miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

what measurement is used to assess tubular function

A

urine osmolality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what would indicate tubules are functioning in terms of osmolality

A

urine osmolality is very different to serum osmolality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what would indicate tubules aren’t functioning in terms of osmolality

A

if urine osmolality is exactly the same as serum osmolality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the earliest expression of diabetic nephropathy

A

microalbuminuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the 2 main situations which result in significant proteinuria and which is most common

A

glomerular !!
overflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are our 2 main tools for investigating glomerular function

A

GFR and proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what 3 factors are estimated glomerular filtration rate based on

A

serum creatine, age and gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does eGFR estimate

A

the rate at which fluid is filtered from the blood into bowman’s capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how do we quantify proteinuria

A

urine albumin : creatine ratio (ACR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how do we assess haematuria

A

urine dipstick or microscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the 2 things that can be identified with a renal ultrasound

A

obstructions and polycystic kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is diffusion

A

process of movement from an area of high concentration to low concentration across a partially permeable membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the 4 main solutes that ‘move in dialysis’ and which way

A

K, urea and Na out
HCO3 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is ultrafiltration

A

movement of water and all solutes dissolved in it across a semi-permeable membrane in response to a pressure gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is adsorption

A

molecules/ions/particles adhere to the surface of a solid or a liquid, rather than dissolving into it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the gold standard for dialysis vascular access

A

arteriovenous fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what vessel is most commonly used for a central venous catheter

A

internal jugular vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is a major complication or an AV fistula for dialysis

A

steal syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is steal syndrome

A

excessive blood flow diversion away from the distal limb, leading to ischaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

time scale of an AV fistula for dialysis

A

needs 6-12 weeks before dialysis for the fistula to mature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the next best option for dialysis, following an AV fistula

A

arteriovenous graft

22
Q

how does haemodialysis mainly remove solutes

23
Q

how does haemofiltration mainly remove solutes

A

convection

24
Q

name some factors that can affective convective transport

A

membrane pore size, pressure difference, viscosity of fluid, molecular size and charge

25
what is the main difference between haemodialysis and haemofiltration
ultrapure replacement is added to compensate for fluid loss in haemofiltration
26
how does peritoneal dialysis mainly remove solutes
diffusion and osmosis
27
what is the main complication for haemodialysis
hypotension
28
what is the most common organism associated with a central venous catheter infection
staph aureus
29
management of a central venous catheter infection
vancomycin and gentamycin line removal or exchange
30
what are the 2 main complications of a central venous catheter infection
endocarditis and discitis
31
what are the 3 main complications of peritoneal dialysis
peritonitis, peritoneal membrane failure, hernias
32
what are some acute indications for starting dialysis
AEIOU acidosis, electrolyte abnormalities - severe hyperkalaemia, intoxications, overload (fluid), uraemia (severe and symptomatic)
33
chronic indication for starting dialysis
CKD 5
34
what can be a complication of building up dialysis too quickly
disequilibrium syndrome
35
name some restrictions for patients on dialysis
fluid restriction of 1L low salt, potassium and phosphate diet
36
what is the most effective option for donor transplantation
living donor !!
37
what are the 3 main types of transplant rejection and what causes them
hyperacute - due to preformed antibodies - unsalvageable acute - cellular or antibody mediated - can be treated with immunosuppression chronic - antibody mediated, slowly progressive decline
38
induction treatment for a kidney transplant
prednisolone IV during operation mab to prevent T-cell activation
39
what infection do we need to watch out for in the first 3 months following a kidney transplant
CMV
40
management of CMV infection in a patient with a transplant
IV ganciclovir
41
investigation for suspected CMV infection in transplant patient
IgM antibodies and PCR
42
what should we always suspect in patients with haematuria
malignancy
43
what causes joggers haematuria
vasoconstriction of blood supply to the kidneys -> hypoxia and constriction of the efferent glomerular arterioli -> increased filtration pressure
44
initial haematuria indicates pathology where
urethra and prostatic area
45
terminal haematuria indicates pathology where
bladder neck
46
name some drugs that can cause spurious contamination of urine
rifampicin, chloroquine, senna containing laxatives
47
most common scan for the bladder
ultrasound
48
what is used to assess the urethra in males
urethrogram
49
what is used to assess the urethra in females
MRI
50
what is used to assess tubal patency (infertility) in females
hysterosalpingogram