Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Class 22010 Lab > MISCELLANEOUS QUALITATIVE (POINT OF CARE) TESTS AND COMMON LABS VALUES > Flashcards

MISCELLANEOUS QUALITATIVE (POINT OF CARE) TESTS AND COMMON LABS VALUES Flashcards

1
Q

What is a parasitic infection caused by the introduction of the protozoan organisms into the blood by the bite of a female anopheles mosquito?

A

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is plasmodium?

A

malaria parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Is it the male or female Anopheles mosquito that bites humans?

A

Female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is injected into a human when bitten by a mosquito?

A

Sporozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sporozoites enter what cells of the liver to become chizonts?

A

parenchymal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sporozoites development in the liver is referred to as what?

A

Pre-erythrocytic cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Further sporozoites development in the liver after RBC invasion is known as what?

A

Exoerythrocytic cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Inside parenchymal cells, Schizonts rupture, releasing _____, which then burst out of liver cells to invade RBCs.

A

merozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Merozoites develop to form immature what?

A

(ring stage) trophozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

After merozoites develop to form immature (ring stage) trophozoites they become actively amoeboid and begin to feed on what?

A

Hgb inside RBC’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a pigment composed of hematin and protein, increased levels being responsible for symptomatic reactions (elevated temps) in malaria?

A

Malarial pigment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mature trophozoites develop into what?

A

schizonts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When RBC’s rupture in malaria, schizonts rupture, releasing what?

A

merozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Gametocytes are derived from what?

A

Merozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

True or False

Gametocytes are ingested by mosquitos

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Gametocytes ingested by mosquitos is the beginning of sexual reproduction, resulting in the production of what?

A

Zygotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Fertile zygote encysts, penetrates the midgut wall of mosquito forming what?

A

oocyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When oocyst matures, it ruptures and releases what inside the mosquito?

A

sporozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Once released by oocyst, sporozoites migrate to where in the mosquito to be injected into a new host?

A

salivary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

All stages of asexual cycle of malaria can be demonstrated in a peripheral blood smear with the exception of what?

A

P. falciparum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Only in rings and gametocytes do RBC membranes become sticky as the parasite matures, cells begin to adhere to what parts of the internal organs interfering with normal blood flow?

A

endothelial lining of capillaries of internal organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a light blue circular structure with a red chromatin dot?

A

Ring form of P. falciparum

  1. Double chromatin dots are common
  2. Multiple ring forms common
  3. Marginal or applique
  4. RBC - usually normal in size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What kind of gametocyte of P. falciparum is curved sausage/ banana shaped with central large chromatin dot covered with centralized mass of hemazoin?

A

Macrogametocyte (female)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What kind of gametocyte of P. falciparum is shorter and wider than female with rounded ends, diffused chromatin seen with hemazoin granules?

A

Microgametocyte (male)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

True or False

Gametocyte of P. falciparum is considered diagnostic

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How many types of malaria are found in humans?

A

Four types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which form of malaria is this?

  1. Erythrocytic cycle (Malignant Tertian): Fever every 48 hours or every 2nd day.
  2. Most Fatal: Likely to cause intravascular hemolysis (destruction of the RBCs).
    a. Fever is prolonged and intensified.
A

Plasmodium Falciparum:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which form of malaria is this?

  1. Erythrocytic cycle (Benign Tertian): Fever every 48 hours or every 2nd day
  2. Most common
A

Plasmodium Vivax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What form of malaria is this?

Erythrocytic cycle (Benign Tertian): Fever every 48 hours or every 2nd day

A

Plasmodium Ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What form of malaria is this?

Erythrocytic cycle (Benign Quartan): Fever every 72 hours or every 3rd day

A

Plasmodium Malariae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When collecting a blood sample for malaria what kind of tube is used?

A

EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A malaria blood sample can be stored for up to three days at what temperature range if it cannot be tested immediately?

A

2-30 degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

IF the blood sample is refrigerated, should you allow it to return room temperature prior to performing the test for malaria?

A

Yes

15-30 degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Reagent A of the Rapid Malaria test composed of?

A

Tris buffer containing detergent and sodium azide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Priming the Sample (purple) pad.

For the venipuncture method for malaria testing how many MICROLITERS of blood do you collect?

A

15 microliters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Priming the reagent (white) pad

Place how many drops of Reagent A onto the reagent pad? Allowing the first drop to absorb before placing the next drop.

A

2 drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Priming the reagent (white) pad

You should allow the mixture to run through the whole test strip

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Priming the reagent (white) pad

True or False

If the mixture does not run through the whole test strip in a minute, an additional drop of reagent a must be applied.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Priming the reagent (white) pad

Before the mixture reaches the top of the test strip, add an additional ___
drops of reagent strip to the wash pad. Allow each drop to fully absorb.

A

Four

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Results for the Rapid Malaria test are invalid after how long?

A

after 15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

True or False

With the Rapid Malaria test the “C” Control line must appear in order for the test to be valid.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Result interpretation

Positive for Plasmodium Falciparum would be what line on the Rapid Malaria test?

A

T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Result interpretation

Positive for Plasmodium Vivax, Malariae, or Ovale. May indicate mixed infection of the three malaria parasites would be what line on the Rapid Malaria test?

A

T2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Result interpretation

Positive for Plasmodium Falciparum and other types of malaria in a mixed infection would be what line on the Rapid Malaria test?

A

T1 and T2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Result interpretation

Only the C line on the Rapid Malaria test would indicate what?

A

Negative result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

True or False

The test is invalid if the Control “C” line does not appear

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

True or False

Rapid Malaria samples must be obtained when the patient does not have a fever

A

False

Samples must be obtained when patient is febrile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Who must the test be sent to after it is confirmed with a thick and thin smear?

A

NEPMU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

False positive malaria test results can appear in patients with what conditions?

A
  1. Rheumatoid arthritis
  2. Chronic viral infections - Hepatitis C
  3. Patient with other blood parasite – Babesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

True or False

You need to send unstained smears to the Navy Environmental and Preventive Medicine Unit (NEPMU) as soon as possible for identification and confirmation.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a highly contagious, acute, viral infection of the respiratory tract?

A

Influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a communicable disease that is easily transmitted through coughing and sneezing of aerosolized droplets containing the live virus?

A

Influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What causes annual cold weather outbreaks of acute febrile upper and lower respiratory tract illness with characteristic accompanying systemic failures?

A

Influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

True or False

Influenza B is usually more common than A

A

False

Influenza A is usually more common than B, and produces more serious illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Influenza is best diagnosed within how long?

A

the first 2-3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are these symptoms of?

  1. Fever or feeling feverish
  2. Chills
  3. Cough
  4. Sore throat
  5. Runny or stuffy nose
  6. Muscle or body aches
  7. Headaches
  8. Fatigue
  9. Vomiting and diarrhea (more common in children)
A

Influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are some benefits of Influenza testing?

A
  1. Enable appropriate therapy

2. Facilitate prompt treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

True or False

Some antivirals used for Influenza are only effective if administered within 48 hours of symptom onset

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What alternative swabs can be used for the Rapid Influenza test?

A
  1. Sterile rayon
  2. Foam
  3. Polyester
  4. HydraFlock flocked (standard tip)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Do Rapid Influenza elution solution test vials come pre-filled?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Sample preparation Influenza

When inserting the swab into the test vial how many times should you vigorously rotate it in the liquid?

A

three times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Testing Procedure Influenza

After filling the pipette, you will SLOWLY drop by drop add the entire contents of the pipette onto the WHITE sample pad, what is the total content of the pipette you are adding to the MIDDLE of this sample pad?

A

100uL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Sample preparation Influenza

True or False

After pressing the swab against the inside of the vial and turning to remove the sample and discarding the swab, you can wait to test the liquid sample.

A

False, you need to test it as soon as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Testing Procedure Influenza

True or False

You do not add sample to the pink/purple colored pad

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Testing Procedure Influenza

After adding your sample, you immediately peel off the adhesive liner from the test device and close and secure the device. How long do you wait to read the result in the window?

A

15 minutes after closing the device

65
Q

Testing Procedure Influenza

True or False

Test results read before or after 15 minutes can be inaccurate

66
Q

Result interpretation Influenza

What result is this?

The BLUE Control Line in the BOTTOM THIRD of the window turns to a pink-to-purple color. No other line appears

A

Negative sample

67
Q

Result interpretation Influenza

What result is this?

BLUE Control Line turns a pink-to-purple color AND a second pink-to-purple Sample Line appears above it in the MIDDLE THIRD of the window.

A

Flu A Positive Sample

68
Q

Result interpretation Influenza

True or False

Any Sample Line, even when very faint, is positive.

69
Q

Result interpretation Influenza

What result is this?

BLUE Control Line turns a pink-to-purple color AND a second pink-to-purple Sample Line appears above it in the TOP THIRD of the window.

A

Flu B positive sample

70
Q

Result interpretation Influenza

What result is this?

Control Line remains BLUE or is not present at all, whether a Sample Line(s) is present or not.

71
Q

Result interpretation Influenza

True or False

Repeat Invalid tests with a new test card

72
Q

Result Suggested Report Influenza

POSITIVE Flu A

A

Positive for Flu A protein antigen.

73
Q

Result Suggested Report Influenza

POSITIVE Flu B

A

Positive for Flu B protein antigen.

74
Q

Result Suggested Report Influenza

Negative

A

Negative for Flu A and Flu B protein antigens.

75
Q

What happens when influenza disease prevalence in the community is low (beginning and end of the influenza seasons) what may happen?

A

False-positives may occur

76
Q

What happens when influenza disease prevalence is high in the community (at the height of the influenza season) ?

A

False-negative may occur

77
Q

How can you minimize false influenza test results?

A
  1. Use rapid diagnostic tests with high sensitivity and specificity
  2. Collect specimens as early in the illness as possible (within 4-5 days)
  3. Follow manufacturer’s instructions, including handling of specimens
78
Q

True or False

Influenza tests should be used in conjunction with clinical findings to make an accurate diagnosis

79
Q

True or False

No additional testing is required to differentiate any specific influenza A and B subtypes or strains

A

False

Additional testing is required to differentiate any specific influenza A and B subtypes or strains

80
Q

Does influenza test performance depend on the amount of antigens in the specimen?

81
Q

What lab test provides an important baseline of a patient’s basic physiology?

A

Basic Metabolic Panel

82
Q

What lab test measures 8 analytes and calculates an anion gap?

A

Basic Metabolic Panel

83
Q

True or False

The basic metabolic panel is used to assess kidney status, electrolyte, and acid/base balance, and blood glucose

84
Q

What is the normal value for Sodium in a basic metabolic panel?

A

136-142 mEq/L

85
Q

What is the normal value for Urea Nitrogen (BUN) in a basic metabolic panel?

A

8-23 mg/dL

86
Q

What is the normal value for Calcium in a basic metabolic panel?

A

9.2-11 mg/dL

87
Q

What is the normal value for Carbon Dioxide in a basic metabolic panel?

A

19-24 mmol/L

88
Q

What is the normal value for Chloride in a basic metabolic panel?

A

95-103 mEq/L

89
Q

What is the normal value for Creatinine in a basic metabolic panel?

A

0.6-1.2 mg/dL

90
Q

What is the normal value for Potassium in a basic metabolic panel?

A

3.8-5.0 mEq/L

91
Q

What is the normal value for Magnesium in a basic metabolic panel?

A

1.3-2.1 mEq/L

92
Q

What is the normal value for Phosphorus in a basic metabolic panel?

A

2.3-4.7 mg/dL

93
Q

What are the critical values for Sodium in a basic metabolic panel?

A

Low: <120 mEq/L
High: >160 mEq/L

94
Q

What are the critical values for Calcium in a basic metabolic panel?

A

Low: <6.0mg/dL
High: >14.0 mg/dL

95
Q

What are the critical values for Creatinine in a basic metabolic panel?

A

Low: None
High: >3.0 mg/dL

96
Q

What are the critical values for Potassium in a basic metabolic panel?

A

Low: <2.5 mEq/L
High: >6.5 mEq/L

97
Q

What are the critical values for Magnesium in a basic metabolic panel?

A

Low: <1.2mg/dL
High: >4.9mg/dL

98
Q

True or False

Changes in serum sodium most often reflect changes in water balance rather than sodium balance

99
Q

Hyponatremia (low sodium) is a serum concentration below what? And may indicate what?

A
  1. <136mEq/L

2. Over hydration

100
Q

Hypernatremia (high sodium) is a serum concentration of what? And may indicate what?

A
  1. Greater than 145mEq/L

2. Indicates the need for water

101
Q

What is the concentration of nitrogen (as urea) which is produced in the liver and is the end product of protein metabolism and filtered by the kidneys?

A

Urea Nitrogen (BUN)

102
Q

What part of the basic metabolic panel is used to help diagnose liver and kidney diseases?

A

Urea Nitrogen (BUN)

103
Q

A low BUN of 6-8 mg/dL may be a sign of what?

A

Overhydration or liver disease

104
Q

A BUN range of 10-20mg/dL indicates what?

A

Normal kidney function

105
Q

A BUN range of 50-150mg/dL implies what?

A

serious impairment of renal function

106
Q

Of the body’s total percentage of calcium, 99% is located in the bones and teeth and what percentage is located in the blood?

107
Q

90% of hypercalcemia is caused by what?

A
  1. a malignancy

2. hyperparathyroidism

108
Q

What part of the basic metabolic panel is used to evaluate the acid-base balance of the blood?

A

Carbon Dioxide

109
Q

High levels of CO2 as seen in respiratory acidosis and low levels are associated with what?

A

respiratory alkalosis

110
Q

What is the confirmatory test within the basic metabolic panel used to identify fluid balance and acid-base abnormalities?

111
Q

Hyperchloremia is seen in what?

A

dehydration and acidemia

112
Q

What could be the result of vomiting, over hydration and alkalemia?

A

Hypochloremia

113
Q

What is a byproduct of creatine, produced in the muscle, filtered by the kidneys, and levels can be used to measure renal insufficiency?

A

Creatinine

114
Q

What is used in the regulation of muscle and nerve excitability ?

115
Q

What is the primary cause of hyperkalemia?

A

Renal failure

116
Q

What is seen with Hypokalemia?

A
  1. alkalosis
  2. diuretic use
  3. alcoholism
  4. fluid loss
117
Q

True or False

Low magnesium can cause refractory hypokalemia

A

True

it wont get fixed without fixing magnesium

118
Q

What is involved in metabolism and energy production, needed for normal muscle contractility and neurological functions as well as oxygen-carrying by hemoglobin?

A

Phosphorus

119
Q

What is a screening for liver damage, especially if someone has a condition or is taking a drug that may affect the liver?

A

Liver function test

120
Q

What measures liver injury?

A

ALT and AST

121
Q

Liver function test

What is the normal value for Albumin?

A

3.2-5.6 g/dL

122
Q

Liver function test

What is the normal value for Alkaline Phosphates (ALP)?

A

20-130 units/L

123
Q

Liver function test

What is the normal value for Bilirubin Total?

A

0.1-1.2 mg/dL

124
Q

Liver function test

What is the normal value for Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)?

A

4-36 units/L

125
Q

Liver function test

What is the normal value for Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)?

A

8-33 units/L

126
Q

Liver function test

What is the normal value for Total Protein?

A

6-7.8 g/dL

127
Q

What is used to help maintain plasma oncotic pressure? Due to a long half life of 20 days, you may see normal results even with a cessation of production. Decreased levels may be due any liver condition affecting protein synthesize.

128
Q

What refers to a group of enzymes. Moderately elevated levels usually 4X with no rise in ALT or AST is indicative of biliary disease. Levels less than 4X with elevated ALT or AST indicate liver damage.

A

Alkaline Phosphates

129
Q

What is a byproduct of breakdown of heme pigments in RBC. Increased levels are seen in various conditions of liver damage. Elevated levels of bilirubin are responsible for jaundice.

130
Q

What are used to assess hepatocellular damage. Normally located in the liver cells an increase in there levels indicate active hepatocyte damage, not damage previously

131
Q

A ratio of ___ to ___ may be of value in diagnosing alcoholic hepatitis where the AST is generally a least twice the ALT and the AST is rarely above 300u/L.

A

AST to ALT

132
Q

Besides the liver where else is AST located?

A

it may be found in cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle, kidneys, brain, lungs and intestines.

Consequently, AST may be elevated due to a variety of conditions such as myocardial infarction, renal infarction, brain tumor or even vigorous exercise.

133
Q

True or False

Almost all prescription drugs can cause a rise in ALT/AST

134
Q

What is a screening for nutritional deficiencies and gammopathies?

A

Total protein

135
Q

An increase in Total protein is seen in what?

A
  1. myeloma

2. hypovolemia

136
Q

A decrease in total protein is seen in what?

A
  1. Malnutrition
  2. Liver diseases
  3. Severe skin diseases
137
Q

What measures total cholesterol, high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, low density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, and triglycerides?

A

Lipid profile

138
Q

A physician may order a lipid profile as part of an annual exam or if there is specific concern about cardiovascular disease, especially what?

A

Coronary artery disease

139
Q

Lipid Panel

What is the normal value for Total Cholesterol?

140
Q

Lipid Panel

What is the normal value for Triglycerides?

A

< 150 mg/dL

141
Q

Lipid Panel

What is the normal value for LDL?

142
Q

Lipid Panel

What is the normal value for HDL?

143
Q

Is it recommended that all adults over the age of 20 to get a fasting lipid screening every 5 years?

144
Q

What is a collective term for blood tests used to check the function of the thyroid?

A

Thyroid function tests (TFTs)

145
Q

Thyroid Function Test

What is the normal value of Free Thyroxine (FT4)?

A

0.9-2.3 ng/dL

146
Q

Thyroid Function Test

What is the normal value of Total Serum Thyroxine (T4)?

A

5.5-12.5 mcg/dL

147
Q

Thyroid Function Test

What is the normal value of Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)?

A

0.5-5.0 milliunits/L

148
Q

True or False

Free Thyroxine (T4) measures the unbound T4 in the serum and is the most accurate reflection of thryrometabolic status

149
Q

High levels of Free thyroxine is associated with what? What about low levels?

A

High: Hyperthyroidism
Low: Hypothyroidism

150
Q

What is a glycoprotein secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?

A

Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone

151
Q

What is a fasting test that gives an indication of the current glucose level?

A

Fasting Glucose

152
Q

True or False

The A1C gives the big picture of what average levels are over a two to three month period

153
Q

What is the normal value for Glucose and A1C?

A

Glucose: 70-100mg/dL

A1C 4-6%

154
Q

What is the critically low value for glucose? What is the critical high value?

A

Low: <40mg/dL
High: >500mg/dL with no history of Diabetes

155
Q

What test is the best indication of glucose homeostasis?

A

Fasting glucose

156
Q

What value represents a normal fasting glucose?

157
Q

What value represents prediabetes in fasting glucose?

A

> or equal to 100 and < 126mg/dL

158
Q

What value can give you a provisional diabetes diagnosis with fasting glucose?

A

> or equal to 126mg/dL

159
Q

What value in fasting glucose can give you a confirmed diagnosis of diabetes?

A

> or equal to 126mg/dL on two occasions

160
Q

What are the major causes for high glucose levels?

A
  1. Type 1 and 2 Diabetes

2. Excessive intake

Class 22010 Lab (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions