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Physical Disabilities > Misc > Flashcards

Misc Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the 5th and final step of the SOTP (Systemic Occupational Therapy Practice) Model?

  • Reflexive Assessment
  • Outcome Assessment
  • Goals and Objectives
  • Ascertaining need
A
  • Outcome Assessment
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2
Q

Jane will arrive at work on time. This is an example of which type of objective?

  • Outcome
  • Process
  • Intuitive
  • Specific
  • Reflexive
A
  • Outcome
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3
Q

The PRECEDE-PROCEED model is based on all but which of the following assumptions?

  • In the precede framework, factors influencing health are identified
  • Objectives for population are developed during the precede portion of the model
  • People’s health patterns are stable, consistent, and unable to be altered.
  • The proceed portion of the model includes policy development.
A
  • People’s health patterns are stable, consistent, and unable to be altered.
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4
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic disease affecting the entire body, unlike osteoarthritis, which attacks individual joints. Osteoarthritis results in deterioration of the joint cartilage because of __.

  • wear and tear on the joint
  • genetic factors
  • biomechanical, biochemical, and cellular events
  • Both A and B
  • All of the above.
A
  • All of the above.
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5
Q

Avoiding MP ulnar deviation is an important joint protection principle in cases of rheumatoid arthritis. To open a jar, the patient should be instructed to do which of the following?

  • To open the jar using the palm of his or her hand
  • To use two hands and wall mount jar opener
  • To use shoulder rotation
  • Both A and B
  • All of the above.
A
  • All of the above.
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6
Q

A clinical symptom of rheumatoid arthritis in the acute stage includes which of the following?

  • Hot and red joints
  • Increased joint movement
  • Pain that decreases with movement
  • Joint deformities
  • Asymmetrical joint involvement
A
  • Hot and red joints
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7
Q

Only one of the following is true. Which one is it?

  • A positive rheumatoid factor laboratory test is needed to establish a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis.
  • The clinical evaluation is seldom utilized in establishing a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis.
  • Radiological findings can be utilized in establishing a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis.
  • At least three of the seven criteria are required to make a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis.
A
  • Radiological findings can be utilized in establishing a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis.
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8
Q

More than __% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis will develop characteristic joint deformities.

  • 100
  • 50
  • 33
  • 25
  • 10
A

33%

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9
Q

The synovial tissue that lines the joint becomes inflamed in rheumatoid arthritis. This is referred to as synovitis and results in all but which of the following?

  • Increased joint lubrication
  • Destruction of cartilage and bone
  • Limiting joint motion
  • Weakening of the joint capsule
  • Distending of the tendons and ligaments
A
  • Increased joint lubrication
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10
Q

Heat is a physical agent modality that is often used for patients with arthritis. Which of the following is not a benefit of applying heat to an arthritic patient?

  • Increased blood flow
  • Decreased inflammation
  • Pain relief
  • Increased tissue elasticity
  • Maintaining range of motion
A
  • Decreased inflammation
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11
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis are two of the more than 100 conditions that make up the rheumatic diseases. These conditions __.

  • are the main reason children under 12 visit a physician
  • are easily diagnosed by the physician
  • seldom respond to medications
  • seldom result in a visit to a physician
  • are the main reason that adults over the age of 65 visit a physician
A
  • are the main reason that adults over the age of 65 visit a physician
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12
Q

All but which of the following are joint protection principles?

  • Avoid staying in one position for long periods.
  • Reduce the force and the effort.
  • Pull objects instead of pushing them.
  • Refrain from starting activities that cannot be stopped.
  • Balance rest and activity.
A
  • Pull objects instead of pushing them.
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13
Q

Crepitus at the joint can be defined as __.

  • a tendency for the patient to move slowly because of joint pain
  • an audible or palpable crunching in the joint caused by the irregularity of opposing surfaces
  • a bony outgrowth from the joint into the joint space
  • Both A and B
  • Both B and C
A
  • an audible or palpable crunching in the joint caused by the irregularity of opposing surfaces
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14
Q

Patients with rheumatoid arthritis frequently have joint replacements or arthroplasties because of the extensive joint damage. All but which of the following joints are common sites for an arthroplasty?

  • The hips
  • The knees
  • The distal interphalangeal joints
  • The MP joints
A
  • The distal interphalangeal joints
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15
Q

A common hand deformity in rheumatoid arthritis includes which of the following?

  • Metacarpophalangeal (MP) ulnar deviation and wrist ulnar deviation
  • MP radial deviation and wrist ulnar deviation
  • MP ulnar deviation and wrist radial deviation
  • MP radial deviation and wrist radial deviation
A
  • MP ulnar deviation and wrist radial deviation
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16
Q

All but which of the following extraarticular features can occur in patients with rheumatoid arthritis?

  • Fatigue
  • Vasculitis
  • Cardiac
  • Renal
  • Olfactory
A
  • Olfactory
17
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis can result in significant psychological stressors because of pain, changed body image, and uncertainty about the course of the disease. Major depression can result in approximately what percentage of the cases?

  • 40%
  • 20%
  • 10%
  • None of the above.
A
  • 20%
18
Q

In osteoarthritis nodes or bony enlargements are commonly seen at the distal interphalangeal joints. What are these nodes called?

  • Mallet finger nodes
  • Bouchard’s nodes
  • Boutonnière deformity nodes
  • Heberden’s nodes
  • None of the above.
A
  • Heberden’s nodes
19
Q

While preparing to evaluate a client who underwent an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) to address a femoral fracture in the dominant right lower extremity (RLE), you notice the physician has specified a partial weight-bearing (PWB) restriction. How will you educate the client to respect this restriction to prevent injury?

  • Instruct the client to only place 50% or less of their body weight through the affected leg when standing or ambulating with the use of a mobility aid.
  • Instruct the client to only place the toe on the ground for stability but avoid placing weight through the affecting leg when standing or ambulating with a mobility aid
  • Instruct the client to stand and ambulate without a mobility aid but place the majority of their body weight through the non-affected left leg as tolerated.
  • Instruct the client to only place 25% or less of their body weight through the affected leg when standing or ambulating with the use of a mobility aid.
A
  • Instruct the client to only place 50% or less of their body weight through the affected leg when standing or ambulating with the use of a mobility aid.
20
Q

What is the primary concern for an occupational therapist working as part of the rehabilitation team for clients after lower extremity fractures or joint replacement?

  • Recommending an appropriate assistive device for mobility
  • Gait and mobility
  • Improving performance in daily activities and meaningful occupations
  • Progressing the post-surgical protocol an improving range of motion in the affected joint
A
  • Improving performance in daily activities and meaningful occupations
21
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding orthopedic injuries and joint replacements?

  • More than 300 million hip fractures occurred in 2010.
  • More than 1 million joint replacements were performed in 2011.
  • Approximately 53,000 shoulder replacements are performed per year in the United States.
  • All answers are correct.
A
  • All answers are correct.
22
Q

Which of the following is a Syme’s amputation?

  • Ankle disarticulation
  • Above-knee
  • Below-knee
  • Through-knee
  • Transmetatarsal
A
  • Ankle disarticulation
23
Q

Which is true about upper and lower extremity amputations?

  • The lower the level of amputation, the greater the functional loss.
  • The higher the level of amputation, the less complicated the prosthesis.
  • The higher the level of amputation, the less prosthetic training needed.
  • The lower the level of amputation, the more joints lost.
  • The higher the level of amputation, the less residual limb length.
A
  • The higher the level of amputation, the less residual limb length.
24
Q

Which component is not common to all upper extremity body-powered prostheses for wrist disarticulation and higher levels?

  • Terminal device
  • Wrist unit
  • Elbow unit
  • Socket
  • Harness
A
  • Elbow unit
25
Q

A client practicing stacking small blocks would be in what phase of prosthetic training?

  • Preprosthetic
  • Control
  • Use
  • Functional
  • Repetitive
A
  • Use
26
Q

Which is not an advantage of a myoelectric prosthesis?

  • Minimal or no harnessing
  • Lighter weight
  • Increased grip force
  • Ability to use overhead
  • Minimal effort needed to control
A
  • Lighter weight
27
Q

A client feeling a limb that is no longer there is experiencing __.

  • neuroma
  • phantom pain
  • hyperesthesia
  • phantom limb
  • sympathetic sensation
A
  • phantom limb
28
Q

. An upper extremity amputation through the distal third of the forearm would be considered what level of amputation?

  • Wrist disarticulation
  • Short transradial
  • Long transradial
  • Elbow disarticulation
  • Short transhumeral
A
  • Long transradial
29
Q

What is the leading cause of upper extremity amputation?

  • PVD
  • Osteogenic sarcoma
  • Trauma
  • Chronic infection
  • Peripheral vasospastic disease
A
  • Trauma
30
Q

A traditional body-powered above-elbow prosthesis would require how many control cables?

  • None
  • One
  • Two
  • Three
  • Four
A
  • Two
31
Q

Which is not a function of a prosthetic sock?

  • Absorb perspiration
  • Protect against skin irritation
  • Compensate for residual limb volume changes
  • Provide comfort
  • Allow direct contact between socket and skin
A
  • Allow direct contact between socket and skin
32
Q

Which is not part of a myoelectric prosthesis control system?

  • Motor
  • Cable
  • Battery
  • Electrode
  • Amplifier
A
  • Cable
33
Q

What is the leading cause of lower extremity amputation?

  • Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)
  • Motor vehicle accidents
  • Gunshot wounds
  • Osteogenic sarcoma
  • Chronic infection
A
  • Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)
34
Q

An upper extremity prosthesis with a myoelectric hand and body-powered elbow is a type of __.

  • muscle-cable prosthesis
  • dual-driven prosthesis
  • composite prosthesis
  • hybrid prosthesis
  • electrical-body prosthesis
A
  • hybrid prosthesis
35
Q

When operating a body-powered voluntary opening upper extremity prosthesis, humeral flexion and scapular abduction will __.

  • close the terminal device
  • flex the elbow
  • extend the elbow
  • flex the wrist
  • A and B
A
  • flex the elbow
36
Q

Not all above-knee or below-knee prostheses have a __.

  • socket
  • pylon
  • suspension system
  • terminal device
  • articulating joint
A
  • articulating joint

Physical Disabilities (12 decks)

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