MISCELLANEOUS Flashcards

1
Q

What is a pre-prosthetic surgery?

A

surgical removal of the following should be evaluated before the fabrication of new partial denture is begun:

  • maxillary and mandibular tori
  • exostoses
  • sharp prominent mylohyoid ridges
  • epulis fissuratum
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2
Q

What is denture stomatitis?

A

a localized or generalized chronic inflammation of the denture bearing mucosa

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3
Q

What does denture stomatitis look like clinically?

A

redness and a burning sensation with or without discomfort

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4
Q

What are the most likely causes of denture stomatitis?

A

trauma and secondary fungal infection

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5
Q

What is the treatment for denture stomatitis?

A
  1. improved oral hygiene
  2. tissue rest
  3. antifungal therapy (nystatin)
  4. resilient tissue conditioners
  5. new, well-fitting dentures
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6
Q

Acute atrophic candidiasis presents as…

A
  • a red patch of atrophic
    Or
  • erythematous red and painful mucosa
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7
Q

What are the symptoms of antibiotic sore mouth (common form of candidiasis)?

A
  • oral burning
  • bad taste
  • sore throat during of after therapy with broad spectrum antibiotics
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8
Q

Patients with ________________ may also develop atrophic candidiasis

A

chronic iron deficiency anemia

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9
Q

Where is papillary hyperplasia found?

A

palatal vault

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10
Q

What causes papillary hyperplasia?

A
  1. local irritation
  2. poor-fitting denture
  3. poor oral hygiene
  4. leaving dentures in 24 hours a day
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11
Q

What is the treatment for papillary hyperplasia?

A
  • educate patient in oral hygiene
  • advice patient to leave denture out at night
  • soak dentures for 30 minutes in a 1% solution of sodium hypocholorite and rinse
  • use tissue conditioner
  • patient should brush irritated area lightly with a soft brush
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12
Q

What is epulis fissuratum?

A
  • a reactive growth in relation to an overextended or ill-fitting denture flange
  • a chronically ill-fitting denture may cause an inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia adjacent to its border
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13
Q

What causes epulis fissuratum?

A
  • long term neglect or settling subsequent to residual ridge resorption
  • traumatic occlusion of natural teeth opposing an artificial denture
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14
Q

What is the treatment for epulis fissuratum?

A

surgical removal of the hyperplastic tissue

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15
Q

Before construction of a complete or RPD, it is very important to remove the _____________ tissue

A

hyperplastic

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16
Q

What is the treatment for hyperplastic tissue?

A
  1. tissue rest
  2. soft reline of existing denture
  3. change in denture habits
  4. surgical removal of tissue
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17
Q

What is the best impression technique for a patient with loose hyperplastic tissue?

A
  • register the tissue in its passive position
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18
Q

What is Kelly’s combination syndrome?

A
  • specific pattern of bone resorption in the anterior portion of edentulous maxilla
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19
Q

When do you usually see kelly’s combination syndrome?

A

mandibular partial denture is opposed by a maxillary complete denture

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20
Q

Where does resorption occur in kelly’s combination syndrome?

A
  • beneath the mandibular extension bases
  • downward growth of the tuberosities and tipping of the occlusal plane (in the anterior)
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21
Q

How do you combat the effects of kelly’s combination syndrome?

A

continous reline or placment of implants in the mandibular posterior location

22
Q

What is tissue conditioner?

A

soft materials that are applied to the intaglio surface of a denture to allow a more equitable distribution of forces throughout the arch

  • non-irritating and non-toxic
  • used to treat unhealthy or abused oral tissue
23
Q

How long does the softness last with tissue conditioners?

A

1 week

24
Q

Tissue conditioner must be changed every ____ days

A

3-5

25
Q

What is tissue conditioner composed of?

A

powder and liquid

  • powder is an acrylic polymer (ethyl metacrylate)
  • liquid is a mix of ethyl alcohol and aromatic ester
26
Q

The mechanism of action of the tissue conditioner is a combo of improved force distribution and _________________________

A

short-term cushioning effect

27
Q

What is the process for using tissue conditioner?

A
  • intaglio surface of the RPD is checked using PIP
  • occlusion is check and refined
  • cameo surface is painted with separator
  • tissue conditioner is applied in intaglio using a spatula
  • denture is seated in mouth
  • use light pressure and maintain as material flows
  • border tissue should be manipulated to border mold
  • tongue should be brought forward and forcibly place into each cheek
  • sit 4-5 minutes
  • remove and examine
  • excess material is removed using a blade
28
Q

If posterior artifical teeth are present, the patient must _________________________ while the conditioner is still capable of flowing

A

close the teeth together

29
Q

Tissue conditioner should not be allowed to…

A

dry
- submerge in water or cleaning solution when not in the mouth

30
Q

Wrought wire is fabricated by…

A

drawing the metal from which it is made into a wire

31
Q

Wrought wire clasp should have an elongation percentage of more than ___%

A

6%

32
Q

What is a cast metal?

A

any metal that is melted and cast into a mold

33
Q

When a casting is _______ to provide the required article or appliance it is called wrought metal instead of cast metal

A

cold-worked

34
Q

The mechanical properties of wrought wire are _________ to those of the cast structure

A

superior

35
Q

Wrought wire has ___% greater strength, hardness, and tensile strength that the cast alloy

A

25%

36
Q

Lab procedures can compormise the desireable physical properties of wrough twire due to…

A

improper heating and cooling

37
Q

The physical characteristics of wrought wire can be reduced drastically by subjecting the wire to too much…

A

heat

38
Q

How does too much heat affect wrought wire?

A

recrystallization or grain growth causes undesirable occurrence

39
Q

Why is chrominum cobalt alloys popular for framework material?

A
  • low density
  • high modulus of elasticity (stiffness)
  • low cost
  • resistance to tarnish
40
Q

Chrominum-cobalt alloys are more _____ in comparision to gold or palladium alloys

A

rigid

41
Q

What does the chromium do in the framework?

A

ensure that the alloy will resist tarnish and corrosion

42
Q

What does the cobalt do in the framework?

A

contributes strength, rigidness, and hardness

43
Q

What does nickel do in the framework?

A

increases ductility

44
Q

What does carbon do in the framework?

A

pronounced effect on the strength, hardness, and ductility

45
Q

What does tin, indium do in the framework?

A

readily oxidized minor components of the alloy function to improve bonding

46
Q

Gold alloys are approximately ____ as flexible as the chromium-cobalt alloys

A

twice

47
Q

What are the advantages of chromium-cobalt alloys?

A
  • high modulus of elasticity and lower flexibility
  • low cost
  • low density
48
Q

What are possible causes of failure of chromium-cobalt alloys?

A
  • cold-working
  • shrinkage porosity
  • low percent elongation
  • excessive carbon in the alloy
49
Q

What does cold-working do to chromium-cobalt alloys?

A

reduces the percentage of elongation that causes a decrease in hardness

50
Q

What does shrinkage porosity do to chromium-cobalt alloys?

A

shrink approximately 2.3% and results in porosity

51
Q

What is low percent elongation directly related to in chromium-cobalt alloys?

A

brittleness

52
Q

What does excessive carbon do to chromium-cobalt alloys?

A

reacts with the other constituents to form carbides