Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ADF115 > Misc. > Flashcards

Misc. Flashcards

1
Q

Missed Approach Criterial

A
  1. ) Out of tolerances beyond the FAF
  2. ) Aid is suspect
  3. ) Not visual by the DA/MDA
  4. ) Cannot conduct a landing to the runway unless circling
  5. ) Visual reference is lost during a circling approach

Provides 100ft clearance on a gradient of 2.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When can you start circling to land from an approach?

A
  1. ) Within the circling area
  2. ) Weather is not less than that on the plate
  3. ) Visual reference is maintained with the runway/landing area
  4. ) Can descend below the MDA as long as you can maintain obstacle clearance for the aircraft category (400ft)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When can you descend below MDA?

A
  1. ) Visual reference is maintained
  2. ) Weather is not below that on the chart
  3. ) Landing can be made using standard rates of descent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When can you be cleared for a visual approach?

A

IFR flights:

  1. ) Within 30nm of the airfield
  2. ) Clear of cloud
  3. ) In sight of ground or water
  4. ) 5000m vis

VFR flights:
1.) Within 30nm of the airfield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Aircraft shall not be flown below what altitudes when VFR

A
  1. ) 1000ft amsl over populated areas

2. ) 500ft amsl above obstacles or water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When is an aircraft considered well clear of another aircraft?

A

500ft Vertically and 600m horizontally. Similar to class D VMC criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pilots must obtain ATC clearance before operating in controlled airspace. In class E airspace clearance is not required when…

A
  1. ) IFR operating within the IFR pickup procedure

2. ) VFR flights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When operating in controlled Aerodromes the ATIS must be obtained when?

A

Prior to taxi request

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

IFR flights may request a visual departure when…

A

The cloud base will allow the aircraft to climb VMC to LSALT applicable to the departure.

Can be below it but must be able to maintain VMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where should an aircraft establish themselves on the outbound track?

A

Within 5nm of the airfield unless on a SID or instructed by ATC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When should a pilot change the frequency from tower?

A

Preferably within 1nm of becoming airborne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the cruising altitudes for a VFR aircraft?

A

Aircraft heading east will fly on odd numbers, aircraft flying west at even. VFR will fly 500ft above the even thousands.

East:
3500, 5500, 7500, 9500 ect
West:
4500, 6500, 8500, 10,500 ect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

During a visual approach a pilot cannot descend below…

A

IFR flights:

  • Not less than 500ft above the lower limit of CTA
  • or the LSALT at night, whichever is higher.

VFR flights:

  • Not operate below the lowest alt permissible (500ft or 1000ft if populated areas)
  • until within 3nm if at night
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When being vectored to 10nm final or initial when can a pilot report ‘visual’?

A

When satisfied that the conditions required for a visual approach can be met.

  • within 30nm
  • Clear or Cloud
  • in sight of ground/water
  • 5000m vis

(Can cancel IFR and operate VFR only if you meet the VFR separation requirements for that airspace)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In the event an IFR flight conducting a visual approach in VMC wants to ‘go around’ what must you do?

A

Fly the instrument missed approach procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When an alternate aerodrome is required it must be…

A
  1. ) Suitable to the aircraft

2. ) Not require an alternate itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When must a pilot plan for an alternate?

A
  1. ) More than SCT cloud below the alt min (second lowest appr for that Aerodrome. PC21 lowest and second lowest is the ILS due seperate independent ILS ability)
  2. ) Visibility less than the minimum
  3. ) Forecast of fog or weather that reduces weather below the requirement for visibility
  4. ) Wind exceeds limits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When could you carry holding fuel instead of an alternate?

A
  • If the weather is forecast to be less than alt. minima but are expected to improve. You carry fuel until that time plus 30mins
  • If the weather is above alt minima but has temporary deterioration less than alt minimal. You carry the INTER/TEMPO fuel.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When weather following a FM or BECMG creates a need to carry fuel when does it become valid

A

30min before and after the specified time.

Unless within the first 3 hours of a TAF3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

During the first 3 hours of a TAF3 what what does not apply?

A
  1. ) 30 minute buffer period

2. ) Alternate or holding fuel required by reduction in visibility or Prob 30/40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the alternate minima?

A
  1. ) Cloud more than SCT below HAT/HAA
  2. ) Visibility below that on the chart plus 2000m
  3. ) For aerodromes without an instrument approach procedure - LSALT +500ft and 8000m vis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When is the 80lbs I’d approach fuel required?

A

More than SCT below LSALT + 500ft and vis <5000m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the minimum fuel requirements downwind?

A

<200lbs downwind - “minimum fuel”

<140lbs downwind - “Pan pan”

<70lbs downwind - “Mayday”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Special VFR allows…

A
  • 1600m visibility

- Clear of cloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Class D VMC requirements

A
  • 1000ft above
  • 500ft below
  • 600m horizontally
  • SVFR able
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Class C/E VFR requirements:

A

> 10,000ft - 1000ft vertically, 1500m horizontally, 8k visibility

<10,000ft - 1000ft vertically, 1500m horizontally, 5km visibility

SVFR available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Class G VMC Conditions

A

Same as class C conditions

<3000ft, clear of cloud, 5km visibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Prohibited, Restricted, Danger areas

A

Prohibited - no flight under any circumstances

Restricted:
RA1 - Can plan through and expect a clearance
RA2 - Cannot plan through, clearance not assured
RA3 - Cannot plan through, no clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

RNAV Approach capture regions:

A

Straight in fix is 70’ either side of the final approach track

The ‘wing’ fixes are 180’ aligned with the final approach track

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Accurate QNH provided by…

A

ATC
ATIS
Casa approved observers
Valid for 15 mins from the time of receipt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ATC light codes in the air

A

Steady Green - Land if not collision risk exists
Steady red - give way and continue circling
Flashing green - return to land
Flashing red - Aerodrome unsafe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ATC light codes on the ground

A

Steady green - take off if no collision risk exists
Steady red - stop
Flashing green - taxi If no collision risk exists
Flashing red - taxi clear of RWY
Flashing white - return to starting point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Idle descent profile

A
  • 8’ CDM
  • 7’ PFD
    1. 2nm/1000ft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cruise descent profile

A

25% TQ
-4’ CDM
-3’ PFD
2nm/1000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Clean glide profile

A

140KIAS
-4’ CDM
0’ PFD
2nm/1000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Glide profile (Gear and TO flap)

A 
130KIAS
-8’ CDM
-4’ PFD
1nm/1000ft
Top of HUD glass
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Glide Profile (Gear and LDG Flap)

A 
125KIAS
-12’ CDM
-8’ PFD
0.8nm/1000ft
Horizon just under the canopy bow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Glide cone formula

A

(Alt. -3.5) x 2

(8000ft - 3.5) x 2

4.5 x 2 = 9nm glide cone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Aerobatics not to be conducted…

A

Below 3000ft or above built up areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Spins

A

3s per turn
500ft per turn for planning
Initiate recovery 6000ft above ground/cloud
Recovered by 3000ft above cloud or ground

Eject by LSALT if above cloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

G Warm

A

Conducted if more than 3G expected

All solo operations

If not flown for 14 days

180’ turn and pull to 3G and squeeze to 4G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Controllability check

A
  • Climb not below 3000ft at an airspeed greater or equal to that which the damage occurred.
  • Reduce airspeed to the highest of the following. Threshold speed, stall tone, half control deflection or abnormal handling
  • Recover by straight in approach at that speed +10kts

If engine damage expected, don’t change power until over the field and able to recover by PFL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

RADALT setting during, 2D approach, 3D approach, circling

A

2D approach - 250FT
3D approach - HAT
Circling - 400FT

44
Q

Pc - 21 wind limitations

A
  • 24kts crosswind
  • Steady 30kts or gusting 35 for ejection
  • 35kts for canopy
  • 10kts tailwind (nothing of it’s wet)
45
Q

Runway length required

A

5000ft +5% per 1000ft elevation

Must conduct an aborted T/O if full power not applied with 4000ft remaining

46
Q

G limits for different configurations

A

-4 to 8
Gear extended -4 to 8
Gear in transition 0 to 2
Flaps extended or in transition 0 to 4

47
Q

Battery voltage for start

A 
-10’ = 24.3v
0’ = 24.1v
10’ = 24.0v
20’ = 23.9v

External power required for less than 23.9v and Batt must be charged if less than 23.6

48
Q

IF PFD profiles

A

CLIMBS:
Climb - 180KIAS and ~15’ PFD
Max angle - 130KIAS and ~ 20’ PFD

DESCENTS:
Std - idle, 240KIAS, -7’ PFD
Idle - 25% TQ, 240KIAS, -5’ PFD

S&L:
160KIAS - 4’ PFD, 25% TQ
240KIAS - 0’ PFD, 54% TQ

49
Q

Radial Intercepts

A

If ‘outbound’ just put the radial HDG

If ‘inbound’ you calculate the reciprocal

Anticipation:

(60/DME) x 1.5

30’ intercept = 1/3
45’ intercept = 1/2
60’ intercept = 2/3
90’ intercept = 3/3

50
Q

SID climb gradients

A
  1. 0% = 540fpm
  2. 3% = 600fpm
  3. 6% = 650fpm

0.3% = +50fpm
Gradient % = RoC/Ground speed

51
Q

What emergency training is prohibited in the aircraft

A
  • Deliberate shutdown of an engine
  • EFATO and turn back training
  • Emergencies that require simulation of a service selection
52
Q

What altitude can low flying be conducted?

A

Surveyed areas - 150ft

Unsurveyed - 250ft HAOW 600m

53
Q

What independent NAVAIDS/ navigational equipment does the PC-21 have?

A

VOR and ILS - Two independant receivers

DME - One independent transmitter receiver

GLSSU - Two receivers that can be considered independent provided;

  1. Both seats are occupied
  2. If solo the FMS with the appropriate RNAV is set and loaded with no discontinuities
54
Q

ALTSEL should be set to:

A
  • Assigned altitude
  • MAPt altitude
  • LSALT
  • Airspace Limit
55
Q

Under training, can you conduct full stop landings with Trim Ail power off?

A

No

56
Q

What speed should you reduce braking when landing due anti skid and what speed does the ant skid cut out

A

Reduce at 25kts and anti skid cuts out at 10kts

57
Q

Aerobatics is defined as…

A

> 45’ in pitch
90’ AoB
IAS < Vs x 1.3

58
Q

What’s the definition of an emergency situation/MAYDAY

A

Non routine occurrence when injury or aircraft damage occurs or is threatened and immediate remedial action is warranted

59
Q

What is the definition of an Abnormal situation

A

Non routine occurrence, less severe and urgent than an emergency when remedial action is warranted as soon as practicable

60
Q

Definition of ‘Land as soon as Practicable’

A

Abort the mission and land at the nearest suitable airfield for safe operation of the jet

61
Q

Definition of land as soon as practicable

A

May abort or continue the mission, divert or land at the planned destination taking into consideration the situation, aircraft condition, aircraft performance, weather, airfield services

62
Q

Flight manual definition of a warning?

A

Operating procedure which if not rectified immediately could result in injury or death

63
Q

Flight manual definition of caution?

A

Operating procedure which if not strictly observed could result in damage to equipment

64
Q

What is TOD

A

Take off distance from brakes release to clearing a 50ft screen height

65
Q

What is TOR

A

Take off run, distance from brakes release to lift off

66
Q

What is LDG distance?

A

Distance from 50ft screen height to a full stop

67
Q

If a spot height is enclosed by a contour line. How do you calculate LSALT?

A

Spot height +1000ft +360ft rounded up

68
Q

How do you calculate the LSALT if you’ve got contours?

A

Round up to the next contour height. +1000ft +360ft

69
Q

When can you proceed with an instrument approach without entering a hold?

A
  • ATC have cleared you for the approach

- you’re within the DME arc requirements

70
Q

Engine ITT limits during; Start, ground ops, normal ops

A

Start
>860 for 20s
>910 for 5s
>1000 never

Ground
NG between 50.7% and 63% >750 for 10s

Air
>860 for 20s
>910

71
Q

Max TQ in the air

A

4202ft lbs

72
Q

The PT61B has two main sections, what are they?

A

Gas generator section:
Contains a compressor sections and a combustion section

Power turbine section:
Drives the Accessory gearbox

73
Q

What is driven by the accessory gearbox?

A 
Gen 1 
Gen 2
Fuel Pump (Low and high pressure)
Hydraulic pump 
Oil pumps
74
Q

How does the PMS control engine output?

A

By adjusting fuel flow and propeller speed based of blade angle in conjunction with PCL position

75
Q

What component make up the PMS

A
  • Propeller Interface Unit
  • Permenant magnet alternator
  • Fuel Metering unit
  • Data Collection unit
  • Power Management Unit
76
Q

Where should the PCL be when selecting PMS to manual?

A

Aft of <55’ or the nominal fuel scheduling will not be implimented limiting power

77
Q

When is the power of the engine limited?

A

Below 80kts it’s limited to 1080hp and 2836ft lbs

Above 80kts it increases linearly to 1600hp and 4202ft lbs by 200kts

78
Q

When will the engine do an auto shutdown on start up, what will happen after and how long?

A

When limits are exceeded (Hung Start, no light up, ITT exceeded)

Dry run for 10-30s

*moving the PCL FWD of 3’ will disable the auto shutdown and will not do the dry run. Will not retain it within limits

79
Q

How does the engine fire detection system work?

A

Two ‘loops’ one around the hot section and one around the accessory gear box.

Gas expands due to heat and triggers a warning.

80
Q

Aerobatics tank capacity and duration

A

13L
23lbs
45s

81
Q

When will fuel booster pumps engage to correct a fuel imbalance?

A

> 55lbs

Will stop if >121lbs

82
Q

Where is fuel information displayed?

A 
EMD
ENG page
SYS page
FUEL page
NAV page
83
Q

What does the main hydraulic system and servo system operate?

A 
Main system:
Landing Gear
Flaps up and down
Air brake
Servo manifold
Servo Manifold:
Powered Ailerons
Roll Spoilers
Powered brakes
Anti skid
84
Q

Normal hyd pressure range and emergency hydraulic pressure range.

A

Normal:
1860 - 3390psi

Emergency:
2810 - 3740psi

85
Q

What are the different modes of braking?

A

Mode 3: Powered brakes and Anti-skid

Mode 2: Powered brakes

Mode 1: Manual Braking

86
Q

Locked wheel crossover

A

Operates above 25kts when a speed differential of 30% between wheels

87
Q

What speed does anti-skid disable?

A

10kts

88
Q

Normal operating limits of the autopilot?

A

20’ pitch
30’ roll

Maximum engagement attitudes:
50’ pitch
75’ roll

89
Q

When will the autopilot disconnect?

A
  • Either disconnect button is operated
  • Trim operated for 1 second
  • Stall tone sounds
  • Trim/Ail power off
  • greater than 50’ pitch 75’ roll
90
Q

Normal oil temperature range

A

10 - 105’

Allowed up to 10mins at 110’

91
Q

Normal oil pressure range?

A

90 - 125psi

92
Q

Manoeuvring speed for the rudder

A

220kts

Deflection decreases from full to 30% at 370

93
Q

Manoeuvring speed for elevator

A

220kts

Do not make abrupt control movements above this speed

94
Q

When do you contact tower on an RNAV?

A

Intermediate Approach Fix

95
Q

What is the sector entry saying?

A

One is big
Two is small
Threes the biggest of them all

96
Q

How to you do a sector one entry into a hold?

A

Overhead the fix fly outbound for 1/1.5 mins then turn into the hold to intercept the inbound course.

97
Q

How do you do a sector two entry?

A

You fly overhead the fix and into the hold using a 30’ offset for maximum 1.5 mins. Then turn to intercept the inbound track

98
Q

What speed do you fly the hold in the 21 for max endurance?

A

160KIAS clean

99
Q

How do you correct being late or early for a time one target?

A

The number of second you are late is your speed change in KTS and the planned speed for that leg in NM/min is the duration in mins.

12s early on a 240kt leg = 228kts for 4 mins

100
Q

What is the 1:60 rule?

A

1’ error = 1nm error over 60nm

Distance off track / distance to run

101
Q

What is the standard closing angle (SCA)?

A

SCA = 60/nmmin and you hold that for the number of mins you are nm out

3nm out 60/4 = 15’

Hold for 3 mins

Distance out / distance to intercept x 60 = angle

102
Q

How do you calculate drift?

A

Your crosswind component / TAS IN NMmin = drift correction

Clock code for the crosswind component

103
Q

When will the Overspeed Gear/Flap be indicates?

A

183KIAS

104
Q

During an auto start, if the PCL is more than 3’ FWD what will happen.

A

The automatic shutdown and dry run function is disabled and the pilot will have to initiate a shutdown if limits are exceeded

105
Q

Define CAVOK

A

Vis >10km
No significant weather
No TCU or CU
No cloud below 5000ft in 25nm or lowest sector altitude

106
Q

Warning associated with closing the canopy?

A
  • CFS striker plate is unobstructed
  • Visor down, mask on, glove on
  • no pers within 10m of blast area
107
Q

What is the Alternate minima?

A

More than SCT below HAT + 500ft
Vis below that on the chart
Fog/mist

ADF115 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions