miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

what measurement is used to assess tubular function

A

urine osmolality

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2
Q

what would indicate tubules are functioning in terms of osmolality

A

urine osmolality is very different to serum osmolality

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3
Q

what would indicate tubules aren’t functioning in terms of osmolality

A

if urine osmolality is exactly the same as serum osmolality

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4
Q

what is the earliest expression of diabetic nephropathy

A

microalbuminuria

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5
Q

what are the 2 main situations which result in significant proteinuria and which is most common

A

glomerular !!
overflow

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6
Q

what are our 2 main tools for investigating glomerular function

A

GFR and proteinuria

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7
Q

what 3 factors are estimated glomerular filtration rate based on

A

serum creatine, age and gender

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8
Q

what does eGFR estimate

A

the rate at which fluid is filtered from the blood into bowman’s capsule

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9
Q

how do we quantify proteinuria

A

urine albumin : creatine ratio (ACR)

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10
Q

how do we assess haematuria

A

urine dipstick or microscopy

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11
Q

what are the 2 things that can be identified with a renal ultrasound

A

obstructions and polycystic kidney disease

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12
Q

what is diffusion

A

process of movement from an area of high concentration to low concentration across a partially permeable membrane

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13
Q

what are the 4 main solutes that ‘move in dialysis’ and which way

A

K, urea and Na out
HCO3 in

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14
Q

what is ultrafiltration

A

movement of water and all solutes dissolved in it across a semi-permeable membrane in response to a pressure gradient

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15
Q

what is adsorption

A

molecules/ions/particles adhere to the surface of a solid or a liquid, rather than dissolving into it

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16
Q

what is the gold standard for dialysis vascular access

A

arteriovenous fistula

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17
Q

what vessel is most commonly used for a central venous catheter

A

internal jugular vein

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18
Q

what is a major complication or an AV fistula for dialysis

A

steal syndrome

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19
Q

what is steal syndrome

A

excessive blood flow diversion away from the distal limb, leading to ischaemia

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20
Q

time scale of an AV fistula for dialysis

A

needs 6-12 weeks before dialysis for the fistula to mature

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21
Q

what is the next best option for dialysis, following an AV fistula

A

arteriovenous graft

22
Q

how does haemodialysis mainly remove solutes

23
Q

how does haemofiltration mainly remove solutes

A

convection

24
Q

name some factors that can affective convective transport

A

membrane pore size, pressure difference, viscosity of fluid, molecular size and charge

25
Q

what is the main difference between haemodialysis and haemofiltration

A

ultrapure replacement is added to compensate for fluid loss in haemofiltration

26
Q

how does peritoneal dialysis mainly remove solutes

A

diffusion and osmosis

27
Q

what is the main complication for haemodialysis

A

hypotension

28
Q

what is the most common organism associated with a central venous catheter infection

A

staph aureus

29
Q

management of a central venous catheter infection

A

vancomycin and gentamycin
line removal or exchange

30
Q

what are the 2 main complications of a central venous catheter infection

A

endocarditis and discitis

31
Q

what are the 3 main complications of peritoneal dialysis

A

peritonitis, peritoneal membrane failure, hernias

32
Q

what are some acute indications for starting dialysis

A

AEIOU
acidosis, electrolyte abnormalities - severe hyperkalaemia, intoxications, overload (fluid), uraemia (severe and symptomatic)

33
Q

chronic indication for starting dialysis

34
Q

what can be a complication of building up dialysis too quickly

A

disequilibrium syndrome

35
Q

name some restrictions for patients on dialysis

A

fluid restriction of 1L
low salt, potassium and phosphate diet

36
Q

what is the most effective option for donor transplantation

A

living donor !!

37
Q

what are the 3 main types of transplant rejection and what causes them

A

hyperacute - due to preformed antibodies - unsalvageable
acute - cellular or antibody mediated - can be treated with immunosuppression
chronic - antibody mediated, slowly progressive decline

38
Q

induction treatment for a kidney transplant

A

prednisolone IV during operation
mab to prevent T-cell activation

39
Q

what infection do we need to watch out for in the first 3 months following a kidney transplant

40
Q

management of CMV infection in a patient with a transplant

A

IV ganciclovir

41
Q

investigation for suspected CMV infection in transplant patient

A

IgM antibodies and PCR

42
Q

what should we always suspect in patients with haematuria

A

malignancy

43
Q

what causes joggers haematuria

A

vasoconstriction of blood supply to the kidneys -> hypoxia and constriction of the efferent glomerular arterioli -> increased filtration pressure

44
Q

initial haematuria indicates pathology where

A

urethra and prostatic area

45
Q

terminal haematuria indicates pathology where

A

bladder neck

46
Q

name some drugs that can cause spurious contamination of urine

A

rifampicin, chloroquine, senna containing laxatives

47
Q

most common scan for the bladder

A

ultrasound

48
Q

what is used to assess the urethra in males

A

urethrogram

49
Q

what is used to assess the urethra in females

50
Q

what is used to assess tubal patency (infertility) in females

A

hysterosalpingogram