MISC. Flashcards

1
Q

How much Fluoride for 0-6 mos.

<0.3ppm
0.3-0.6ppm
>0.06 PPm

A

0 for all

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2
Q

How much Fluoride for 6mos-3 years

<0.3ppm
0.3-0.6ppm
>0.06 PPm

A

0 for all

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3
Q

How much Fluoride for 3yrs-6yrs

<0.3ppm
0.3-0.6ppm
>0.06 PPm

A

<0.3ppm= 0.5mg of fluoride
0.3-00.6ppm= 0.25 mg
>0.6ppm = 0 mg

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4
Q

How much Fluoride for 6yr-16yrs

<0.3ppm
0.3-0.6ppm
>0.06 PPm

A

<0.3ppm = 1 mg
0.3-0.6ppm = 0.5mg
>0.06 PPm= 0 mg

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5
Q

If the odds ratio equals 1, the exposure …..?

A

Does not affect the odds of the outcome

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6
Q

If the odds ratio is greater than 1, the exposure ……?

A

Is associated with increased odds of the outcome

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7
Q

If the odds ratio is less than 1, the exposure ……?

A

is associated with decreased odds of the outcome

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8
Q

______ are numeric variables that are obtained by counting and taking a value based on a count from a set of distinct whole values. These variables cannot take the value of a fraction between one value and the next closest value. Since the presence or absence of oral cancer is not measured on a numerical score.

A

Dsicrete Variables

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9
Q

_______ are numeric variables that are obtained by measuring and can therefore take any value between a certain set of real numbers. The value given for a continuous variable can be as small as the instrument of measurement allows. Since the presence or absence of oral cancer is not measured on a numerical score.

A

COntinuous Variables

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10
Q

________ are organized by ordering or ranking of groups. In the case of oral cancer screening, the presence or absence of the disease is not affected by rank. Since there is no clear order of the outcome.

A

Ordinal Variables

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11
Q

_______ also known as dichotomous variables, are variables that can only take on two possible values or categories. Examples include yes/no outcomes, heads/tails in a coin flips, and win/loss in a competition. In this case, oral cancer can either be present or absent during the screening process and can only take on those two distinct categories.

A

Binary

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12
Q

What is the ideal upper limit for fluoride concentration in community water as determined by research?

A

0.7ppm

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13
Q

Nitroglycerin is a prodrug that is converted to nitric oxide (NO) which then activates the enzyme ______ ______ leading to relaxation of vascular smooth muscles, and subsequently arteriolar and venous dilation.

A

guanylyl cyclase

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14
Q

A corelationCoefficient of 1=

A

1: a strong positive association exists

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15
Q

A corelationCoefficient of 0=

A

no association exists

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16
Q

A corelationCoefficient of -1=

A

a strong negative association exists

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17
Q

What is Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS),

A

a severe skin reaction caused by a reaction to medications or an illness.

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18
Q

_______ is a severe skin hypersensitivity reaction to a medication or illness and is a lesser form of toxic epidermal necrolysis.

A

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS)

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19
Q

_______ is most commonly caused by coxsackievirus and is self-limiting, resolving on its own over a short period of time.

A

Hand foot mouth

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20
Q

___________ can cause a viral infection of herpes simplex, resulting in small blisters called cold sores or fever blisters or sore throat that resolves over time. Herpes infections are categorized based on the body part infected (i.e. oral, hands, etc).

A

Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1)

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21
Q

__________ is a highly contagious disease that includes symptoms of fever, cough, runny nose, and inflamed eyes. It is caused by the measles virus.

A

Rubeola, otherwise known as measles

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22
Q

_______________ can cause infections, most of which are asymptomatic and resolve over a few years. However, in some cases, HPV infections may lead to warts or precancerous lesions. Depending on the location of the lesion, these infections may increase the risk of cancers, such as cervical and oropharyngeal cancers.

A

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

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23
Q

What two drugs are prescribed to multiple myeloma patients?

A

Dexamethasone and Bisphos

Dexamethasone stops white blood cells from traveling to areas that are damaged by cancerous myeloma cells and can even kill them in higher dosages.

Bisphosphonates inhibit the progression of osteoclastic activity thus reducing skeletal complications related to multiple myeloma.

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24
Q

______ = in a statistical study is one that proposes that there is no significant difference in the outcomes of the study groups.

A

Null Hypothesis

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25
Q

When taking methodiazonale what should be avoided?

A

Ehtanol

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26
Q

Von Recklinghausen’s disease of bone.

A

This patient presents with hyperparathyroidism,

The elevated levels of hyperparathyroid hormone lead to increased osteoclast activity and bone turnover, which is seen by increased alkaline phosphatase levels.

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27
Q

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

A

is a rare disease of bone marrow-derived Langerhans cells. These cells build up and form lesions that can be seen solely in the maxillofacial bones or systemically. Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in this disease as well, as in most diseases that affect bone.
in the oral cavity, this disease can present with localized pain, swelling, and severe periodontal disease with “floating teeth”. The lesions can appear radiographically similar to the “brown tumors” of hyperparathyroidism. However, the “salt and pepper” trabeculae noted in the description of this patient is a ‘buzzword’ used to specifically describe hyperparathyroidism.

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28
Q

________ is a chronic disease of altered bone turnover that ultimately results in sclerosis and deformation of the bone, as opposed to the bone loss seen in this patient. Initially, bone is resorbed at a faster rate than it is replaced, though over time bone is deposited at a faster rate than it is resorbed.

cotton wool

A

Paget’s disease

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29
Q

is a gram positive facultative anaerobe that is commonly associated with post treatment apical periodontitis. The patient’s periapical radiolucency has worsened since treatment, likely indicating a failed root canal treatment.

A

Enterococcus faecalis

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30
Q

is an orange complex gram negative rod associated with pregnancy gingivitis.

A

Prevotella intermedia

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31
Q

is a red complex gram negative spirochete associated with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG).

A

Treponema denticola

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32
Q

The order for the most common congenitally missing permanent teeth is:

A

Third molars
Mandibular second premolars

Maxillary laterals
Maxillary second premolars

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33
Q

This condition is associated with severe inflammation of the periodontium, usually leading to the loss of primary dentition by the age of 5 and the loss of permanent dentition by the age of 17. It also presents with dry, scaly lesions on the fingers, trunk, knees, and elbows, and palmoplantar hyperkeratosis, which is a scaly thickening of the skin of the bottom of the feet and palms of the hands.

A

Papillon-Lefèvre syndrome

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34
Q

____________________clinical symptoms include severe periodontitis of the primary and permanent dentitions, scaly skin lesions, and palmoplantar hyperkeratosis.

A

Papillion-Lefèrve syndrome

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35
Q

_______ structure is defined by data that is being compared from different individuals. One group is usually the control group or gold standard, and the other groups are divided into different interventions. In this case, since the subjects are divided into different soda groups, the outcomes will be compared between the individuals. This is an example of unpaired data.

A

UNpaired

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36
Q

_____ structure is defined by data that is being compared from the same individual in different time points. For this case, subjects are divided into different soda groups, so this is not an example of paired data.

A

Paired

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37
Q

________ `also known as dichotomous variables, are variables that can only take on two possible values. Examples include yes/no outcomes, heads/tails in a coin flips, and win/loss in a competition. Salivary glucose concentration evaluates continuous data.

A

Binary

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38
Q

consists of qualitative data that has a specific order and is ranked. Salivary glucose concentration consists of quantitative data.

A

Ordinal

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39
Q

what is the variable that is manipulated by the researcher.

A

Explanatory variable/ independent variable

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40
Q

_______ describes the phenomenon where participants in a study alter their behavior since they are aware they are being observed.

A

Hawthorne

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41
Q

_______ is the degree to which a measurement represents the true value of an outcome. In other words, it is a measure of how close the final results of an experiment are to the correct or accepted value.

A

accuracy

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42
Q

is a measure of the agreement of a set of results among themselves, or in other words, how close the results are to one another. An experiment that yields data with a low standard deviation is said to be highly precise. However, the precision of a data set does not describe how correct the results actually are. Precision is a term best used to describe quantitative outcomes.

A

precision

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43
Q

_______ is a measure of how well an experiment will produce the same results when repeated. This can be improved by increasing its sample size.

A

reliability

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44
Q

________ is the extent to which the study effectively measures what it is designed to measure, or how well a data set represents the phenomenon being assessed.

A

validity

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45
Q

Patients with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are protected under the ___________

A

Americans with Disabilities Act.

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46
Q

Lymph nodes of the abdomen are the most common metastatic site for testicular cancer.

A

true

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47
Q

This patient has poorly controlled diabetes, which has been shown to be associated with________,

A

osteomyelitis

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48
Q

Implant placement is an invasive surgery that can lead to serious complications, including_________ .

A

osteomyelitis

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49
Q

A removable partial denture can have precision attachments, which replace the denture rests and clasps. These attachments are incorporated into the partial denture and serve as the “male” portion that fits into a “female” portion placed onto the abutment teeth. The main indication for these precision attachments is _______

A

esthetics

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50
Q

Albuterol is an adrenergic agonist, specifically a _________. Albuterol activates beta-2 receptors in order to relax bronchial smooth muscle, opening the airway to the lungs, and effectively increasing air flow to the lungs.

A

beta-2 agonist

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51
Q

Common characteristics of _________ include flattened facial profile, delayed tooth eruption, macroglossia, hypodontia.

A

down syndrome

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52
Q

Patients with ______ commonly present with cardiac defects.

It is critical to ask the parent for a cardiac and surgical history to determine if antibiotic prophylaxis is necessary prior to dental procedures given the increased risk of infective endocarditis.

A

Down syndrome

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53
Q

localized aggressive periodontitis. The bacteria that is most commonly associated with this condition is ________ _______ , a nonmotile, gram-negative rod.

A

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans

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54
Q

_______ is a gram-negative, obligate anaerobe and is part of the orange complex of bacteria. It is associated with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG/ANUG), a condition characterized by “punched-out” papilla, painful bleeding gums, ulceration, and fetid odor.

A

P Intermedia

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55
Q

Treatment of localized aggressive periodontitis includes _______

A

prescription of systemic antibiotics coupled with scaling and root planing (SRP).

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56
Q

Primary risk factors of oral cancer include _______

A

tobacco and alcohol consumption.

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57
Q

The most well-known side effects of ________are cough, angioedema, and swelling secondary to fluid retention.

A

lisinopril

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58
Q

_________ is an HIV-associated cancer caused by human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8) that forms inside blood vessels and lymphatic tissues. It initially presents as purple, red, or brown spots often on the hard palate, gingiva, or tongue that can resemble bruises and later develops a nodular appearance with or without secondary ulceration.

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

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59
Q

The patient has rheumatoid arthritis, which can often be managed with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as_______.

A

aspirin

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60
Q

_________ works by irreversibly blocking the activity of cyclooxygenase (COX) 1 and 2.

A

Aspirin

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61
Q

t/f: Some bacteria are able to secrete polysaccharides that form sticky biofilms and impair the ability for irrigants to clean the canals.

A

true

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62
Q

_______is a chemotherapy and immunosuppressive drug that is known to cause poor wound healing and hemostasis after tooth extraction.

A

Methotrexate

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63
Q

For any adults without contraindications to ibuprofen, the FDA suggests a daily maximum dose of_______ a day. In addition, it should not be taken more than every 4 hours.

A

3,200mg

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64
Q

Third trimester of pregnancy, should avoid using all_____

A

NSAIDs

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65
Q

The following are contraindications to use of NSAIDS

A

Hypersensitivity or allergic reaction to ibuprofen or other NSAIDs
Third trimester of pregnancy, should avoid using all NSAIDs
Advanced renal disease or heart failure patients, unless determined that benefits outweigh risks
Advanced chronic liver disease or cirrhosis
History of gastric ulcers

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66
Q

What is the max amount of aceto?

A

4000mg

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67
Q

What is the max amount of ibu?

A

3200mg

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68
Q

t/f: The amount of vertical bone loss ranges between 10-20% and horizontal bone loss ranges from 30-60% after 6 months.

A

true

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69
Q

The best choice for cementing a zirconia crown when a significant amount of tooth structure has been removed is a ____

A

self-adhesive resin cement.

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70
Q

What cement is used for zirconia with conservative prep

A

RMGI

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71
Q

Patients with factor ________ are hypercoagulable due to diminished breakdown of factor V by activated protein C resulting in an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE).

A

V Leiden

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72
Q

Those with factor V Leiden are prescribed_______ to prevent blood clot formation.

A

anticoagulants

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73
Q

Splinting: avulsed tooth

A

flexible for 2 weeks

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74
Q

Splinting: extrusive luxation

A

flexible for 2 weeks

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75
Q

Splinting: subluxation

A

flexible for 2 weeks

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76
Q

Splinting a lateral luxation

A

4 weeks

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77
Q

Splinting intrusive luxation

A

4 weeks

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78
Q

Splinting alveolar fracture

79
Q

Splinting root fracture

80
Q

Splinting root fracture in the cervical third.

81
Q

For rheumatoid arth:_______ blocks DNA and RNA synthesis in rapidly dividing cells such as immune or cancer cells.

A

Methotrexate

82
Q

Methotrexate, even in low doses, can impair kidney function. It would be advisable to evaluate proper kidney function prior to surgery through a ________ test to ensure a low risk of perioperative or postoperative complications.

A

creatinine clearance

83
Q

sutures: absorbed by acid hydrolysis within 4 weeks. Water penetrates the strands of the suture and causes breakdown of the filaments.

84
Q

Sutures: absorbed by proteolysis after 3 weeks. Enzymes in the body carry out phagocytosis to break down the sutures.

A

chromic gut

85
Q

If the amalgam feels dry and crumbly, it is a sign of _______

A

under-trituration

86
Q

________produces an amalgam mixture that is warm, wet, and soft.

A

Over-trituration

87
Q

________ makes up the greatest proportion of metals in amalgam alloys.

88
Q

_____ of an amalgam restoration can cause a bluish hue around the amalgam-enamel margin.

89
Q

_______in dental amalgams refers to the gradual change in the shape of the restoration from compression by opposing dentition during chewing, or by pressure from adjacent teeth.

90
Q

Diabetes can be considered well-controlled if the patient’s HbA1c levels are between _______

91
Q

Insulin glargine (Lantus®) and detemir (Levemir®) are forms of ________that are generally taken once daily.

A

long-acting insulin

92
Q

________is a form of rapid-acting insulin taken prior to meals.

93
Q

Glargine (Lantus®) and detemir (Levemir®) are forms of long-acting insulin taken _______

A

once daily.

94
Q

What is the RASS Pathway?

A

the pathway is renin → angiotensin I → (ACE) → angiotensin II → aldosterone.

95
Q

________ is a water based cream that is supplied in tubes resembling those of toothpaste. The paste is placed on the teeth and is able to release both calcium and phosphate to the tooth structure and increase its concentration in the saliva. This allows for increased remineralization of demineralized lesions and can help fight against decay and erosion.

96
Q

What are medications used to help stop smoking:

A

Varenicline (Chantix®)

Bupropion (Zyban®) is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI), used to treat major depressive disorder. It also has the additional action of reducing smoking cravings, a great adjunct for smoking cessation therapy.

Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) is used to provide slowly decreasing dosages of nicotine (via lozenge, patch, gum, etc) over a period of a few weeks to decrease withdrawal symptoms experienced during smoking cessation.

97
Q

T/F: Buspirone (Buspar®) is an anxiolytic medication, which does not assist in smoking cessation.

98
Q

Buccal furcation cysts are rare radiolucent lesions generally _______

A

associated with the buccal aspect of the mandibular 1st molar in children aged 6-8 years old.

99
Q

________ is a 5HT1a partial agonist allowing for anxiolysis.

100
Q

_________such as midazolam are medications known to enhance gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) effect at the GABA-A receptors.

A

Benzodiazepines

101
Q

________ inhibits norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake and binds weakly to μ-opioid receptors.

102
Q

_________ are characteristics that are unchangeable and increase the likelihood of periodontal disease.

A

risk determinants

103
Q

_______ are metrics that have a quantitative association with the disease.

A

risk markers

104
Q

t/f: Trauma leading to hemolysis of red blood cells releases hemoglobin and hematin derivatives, potentially causing tooth discoloration.

105
Q

MOA of which drug? It works by binding ergosterol which is a major component of fungal cell membranes. This causes pores to form in the fungal cell membrane and ultimately causes the death of the fungus

106
Q

Glucagon increases blood sugar by breaking down gylcogen in the liver

107
Q

t/f: Teeth can be lightened using internal bleaching with 10% carbamide peroxide.

108
Q

When doing internal bleaching, what is the thickness of barrier between gutta percha and the pulp chamber?

109
Q

Composite resin restorations should be performed at least _______after an internal bleaching procedure due to the effect of hydrogen peroxide on composite bonding to the tooth.

A

2-3 weeks

Studies have shown that the saturation of the tooth with oxygen from hydrogen peroxide directly reduces free radical polymerization and bond strength.

110
Q

Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can affect parts of the body such as the heart, joints and central nervous system.

Possible sequelae to rheumatic heart disease include endocarditis, arthritis, and chorea.

111
Q

_______is a bacterium responsible for multiple mild and severe infections. Mild infections include sore throat from pharyngitis and tonsillitis, whereas severe infections include scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, necrotizing fasciitis, and toxic shock syndrome.

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

112
Q

Methotrexate is used to treat Chron’s disease.

Methotrexate depresses the immune response and is known to cause gastrointestinal disturbances, hepatotoxicity, and oral ulcerations.

113
Q

Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) is a painful gum infection associated with an oral spirochete bacterium, ________ ________.

A

Treponema denticola

114
Q

A. actinomycetemcomitans is more commonly associated with _______

A

localized aggressive periodontitis.

115
Q

________ is used as a smoking cessation and antidepressant medication that can cause neurological side effects.

A

Bupropion (Wellbutrin®)

116
Q

What is the order of teeth that are most likely to get CTS (cracked tooth syndrome)

A

Mand 2 molar
mand 1 molar
max premolar

117
Q

When determining which compositie takes longest to cure look at the ——-

A

value number the higher the number the longer to cure

118
Q

if shade doesnt match in different light then what?

A

mETAMERISM

119
Q

wHICH DENTIN MUST BE ETCHED THE LONGEST?

120
Q

does composite have high compressive strength

121
Q

which of the following are not true of class one amalgam preps:

butt joint margin
requires depth of 1mm
flat pulpal floor
converging buccal and lingual walls

A

requires depth of 1 mm

it is at least 1.5 mm

122
Q

What is the weakest phase of amalgam?

123
Q

how do you reduce the gamma two phase?

A

increasing copper

124
Q

does glass ionomer or RMGI have more fluoride release?

125
Q

Spill of the dental primer can cause what?

A

delayed type IV hypersensitivity

126
Q

Which metal in amalgam has the highest allergic rates?

127
Q

What margin for gingival margin of a veneer?

A

feather edge

128
Q

what margin for the incisal edge of veneer?

129
Q

What type of compsite filler has the most wear resistances?

A

nanofill because it is the smallest particles.

130
Q

what type of pain is not associated with 3rd molar eruption

A

not sensitivity to cold but rather aching or soreness.

131
Q

what is the strongest phase of amalgam

A

gamma

gamma one is slightly weaker - reacting with silver
gamma 2 is the weakest and is reacting with tin

132
Q

for infrabony defects greater than 3mm you must do what?

A

Guided tissue regeneration

for

133
Q

what about 3mm or less infrabony defect?

A

osseous surgery

134
Q

what is doxycycline? and where does it aggregate the most

A

it is a tetracycline and aggregates in the GCF`

135
Q

is the accuracy of a diagnostic test in determining disease. It is measured by this equation: Sensitivity = TP/(TP+FN)

A

sensitvity

136
Q

what is the equation for sensitivity

A

Sensitivity = TP/(TP+FN)

137
Q

= TN/(TN+FP)

A

specifictiy

138
Q

causes symptoms such as sweating, tremors, nervousness, anxiety, unintentional weight loss, sensitivity to heat, increased heart rate and goiter.

A

hyperthyroidism

139
Q

can cause symptoms such as dry and cold skin, weight gain, fatigue, constipation, sensitivity to cold, slowed heart rate, and thinning hair.

A

hypothyroidism

140
Q

Patients who take_____ can expect weight gain, hypertension, hyperglycemia, and altered mood.

A

prednisone

141
Q

Carbamazepine (Tegretol®) is a _______

A

sodium channel blocker.

142
Q

________syndrome can result in midface hypoplasia, which is characterized by bulging eyes, frontal bossing, hypertelorism, and maxillary retrognathism.

143
Q

__________reactivates acetylcholinesterase by reversing the phosphorylation.

A

Pralidoxime (Protopam®)

144
Q

_____are one of the first responders of acute inflammation and aggregate at the site and are the dominant phagocytic cell at this stage of injury and healing.

A

Neutrophils

145
Q

Hepatitis B viruses can live on a surface for ____

A

up to one week.

146
Q

the injection technique anesthetizes the most number of nerves.

147
Q

Digoxin and other cardiac glycosides are prescribed to help a heart suffering from congestive heart failure. They work by blocking ______ in order to increase the influx of calcium ions into cardiac muscle cells and promote positive inotropy.

A

the Na+/K+ ATPase enzyme

148
Q

Meckel’s cartilage gives rise to the :

A

malleus, incus, sphenomandibular ligament, and anterior mandible.

149
Q

Orthodontic movement may be slowed in patients taking ________

A

long-term nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

150
Q

The order of maxillary and mandibular primary teeth eruption is in the order of

151
Q

______ can be confirmed with a biopsy that has Verocay bodies in the Antoni-A areas.

A

A schwannoma

152
Q

The maximum daily dosage of acetaminophen is

153
Q

The maximum daily dosage of ibuprofen is

154
Q

The minimum oxygen concentration delivered with nitrous oxide is

155
Q

What is the MOA of Denusomab?

A

RANKL inhibitor

156
Q

What is the MOA of fosamax?

A

osteoclast inhibition

157
Q

_________ is a loop diuretic that acts on the thick ascending loop of Henle to block Na/K/2Cl transporters.

A

Furosemide (Lasix®)

158
Q

Furosemide (Lasix®) is associated with what?

A

hypokalemia, hearing loss, hypocalcemia , interstitial nephritis

159
Q

_________ is the most resistant to calcium hydroxide.

A

Enterococcus faecalis

160
Q

T. Denticola is associated with what?

161
Q

A actinomyces is associateed with what?

A

localized agressive periodontitis

162
Q

What is the MOA of doxycylcine?

A

it inhibits collengase, and therefore is only used in adult periodontis, not any necrotizing perio disorders

163
Q

Factors such as human immunodeficiency virus, malnutrition, and smoking can contribute to the development of ________

A

necrotizing gingivitis.

164
Q

which local anesth is digested in the liver

165
Q

which LA is digested in the plasma

166
Q

WHat is the MOA of Nystatin

A

binds ergostol which is needed for fungal cell memerane

167
Q

are mesiodens more common on the buccal or the palatal surface?

168
Q

______is a 5HT1a partial agonist allowing for anxiolysis.

169
Q

_________ are medications known to enhance gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) effect at the GABA-A receptors.

A

Benzodiazepines such as midazolam

170
Q

________ inhibits norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake and binds weakly to μ-opioid receptors.

171
Q

Common side effects of buspirone include _________

A

headaches, nervousness, excitement, nausea, diarrhea, insomnia, xerostomia and confusion.

172
Q

________ blocks DNA and RNA synthesis in rapidly dividing cells such as immune or cancer cells.

A

Methotrexate

173
Q

________can impair kidney function which should be evaluated prior to surgical procedures.

A

methotrexate

174
Q

The amount of vertical bone loss ranges between ______and horizontal bone loss ranges from _______ after 6 months.

A

VBL: 10-20%
HBL: 30-60%

175
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma is a malignant proliferation of endothelial cells caused by _______

A

human herpesvirus 8 (HHV8).

176
Q

continuing education is what

A

non-malfecnes

177
Q

reporting abuse is

A

benefincence

178
Q

______ can be done at least 2-3 weeks after an internal bleaching procedure.

A

Resin composite fillings

179
Q

_______ are associated with hyperkalemia

A

Potassium-sparing diuretics, such as spironolactone,

180
Q

Side effects of_______ may include dizziness, headaches, xerostomia, arrhythmias, and hypokalemia.

A

hydrochlorothiazide

181
Q

________is effective in reversing benzodiazepine activit

A

Flumazenil

182
Q

Histologically ________ examination reveals myxoid stroma with myoepithelial cells.

A

pleomorphic adenoma

183
Q

How does dentingogensis imperfecta present? what is the difference between the two types?

A

they have obliterated pulp canals and bulbous crowns

Type I is associated with osteogenesis imperfecta

Type II is independent

184
Q

statins and Firbtates can cause what

A

rhabdomyolysis which can result in the break down of muscle and cause red urine

185
Q

Beginning with file size #15, the color of files in ascending order is White-Yellow-Red-Blue-Green-Black, then it repeats itself.
The file size is indicated by its color and represents the diameter at the file tip.

A

know this bs

186
Q

granular cell tumor is a type of benign or malignant tumor of Schwann cell origin.

A

anterior tongue

187
Q

risperdone can cause what

A

tardive dyskinesia

188
Q

Direct inhibition of thrombin describes the mechanism of action of

A

dabigatran (Pradaxa®).

189
Q

Acceleration of antithrombin III activity describes the mechanism of action of

190
Q

Inhibition of vitamin K reductase describes the mechanism of action of

A

warfarin (Coumadin®).

191
Q

are both inhibitors of clotting factor Xa.

A

Rivaroxaban (Xarelto®) and apixaban (Eliquis®)

192
Q

is a sodium channel blocker.

A

Carbamazepine (Tegretol®)

193
Q

x is a gram negative, aerobic bacteria that has been found in up to 68% of dental water lines.

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram negative, aerobic bacteria that has been found in up to 68% of dental water lines.