Miscellaneous II Flashcards
1
Q
Pk receptor for…
A
Shiga toxin
2
Q
Probability of not finding a compatible unit
A
(1-antigen neg freq)^#of units
3
Q
Probability of finding exactly one compatible unit
A
of units x antigen neg freq x (antigen pos freq)^(# of units - 1)
4
Q
Normal plasma viscosity
A
1.5-1.8 Ostwald units
5
Q
Hyperviscosity
A
4-60 Ostwald units
6
Q
Monochloraoacetic acid lysis test measures which factor?
A
FXIII
7
Q
t1/2 FVII
A
4-6 hrs
8
Q
t1/2 FVIII
A
8-12 hrs
9
Q
t1/2 FIX
A
18-24 hrs
10
Q
t1/2 FXIII
A
144 hrs
11
Q
FVIII dosage
A
= desired change in FVIII x (1-HCT) x kg
12
Q
FIX dosage
A
= [desired change in FIX x (1-HCT) x kg] x 2
13
Q
Dose of vit K with high INR without bleeding
A
1 mg
14
Q
Dose of vit K with high INR with bleeding
A
5-10 mg
15
Q
Risk of HTLV from transfusion
A
1/3 million
16
Q
Risk of WNV from transufsion
A
1/7 million
17
Q
Risk of bacterial contamination (RBC)
A
1/30,000
18
Q
Risk of bacterial contamination (PLT)
A
1/5,000
19
Q
Risk of septic transfusion reaction (RBC)
A
1/500,000
20
Q
Risk of septic transfusion reaction (PLT)
A
1/75,000
21
Q
Risk of fatal septic transfusion reaction (RBC)
A
1/10,000,000
22
Q
Risk of fatal septic transfusion reaction (PLT)
A
1/500,000
23
Q
Lifetime persistence of asymptomatic infection with this species of plasmodium?
A
malariae
24
Q
Chagas most commonly transmitted in which blood product component
A
PLT
25
Cord blood, mother should have ID testing performed when?
7 days before of after delivery
26
Minimum CD34 cell dose
2 x 10^6 (target 5 x 10^6)
27
Autologous PBCs stimulated with G-CSF a/w faster engraftment of granulocyte (__days) and platelets (___days)
10, 14
28
Percentage of CD34+ cells in normal marrow
1-3%
29
Best to collect PBCs when peripheral CD34 cell count ____
>5cells/ul (WBC 5000/ul used as surrogate)
30
If peripheral CD34 count 10cells/ul then collection will yield at least _____
1 x 10^6 /kg
31
Minor mismatch in HPC transplant a/w
immediate hemolysis
32
Major mismatch in HPC transplant a/w
delay in RBC recovery and risk of red cell aplasia
33
Thawed HPC products should be infused within
1 hour (if longer than wash)
34
How long and at what temperatures can HPC harvested from marrow be kept in refrigeration (not freezer)?
2-8C for 3 days
35
How long and at what temperatures can HPC harvested from peripheral blood be kept in refrigeration (not freezer)?
4-15C for 3 days
36
ABO mismatch results in _____ day delay of RBC recovery
40-60 day
37
Dose of G-CSF
10 ug/kg/day (daily starting 4 day prior to collection and then continue through collection)
38
Normal percentage of peripheral CD34 cells
0.05%
39
Plerixafor dose
0.24 mg/kg (daily starting 4 days after G-CSF, ~11 hrs prior to collection)
40
Plerixafor approved for patients with ... (2)
NHL and multiple myeloma (autologous transplants)
41
G-CSF: do not use in patients with ___ or with WBC > ____ due to leukostasis
SCD/60
42
1901
ABO discovery by Landsteiner
43
1939
anti-D by Levin and Stetson
44
1902
AB group discovery by Von Descatello and Sturli
45
1944
AHG described by Moreshi, and then by Coombs in 1945
46
Autocontrol with HTLV can be positive with this antibody
anti-JMH
47
Antibody to this single antibody can lead to varying strength of activities on antibody panel due to variability in expression
P1
48
Glycoprotein containing HPA1
GPIIIa
49
Glycoprotein containing HPA2
GP1b
50
DDAVP dose
0.3 ug/kg IV in 30-50 mL NS
51
Glycoprotein containing HPA3
GPIIb
52
Fibrinogen dosing
1 unit/7-10 kg
53
TRALI incidence
1:1300 - 5000
54
Incidence of ABO HDN
1/500
55
Incidence of severe ABO HDN
1/3000
56
Materno-fetal ABO incompatibility
20% of pregnancies
57
1500 IU WinRho equivalent to how many ug of RhoGam
300
58
Most common antibody implicated in NAIT in Asians
anti-4a
59
Risk of ICH a/w NAIT
10-30% when PLT
60
Incidence of HTR ABO
1/33,000
61
Incidence of TA-GVHD
1/400,000
62
Incidence of PTP
1/200,000
63
% of patients on penicillin with a + DAT
3
64
All establishments that manufacture (process, collect, freeze, thaw, deglyceralize, wash, leukoreduce) blood components must be ______ with the FDA
registered
65
All establishments that participate in interstate commerce must be _____ with the FDA
liscenced
66
Monitored temperatures must be recorded this often
Q 4 hrs
67
Increased beta-glucosyltranserase activity that can incorporate UDP-N-acetylgalactasamine in addition to UDP-galactose can lead to this phenotype
B(A) phenotype
68
IgG subclass that does not cross placenta
IgG2
69
Single donor PLT contains this much fibrinogen
80 mg
70
Apheresis PLT contains this much fibrinogen
150 mg
71
Unit of FFP contains this much fibrinogen
400 mg (~2mg/ml)
72
Single unit of cryo can raise fibrinogen this much
7mg/dL (so pool can raise 70 mg/dL)
73
increased i expression in (hint 2 disease types)
CDA II and Blackfan-Diamond Syndrome
74
Rh null cells also have decreased amounts of the following antigens (5)
1. LW
2. Fy5
3. S
4. s
5. U
(Glycophorin B)
75
anti-body made by Rh null individuals
anti-Rh29
76
2 populations with increased incidence of Jk(a-b-)
Polynesians and Finns
77
Individuals with SCD have increased amounts of this antigen
Lutheran
78
definition of hard spin
5000g for 5-7 min
79
definition of soft spin
2000g for 3 min
80
False positive rosette test
mother is a weak D or partial D
81
False negative rosette test
baby is a weak D
82
Gauge of needle for transfusion for adults
18-20
83
Gauge of needle for transfusion in children
23-25
84
transfusion filters should be changed how often?
4 hrs
85
Indications for exchange transfusion in an infant (4)
1. Cord hgb 3 mg/dL
2.
3. Rate of bilirubin rise >0.5 mg/dL/h during first 48 hr
4. Projected bili peak in 3 days of 15 - 20 mg/dL or higher
86
Double-exchange (one donor unit) decreases bili by how much?
50%
87
RBC transfusion trigger in neonates with severe cardiopulmonary disease
13 g/dL
88
RBC transfusion trigger in neonates with moderate cardiopulmonary disease
10 g/dL
89
RBC transfusion trigger in neonates with symptomatic anemia
8 g/dL
