rescue, administer aid, or establish an emergency lane. 3.4 C -- Correct. 3.3 D -- Chainsaws may be operated from a Tower Ladder bucket if certain precautions are taken. 5.8..

Question 162

The housing maintenance code outlines the maximum permitted occupancy for every person in an apartment of a class A or class B multiple dwelling or in a tenant-occupied apartment in a one- or two-family dwelling. Each person must have a livable area of not less than how many square feet? A: 70 B: 80 C: 90 D: 100

Answer 162

B Explanation: AUC 5 Ch 4 Add 1 Pg 2

Question 163

A newly promoted BC should be able to point out which incorrect comment regarding Bereavement Leave? A: Bereavement Leave will normally begin at 0900 hours following the time of death. B: Bereavement Leave may not be more than four (4) calendar days. C: Bereavement Leave of not more than two 15-hours tours or two 9-hour tours and one 15-hour tour may be granted by the Deputy Chief. D: When Bereavement Leave is granted, the officer on duty in the member's unit must prepare a report (in duplicate) to the Bureau of Personnel. Forward one copy immediately; forward the other copy with transcript of death.

Answer 163

B Explanation: Bereavement Leave may not be LESS than four (4) calendar days. PAID 1 ch 3 page 2 Look at 2.7....."Bereavement Leave will normally begin at 0900 hours following the time of death. In circumstances where there will be a delay in the services of the deceased, members may, with the approval of the BATTALION and DIVISION, begin Bereavement leave at 0900 hours on a later date"......The last sentence is new. It was added in April 2022

Question 164

Due to a major power blackout, you have just been designated a RRV Sector Supervisor in charge of 5 Task Forces. You should know from studying that your primary communications method for these Task Forces are? A: DARS radio B: 800 MHz radio C: Cell phone D: Department radio

Answer 164

A Explanation: B- Alternative C- Contingency D- Emergency AUC 159 add 8 sec 4 PACE Primary - DARS Alternative - 800 Contingency - Cell Emergency - Dept.

Question 165

The physical characteristics of a suspicious substance may indicate the presence of a biological agent. What color is weaponized anthrax? A: Opaque B: Brown or yellow C: Gray or yellow D: Gray or brown

Answer 165

D Explanation: ERP, Addendum 1, Chapter 1 sec 3.2.8

Question 166

All visible fire is knocked down at a fire in Park Slope and EMS delivers the civilian casualty count to the Incident Commander. Dean Street produced eleven 10-45’s. There were two black tag, three orange tag, four yellow tag, and five green tag. According to the color-coding tags, how many of the 45’s were code 2? A: 0 B: 3 C: 4 D: 5

Answer 166

A Explanation: COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 8 PG 8-13 Code 1 – Black tag/deceased Code 2 – Red tag/life threatening injury Code 3 – yellow/orange tag non life threatening injury Code 4 – Green tag/non serious ambulatory

Question 167

Assigned Battalion Chiefs must visit at least once each week, every Department building over which the Battalion has supervision, and inspect members, uniforms, apparatus, equipment, records, and all areas of quarters to ensure Company Commanders and Company Officers are following the rules and regulations of the FDNY. From the list below, choose the only regulation that was followed CORRECTLY... A: Officers on duty shall not permit photographs to be taken in department buildings under their jurisdiction without approval of the Fire Commissioner B: Officers on duty shall be responsible for all fuel drawn from storage systems. No fuel shall be delivered to other than Department vehicles without approval from the Company Commander. C: Officers shall ensure that the Workplace Violence Prevention Policy is posted permanently on the bulletin board of the company quarters/administrative offices D: Company Commanders shall ensure the interior of all lockers are secured in a neat, clean, and serviceable condition for the storage of uniforms, clothing, and other personal property. Materials prohibited by any Department rules or regulations shall not be posted or otherwise kept on the interior sides of lockers

Answer 167

A Regulations ch 19 sec 19.2.6 B- Officers on duty shall be responsible for all fuel drawn from storage systems. No fuel shall be delivered to other than Department vehicles without approval of the Bureau of Operations. 19.3.12 C- EEO Policy Statement and Sexual Harassment Policy Statement and Diversity and Inclusion Mission Statement are posted on bulletin board (19.2.2). The WorkPlace Violence Prevention Policy is available on FDNY Intranet PAID 1-2011 sec 1.5 D- Not the CC...THE INDIVIDUAL MEMBERS are responsible....19.2.2 Also see Regs ch 7 sec 7.4.1

Question 168

With the possibility of being designated as the High-Pressure Group Supervisor for a fire on an upper floor of a High-Rise office building, you must be well versed in high-pressure pumping operations. Choose the MOST CORRECT high-pressure pumping operation. A: The standpipe should only be supplied by 1 engine. B: Pressures exceeding 600 psi will require a 3rd stage engine. C: Stairwells served by standpipes may be used as staging or rest areas during high-pressure pumping operations. D: Only an IC at the rank of Battalion Chief (not including Acting Battalion Chiefs) or higher may order the use of the 3rd stage.

Answer 168

B 356 Over 300 high pressure 500 3rd stage preferred 600 3rd stage required

Question 169

In order to maintain a manageable span of control when a 10-60 is transmitted, it will be necessary to delegate functional management to Section Chiefs. At a collapse operation, when the first arriving DC becomes the IC, the first arriving BC can be reassigned to which position? A: Search and Rescue Branch Director B: Operations Section Chief C: Staging Area Manager D: Planning Section Chief

Answer 169

D

Question 170

Units respond to a box truck on its side after it crashed into a tree. They are getting hits for radiation of 200 mR/hr at the surface of one of the packages. This package has a radioactive level - III transport index label that reads 10 mR/hr. The IC CORRECTLY transmits that this is a _________ A: radiological emergency because the total transport index of a vehicles shipment can't exceed 50 mR/hr B: radiological incident because this package can emit radiation levels as high as 50 mR/hr at 1 meter from the package C: radiological emergency because radiation levels over 50 mR/hr at the surface of the package means it most likely has been breached D: radiological incident because this package can emit radiation levels as high as 200 mR/hr at the surface of the package

Answer 170

D Explanation: ERP Add 4 sec 2.2, 2.3 and Appendix 2 sec 2.4 A package shipped according to DOT guidelines can emit radiation levels as high as 200 mR/hr at the surface of the package Don't confuse this with the transport index which is read 1 meter from the package. A. This is a correct statement, but not for the incident mentioned in the question B. 10 mR/hr

Question 171

B-100 receives a phone alarm at 1200 hrs for a truck fire next to a school. Upon arrival, B-100 receives confirmation from L-200 that there is a gasoline tanker that rolled over and is on fire about 100 feet from a school covering an area approximately 100x100. L-200 also states that the tanker is holding approximately 4,000 gallons of gasoline and has an aluminum shell that is mostly intact. Since this is the first gasoline tanker roll-over for the Chief in B-100, she only performed which tactic CORRECTLY? A: Ordered the Satellite to use the modified angus foam cannon positioning the apparatus as far from the incident as possible. B: While waiting for Satellite to arrive, ordered a Tower Ladder to apply a large caliber stream to the vapor area of tanker C: Ordered a Tower Ladder and handlines into operation because BLEVE is never an issue with aluminium shell tankers (melt before BLEVE) D: Ordered members into foam blanket to turn off the leaking valve

Answer 171

B Explanation: A- Onto the vapor area of the tank as close as possible...8.8 B- Correct...8.7 C- If the tank is made of steel, or when an aluminum tank remains intact, the chance of BLEVE still exists and its extremely important to get a large caliber stream on the vapor area of the tank quickly.....8.7 D- Entry into a foam blanket should be limited to the rescue or injured victims....8.4 last bullet

Question 172

The time is 1600 hrs and you receive a phone call from a distraught Lt. advising you he needs to immediately take emergency leave and bereavement leave following notification that his father-in-law passed suddenly at 1400 hrs. Which of the following choices is CORRECT recalling your knowledge of the leave policies? A: You advise the Lt. that the emergency leave request is invalid, the bereavement leave request is valid and begins at 0900 tomorrow. B: You advise the Lt. that the emergency leave request is valid, the bereavement leave request is invalid and you relieve him from duty allowing him 2 night tours off. C: You advise the Lt. that the emergency and bereavement leave requests are valid, relieving him from duty and advising him that the bereavement leave request may not be less than 4 calendar days. D: You advise the Lt. that neither request is valid, however, due to the circumstances, you relieve him from duty.

Answer 172

A Explanation: CROSS REFERENCE – PA/ID 1 Ch 3 & Ch 6 A – Correct – In-laws are NOT covered under emergency leave, but mother and father-in-law are covered under bereavement leave. Immediate family member of spouse or domestic partner: Spouse or domestic partner's parent or child or other relative residing in the member's household at the time of death. PA/ID 1 Ch 3 1.1.3. Deputy Chiefs shall, when notified of serious illness of a spouse, child, parent (step, foster or natural), brother or sister of a member, grant an emergency leave to member. Deputy Chief granting such leave shall complete and forward form BP-603. PA/ID 1 Ch 6 1.1 Bereavement leave may not be less than 4 calendar days. PA/ID 1 Ch 3 2.5 Bereavement leave begins at 0900 following time of death. In circumstances where there will be a delay in services of the deceased, members may, with the approval of the Battalion and Division, begin Bereavement leave at 0900 hours on a later date. PA/ID 1 Ch 3 2.7 Two 15 hour tours or one 15 hr tour and two 9-hr tours. PA/ID 1 Ch 3 2.1

Question 173

You are en-route to a report of an explosion "in the area" when the 1st Engine transmits a 10-60 on arrival for an explosion with numerous people hurt and several buildings affected. You arrive, and try to establish some sort of order. You start implementing the tactics associated for an explosion, but were only CORRECT in which tactic? A: Directed the 4th arriving BC to the Transportation Sector B: Staged incoming units in a protected area and have members search the area for additional explosive devices including opening doors, lockers, pails, etc C: Directed the 2nd arriving BC to the POI D: Order members to remove apparatus from primary blast sight/crime scene area until NYPD Bomb squad gives the all clear to return

Answer 173

Explanation: ERP add 3 Operations at Explosive and Incendiary Incidents A- Correct...1st BC to ICP, 2nd BC to TTP, 3rd BC to POI, 4th BC to TS....5.4.4 B- Members of the FDNY are not trained to conduct a SEARCH for explosive devices. members are to SURVEY the Staging Area, but shall not conduct a SEARCH for devices.....5.1.3 C- 2nd arriving BC to TTP....page 19 D- Leave emergency vehicles that were inside of the primary blast/crime scene area in place until the NYPD Bomb Squad can determine they are safe to move them will not destroy evidence...5.1.3

Question 174

You just responded to two back to back runs for a fire, which both turned out to be portable LPG barbecues in use. One involved a barbecue on a 5th floor balcony of a 6 sty 100x100 "H" type multiple dwelling (R-2 occupancy), and the second one involved a barbecue in the rear yard of a 2 1/2 sty 20x60 private dwelling (R-3 occupancy). In regards to the Fire Code for LPG barbecue use for these two occupancies, the MOST CORRECT statement can be found in which choice? A: In an R-2 occupancy, only portable barbecues may be use outdoors with a capacity of one 20 pound LPG container B: In an R-2 occupancy, a total of four 16.4 ounce containers may be stored indoors of dwelling unit C: In an R-3 occupancy, portable outdoor barbecues designed for use with LPG containers with a capacity of 40 pounds or LPG containers with a capacity of 16.4 ounces may be stored or used D: In an R-2 occupancy, a maximum of two 20 pound LPG containers may be stored on premises and/or balcony

Answer 174

B Explanation: AUC 5 ch 2 add 3 page 3 A- 16.4 ounce container B- Correct C- 20 pound or 16.4 ounce containers may be stored or used D- 20 pound LPG containers shall not be stored or used indoors, or on any rooftop or balcony This may or may not be an in-basket question. Know this section of the fire code. R-2 occupancy: portable outdoor barbecues are permitted with a capacity of 16.4 ounce containers, which may be stored or used on the premises. Indoor storage of 16.4 ounce LPG containers are limited to four per dwelling unit R-3 occupancy: A maximum of two 20 pounds or LPG containers with a capacity of 16.4 ounces may be stored or used to fuel a portable outdoor barbecue. Indoor storage of 16.4 ounce LPG containers for this or any other purpose is limited to a maximum of four such containers per dwelling unit. Cannot store or use 20 pound cylinders indoors, or on any rooftop or balcony

Question 175

You are working the 9x6 tour in B200 in the great Borough of the Bronx when you receive a ticket for for an odor of gas in a hardware store for the address 710 Eastchester Rd. The ticket reads as follows: E400, E500, L100, L200, B200. CIDS: MERCANTILE 1 STY 40X80 CL3-PART OF TAXPAYER WITH 10 STORES - COMMON CELLAR & COCKLOFT- SPKR IN CELLAR- SIAM LOC EX 2 SIDE OF BUILDING- YEAR BUILT 2009. Upon arrival, L100 tells you over the HT that the cause of the gas odor is a cracked gas pipe feeding the boiler. L100 shuts down the gas valve at the meter and the incident is under control. L100 officer asks you to come down to the cellar where you find the following: 1 gallon of gasoline, 2 1/2 gallons of diesel fuel, and 5 gallons of kerosene all stored in the proper containers. Your next course of action is to? A: Transmit the 10-40-1 and take up since the owner provided you with permits for the flammable and combustible liquids stored below grade B: Transmit the 10-40-1 and order the removal of all flammable and combustible liquids from below grade even with permits present C: Transmit the 10-40-1 and order the removal of all combustible liquids even with permits present, but leave the flammable liquid since it was less than 2 1/2 gallons and permits are present D: Transmit the 10-40-1 and order the removal of the 1 gallon of flammable liquid and leave combustible liquids in place since permits are present

Answer 175

D Explanation: AUC 5 ch 2 add 3 page 7 Make sure you study this section. Pre 2008 and 2008 requirements. Effective July 1, 2008: Flammable liquids in any amount shall not be allowed in basements, cellars, or other areas below grade Combustible liquids shall be allowed to be stored in basements, cellars, or other area below grade provided that these areas are protected throughout by a sprinkler system

Question 176

A BC conducting drill with local units on gas emergencies had to address which incorrect comment made? A: An “Explosion Profile” is the size-up of a building’s explosion potential based on the current amount of natural gas and gas energy within the structure. To determine this, the amount of natural gas present and the size of the area the gas is accumulating in should be estimated. B: A 10-75 and 10-80 Code 1, specifying a “Major Gas Emergency,” should be transmitted to the dispatcher when an incident is determined to be a Major Gas Emergency. C: The IC may modify the assignment assigned on a 10-75 and 10-80 Code 1 for a “Major Gas Emergency” to meet incident needs after careful consideration and consultation with the Rescue Battalion via cell phone (preferred) or 800 MHz radio. D: When a 10-75 and 10-80 Code 1 specifying a “Major Gas Emergency” is transmitted, the IC should also transmit the location of the designated Command Post and Staging Area.

Answer 176

C Explanation: The IC may modify the assignment assigned on a 10-75 and 10-80 Code 1 for a “Major Gas Emergency” to meet incident needs after careful consideration and consultation with the HAZ-MAT BATTALION via cell phone or 800 MHz radio (PREFERRED). EP Gas 7.2 and 7.3

Question 177

A newly promoted Battalion Chief is on scene for a report of a cellar fire in a 2 1/2 sty 20x60 private dwelling. Upon further investigation, the 1st ladder company officer communicates via HT to the chief that one of the family members who rents an apartment in the cellar, burnt his food on the stove top accidentally. Since there was no extension to the cabinets, the ladder company officer recommended a 10-26. In regards to the cellar apartment, the newly promoted Battalion Chief should take what CORRECT course of action? A: Prepare for a possible vacate and call DOB to scene B: Transmit the 10-26 and take up since cellar apartments can be used for sleeping, eating, or cooking purposes as long as its a family member C: Transmit the 10-26 and take up since basement and cellar apartments are legal in private dwellings whether its a family member or not D: Transmit the 10-26 and take up since the cellar is partially below the curb level and having at least 1/2 of its height above the curb level and is considered a legal cellar apartment

Answer 177

A Explanation: No room in the cellar of a one or two family dwelling shall be rented and no member of the family or families occupying the dwelling shall use such room for sleeping, eating or cooking purposes, except that a secondary kitchen for accessory cooking may be located in the cellar Cellar no good. Basement: A room in the basement of a 1 or 2 family dwelling may be occupied for living purposes by members of the family or families in conjunction with their occupancy of the dwelling if certain conditions are met Choice "D" is the definition of a basement AUC 5 ch 4 add 1 page 3

Question 178

You, the Battalion Chief, are working the 9x6 on January 15, 2019, in B-200 with the following units under your command; E-100, L-100; E-200, L-300; E-1; E-300, L-400. The temperature is 20 degrees and has been this cold for the past two days. Since it has been 25 degrees or less for at least 24 hour hours, the Deputy Chief asked you to institute an inspection and corrective action program to identify and thaw frozen hydrants in your area. This inspection includes all of the following hydrants except? A: Hydrants used within the past 12 hours B: Hydrants having defective drainage assemblies previously reported, but not yet repaired C: Hydrants at construction and demolition sites D: Hydrants where experience has shown ground water to be a problem E: Hydrants with plugged drains

Answer 178

A

Question 179

A BC conducting a drill on roll call utilizing EFAS would know that members are instructed to fully depress and release their handie-talkie remote microphone 3 times. Members that doesn't depress and release their handie-talkie remote microphone will remain unaccounted for and have to be contacted directly. The roll call screen will show "unaccounted for" members in what color? A: Gray B: Yellow C: Green D: Brown

Answer 179

B Explanation: A. Unstaffed positions are represented in grey and do not need to be accounted for 7.1.4 C. Green shows members who have been accounted for D. Unaccounted for positions are shown in yellow Communications Ch 9, Add 3 7.1.4

Question 180

In the middle of a busy day tour in Manhattan, your aide approaches you and states he would like to meet with an EEO Officer as soon as possible. You should know all of the following to be correct except? A: A member has a right to meet privately with the EEO Officer or an EEO Attorney/Investigator during office hours; however, the member should obtain approval to do so prior to leaving his/her work assignment. B: A member should disclose to the Officer the purpose for meeting with an EEO Office representative, prior to being relieved from duty. C: Reasonable leave requests to meet with an EEO Office representative during work hours cannot be denied by supervisors. D: Officers shall allow members to meet with an EEO Office representative at the earliest practicable time consistent with the operational needs of their units.

Answer 180

B Explanation: A member need NOT disclose to an Officer/Supervisor the details of, or the purpose for, meeting with an EEO Office representative. Any concerns about this particular policy should be immediately addressed to the EEO Office. PAID 8 Ch 2 7.2,

Question 181

As the first arriving chief officer for an AirTrain incident, it is important to know and understand all about the AirTrain guideways. Choose the incorrect statement made about the guideways. A: The service walkways will be adjacent to the track, and are either center, or side walkways B: The AirTrain guideway has two parallel tracks. and generally follow the right hand side rule (travel same fashion as an automobile) C: Blue light station power removal boxes are located every 600 feet along the guideway D: The entire guideway is provided with service walkways E: The presence of a guardrail above the parapet wall of the elevated guideway usually indicates that the third rail is located between the tracks, and that there is a side walkway present

Answer 181

C Explanation: 800 feet AUC 207 add 12 pages 2-3 Dont get this confused with blue light power removal boxes found 600 feet apart in subways (AUC 207 sec 8.5)

Question 182

Operational considerations are many when dealing with fires in EIFS buildings. Of the below statements, which are correct about fire operations? *****(1)Upon the transmission of a 1075, an add'l Eng & Lad should be special called. *****(2)EIFS buildings shall be entered into CIDS & a TL should be added to the initial assignment. *****(3) A satellite monitor can provide the greatest reach of all the solid stream options. *****(4) A 1 3/4 handline with 15/16 tip will provide greater vertical reach than a 2 1/2 handline with a 1 1/8 tip. *****(5) Initial handlines should be positioned for both interior and exterior attack on the fire... A: 1,2,5 are Correct B: 2,3,4 are Correct C: 1,4,5 are Correct D: 1,3,4 are Correct

Answer 182

C Explanation: AUC 362 #1 - Correct - 2.8 #2 - Tower Ladders do not have to be assigned on the initial assignment. 2.7 & 2.8 #3 - See Chart 3.1 -- Tower Ladder provides the greatest reach. #4 - Correct - See Chart 3.1 #5 - Correct 2.2

Question 183

Inspections and investigations are for the most part, Chief Officers responsibilities. From the list below, choose the investigation that is MOST CORRECT... A: E-100 has 2 FFs injured in quarters. One FF injured occurred sliding pole. One FF received burns while cooking at stove. These 2 injuries requires a DC investigation B: L-100 transmitted a verbal for a vehicle lockout in front of quarters. One FF injured attempting to open door of vehicle. This injury requires a BC investigation C: L-200 was backing into quarters from a previous run when a FF received an injury stepping into a pothole. This injury requires a BC investigation D: E-200 and L-300 were conducting a search drill in quarters when 2 FFs from L-300 received injuries. One FF sprained her ankle and one FF sprained her wrist. These 2 injuries requires a BC investigation

Answer 183

D Explanation: Battalion Chiefs shall be responsible for investigating ALL INJURIES OCCURRING IN QUARTERS. Particular attention shall be given to injuries at or immediately after the change of tours. A report with full particulars shall be forwarded to the Chief of Operations Regulations ch 7 sec 7.5.1

Question 184

You are special called to a cabaret for an overcrowding condition. Upon your arrival, you confirm the occupancy is overcrowded but determine a vacate is not necessary. What would be the MOST CORRECT enforcement action for you to take? A: Serve an FDNY Summons to reduce the number of occupants as well as a Summons for violating the law. B: Notify NYPD to order an evacuation of the building and issue a forthwith VO (EG-7) to reduce the number of occupants. C: Serve a Summons for violating the law and issue a forthwith VO (EG-7) to reduce the number of occupants. D: Serve an FDNY Summons for violating the Fire Code and issue a forthwith VO (EG-7) to reduce the number of occupants.

Answer 184

C Explanation: AUC 5 ch 2 add 8 sec 2 ****also read AUC 5 ch 4 add 2 (Cabarets)

Question 185

You are on scene for a fire on the 41st floor of a 60 sty 100x200 CL1 High-Rise Office building. The Engines on scene are: E1P, E2, E3, E4, E5C. In reference to High-Pressure pumping, the MOST CORRECT statement made can be found in which choice? A: High-pressure pumping is not an issue since the fire is on the 41st floor B: Maintain safety zone of at least 25 feet around E1 in all directions including the high-pressure supply hose C: Order E2 to connect to building siamese other than the one E1 is using to assist in high-pressure pumping D: Pressures exceeding 600 psi will require a 3rd stage. When 3rd staging pumping is implemented, the IC shall ensure an additional 3rd stage Engine is assigned to the incident.

Answer 185

D Explanation: Engine operations ch 8 add 1 A- Floors 31-40 (300psi). High-pressure pumping is defined as operating at discharge pressures over 300 psi...... 41st floor and above... 1.4 B- 50 feet around E1 (working engine)....2.1.3 C- Special call another high-pressure/3rd stage engine to incident if pressures higher than 300 psi are required (only one on ticket (E1P).......2.3 D- correct....3.1 A BC should be assigned as the High-Pressure Group Supervisor to control this pumping operation (2.1.8). When only one building siamese connection is available, stretch the second supply line to the first floor outlet. Do not connect two high-pressure supply lines to a single building siamese connection......2.3

Question 186

In buildings containing dwelling units, including dwelling units classified in occupancy group J-1, J-2 and J-3, CO alarms would be considered properly located in all choices below except? A: In every dwelling unit on the floor where fossil fuel burning equipment is located (Ex; commercial gas dryer) and the floor below, and the floor above are required to have detectors. B: In every dwelling unit located within a building served by a central fossil fuel burning furnace, boiler or water heater that is located in an adjoining or attached building. C: In every dwelling unit on the same floor, the floor below, and the floor above any open or enclosed parking that is located in the same building are required to have detectors. D: In every dwelling unit located within a building that contains any fossil fuel burning furnace, boiler, or water heater as part of a central system.

Answer 186

C Explanation: This is a tough question (non-reference) In every dwelling unit on the same floor, the floor below, and the floor above any ENCLOSED parking that is located in the same building are required to have detectors. AUC 5 ch 4 add 7 sec 2

Question 187

Following an active shooter incident gone wrong, the department amended the Aggressive Deadly Behavior bulletin. A discussion among knowledgeable chiefs yielded the statements below. Which is the only CORRECT statement according to operations at these incidents? A: All NYPD requests for immediate life-saving medical interventions in the warm zone must be approved by an FDNY Battalion Chief. B: A BC designated the Task Force Supervisor will be in overall command of a Rescue Task Force. C: The Rescue Task Force supervisor shall operate on the Warm Zone tactical channel and the aide shall operate on the primary tactical channel. D: Members operating as part of the Rescue Task Force shall operate on the Warm Zone Tactical Channel. One member shall monitor the TAC-U Channel.

Answer 187

D Explanation: ERP ADDENDUM 3A A – Incorrect – Deputy approves normal requests, not required for immediate life saving 7.5 B – Incorrect - NYPD SRG member will be in overall command of a Rescue Task Force. 11.2.3 C – Incorrect – Aide operates on the command channel 11.3.2 D – Correct 11.5.2 Note

Question 188

The presence of lightweight construction in private dwellings has increased the potential hazard to firefighters operating in these structures. Once the fire enters a concealed space containing lightweight trusses or joists, it can rapidly travel to remote locations. The IC shall immediately be notified and consider all of the following EXCEPT? A: The IC shall ensure all members on scene are made aware of the presence of lightweight construction. B: Once lightweight construction is discovered, this information shall be transmitted to the borough dispatcher in the preliminary and/or progress reports so that it can be relayed to responding units. C: All members shall be directed not to enter the fire area or areas directly above the fire until the IC determines the risk of a planned coordinated interior attack. This is especially true with laminated wood I-beams. D: When heated gases build up in the concealed spaces of the trussloft and attic/cockloft, there is a much greater potential for a backdraft to occur.

Answer 188

C Explanation: This is especially true with the open-web design of lightweight parallel chord wood and composite trusses. PD Ch 6 4.1.3, 4.1.4

Question 189

Certain conditions are indicative of a Major Gas Emergency and may require changing from a simple mitigation strategy to one that emphasizes all efforts on securing life safety (including utility personnel and first responders). Which choice below most correctly lists these conditions? 1. Serious damage to major components of the gas infrastructure. 2. 10% LEL or greater detected outside or inside. 3. Elevated natural gas reading (10% LEL or greater) in an unvented, subsurface structure (manhole, sewer, etc.) 4. Gas present in one or more subsurface structures (manhole, sewer, etc.) 5. Indications of gas migrating into a building from an outside source. 6. Gas leaking inside of a structure and the controlling valve cannot be located or is inoperable. 7. Gas leaking or present inside of a wall or void in a structure A: 1,2,5,6,7 B: 1,2,3,5,7 C: 2,4,5,6,7 D: 1,3,4,5,6,7

Answer 189

A Explanation: 3. Elevated natural gas reading (20% LEL or greater) in an unvented, subsurface structure (manhole, sewer, etc.) 4. Gas present in TWO OR MORE subsurface structures (manhole, sewer, etc.) 1. NOTE: This includes serious damage to a Master Meter servicing many appliances, gas service pipe, Main Valves, Distribution Mains, etc. EP Gas 5

Question 190

When conducting a vacate which enforcement action may be issued to correct the condition which caused the issuance of the vacate order? A: Criminal Summons only B: Criminal Summons or FDNY Summons C: Criminal Summons, FDNY Summons or Violation Order D: FDNY Summons only

Answer 190

B Explanation: AUC 5 Ch 4 Add 4 6.6, 6.7, 6.8

Question 191

A Battalion Chief may authorize up to _____ hour(s) of rest and rehabilitation following an operation? A: 4 B: 3 C: 2 D: 1

Answer 191

C Explanation: DC may authorize up to 3 hours AUC 310 10.4.3

Question 192

During a day tour in the borough of Manhattan, one of your units advises you that their apparatus radio is out of service. Of the following choices, which is the only one with CORRECT information regarding the procedure to be followed? A: The Battalion shall supply the affected unit with a portable citywide radio capable of direct communications with all borough dispatchers. B: During a response, the affected unit will use the citywide radio in lieu of the non-operating apparatus radio for all communications to the borough dispatcher until the apparatus radio is repaired. C: The citywide radio shall be carried/worn by the company officer and only under his/her control. D: If a response is received while awaiting the arrival of the citywide radio, the officer shall notify the dispatcher that the unit is out of service.

Answer 192

B Explanation: A) The DIVISION shall supply the affected unit with a portable citywide radio capable of direct communications with all borough dispatchers. C) The citywide radio is NOT to be carried/worn by the company officer; it shall remain in the front cab of the apparatus and serve as a communication link from the unit to the borough dispatcher. D) If a response is received while awaiting the arrival of the citywide radio, the officer shall NOTIFY the dispatcher that the unit is responding without an operating apparatus radio. The dispatcher will then ensure that an additional unit (nearest available Engine or Ladder) with an operating apparatus radio is dispatched to the same alarm. Comm Ch 8 8.14.4-8.14.6

Question 193

Sound powered telephones (SPT) provide a hard wired means of voice communication without the need for a power source. Since these SPT are issued to all Battalions, you should know that all of the following are correct EXCEPT? A: A SPT wire reel consists of a 400 foot long wire wound around the reel inside a plastic case B: SPT coverage includes a particular station and the street above (street to station) C: SPT coverage includes a particular under river tube to a nearby station (station to tube) D: SPT coverage includes a particular under river tunnel or tubes and a location on both sides of the tunnel, typically the nearest emergency exit (street to tunnel)

Answer 193

C Training Bulletins Tools 31 A- 2.4 B- 4.1.1 ***Street to Tunnel SPT systems usually include a specific pair of tubes. For example, members in the Brooklyn-bound Clark street tubes could speak to others in the Manhattan-bound Clark street tube, but they cannot speak to members operating in a completely different tunnel or tube.

Question 194

During salvage following an incident where a tanker ship has been involved which FDNY official must grant approval for the removal of cargo? A: Chief of Department B: Fire Commissioner C: Chief of Operations D: Chief of Marine Operations

Answer 194

B Explanation: Marine Manual Ch 3 6.2 #2

Question 195

Chief Fitz is the IC for a 1st floor fire in a private dwelling where a PV (PHOTOVOLTAIC) electrical system is on the roof. She orders the utilities to be turned off to the structure. The ladder company officer quickly reviews the following statements in his head, but was incorrect in which choice? A: Shut-off electrical power to the inverter to ensure power does not enter the building from the PV array conduit, batteries, or back-up generator. B: Utilizing disconnects ahead of or after the inverter still does not eliminate the electric current coming from the PV array. C: The energy within the capacitors will discharge soon after the power to the inverter is disconnected. D: Combiner boxes should be opened by firefighters in an attempt to shutdown the PV array.

Answer 195

D Explanation: Combiner boxes should NOT be opened by firefighters in an attempt to shutdown the PV array. AUC 351 sec 6.1 and 7

Question 196

To ensure House Inspection goes well, you stop by L-300's quarters ahead of Deputy Chief Nugent to inspect the House Watch area, knowing this is his pet peeve. From past experiences, Deputy Chief Nugent looks for the Rad-3 chart (Radiation Background Monitoring Chart) and the Hydrant Pressure Chart. Choose the most correct information regarding these two charts A: The Hydrant Pressure Chart and the Rad-3 chart shall be posted only for the first full week in May at the House Watch area B: The Hydrant Pressure Chart shall be posted throughout the summer season, and the Rad-3 Chart shall be posted only during the first full week in May at the House Watch area C: The Rad-3 Chart shall be posted throughout the summer season only, and the Hydrant Pressure Chart shall be posted only during the first full week in May at the House Watch area D: Rad-3 Chart shall be posted at the House watch area, adjacent to the water pressure chart for the information of covering officers, relocators, etc.

Answer 196

D Explanation: Units shall use the Hydrant Pressure Chart to record the PSI of the hydrant nearest to qtrs during the first full week in May, and post the chart at the House Watch area throughout the summer season (Eng Ch 3 add 2 4.1) A background rate reading shall be recorded annually at the same time as the hydrant readings during the first full week of May using the Rad-3 Chart. (ERP add 4 page 42)

Question 197

Which of the following choices contains correct information regarding fire dynamics and water application? A: Handline and exterior streams entrain the most air when they are whipped around in a circular motion. B: Handline and exterior streams entrain more air when the stream itself is shorter. The shorter the stream, the more air is entrained. C: The least amount of air entrainment occurs when the stream is long and operated by whipping it around. D: A short, obtuse angled moving stream aimed at the ceiling just inside of a window, will entrain the least amount of air.

Answer 197

A Explanation: TB Fire Dynamics Add 2 3.2, 3.3, 3.6 B) Handline and exterior streams entrain more air when the stream itself is longer (using the reach of the stream). The longer the stream, the more air is entrained. C) The least amount of air entrainment occurs when the stream is short and operated in a fixed position. D) Minimal air is entrained by the use of a properly executed exterior stream. A short, acute angled fixed stream (not whipping) aimed at the ceiling just inside of a window, will entrain the least amount of air. Operated correctly in this manner, the maximum amount of water will enter the room with the least amount of air and therefore without any pushing effect on the fire.

Question 198

You are a S/A Battalion Chief working in Wood City, Brooklyn. Your first run is a phone alarm for fire in a vacant and on arrival, you find heavy fire venting from all floors of a four-story rowframe in the middle of a row of 7 vacant rowframes. Which of the following line placement options is INCORRECT for the second line at this fire when the first hand line was stretched to exposure 2? A: The second line was needed to back up the first and was stretched to exposure 2. B: The second line was not needed to backup the first line so it was stretched to the fire building. C: The second line was not needed to backup the first line so it was stretched through exposure 4 to operate to the rear yard. D: The second line was not needed to backup the first line so it was stretched to exposure 4.

Answer 198

B Explanation: BROWNSTONES & ROWFRAMES PG 51 A – Correct 6.7B3 B – Incorrect – 6.7B3 – If not needed to back up the first hoseline, stretched to the opposite exposure or through an exposure to the rear yard. C – Correct 6.7B3. D – Correct 6.7B3.