Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

My notes - med > Misc 1 > Flashcards

Misc 1 Flashcards

1
Q

APGAR

A

Appearance (blue, pink body, pink everywhere)
Pulse (none, <100, >100)
Grimace(floppy, minimal response to stim, prompt response)
Activity (absent, flexed arms/legs, active)
Resp (absent, slow/irreg, vigorous cry)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

APGAR meanings

A

0-3 v low
4-6 moderate low
7-10 baby is in good state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Menorrhagia tx in trying to get preg

A

tranexamic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Menorrhagia tx if not trying for family

A

IUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Menorrhagia Ix

A

FBC

Transvaginal US if post coital bleeding, pelvic pain/pressure, intermenstrual bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sheehans syndrome

A

Severe PPH causes ischemia to pituitary gland –> hypopituitary –> trouble producing milk + amenorrhea
Test for prolactin and gonadotropin stim tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Causes of galactorrhea

A

hyperprolactinemia
D2 receptor antagonistic meds
pituitary adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PPH RF

A 
prev PPH
prolonged labour
pre eclampsia
>maternal age
polyhydramnios
emergency CS
placenta previa, placenta accreta
macrosomia
ritodrine (beta 2 adrenergic receptor agonist used for tocolysis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

PPH mgmt

A

ABC + 2 periph cannula
IV syntocinon (oxytocin) 10 units OR IV ergometrine 500mcg
IM carboprost
If meds didnt work –> intrauterine balloon tamponade
ligation of uterine arteries or internal iliac arteries
hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Causes of secondary PPH

A

retained placental tissue

endometritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ADHD inattention ft

A
  • doesnt follow through on instructions
  • reluctant to engage in -mentally intense tasks
  • easily distracted
  • finds it difficult to sustain tasks
  • finds it difficult to organize tasks/activities
  • forgetful in daily activities
  • loses things necessary for tasks/activities
  • doesnt seem to listen when spoken to directly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ADHD hyperactivity/impulsivity ft

A
  • unable to play quietly
  • talks excessively
  • doesnt wait their turn easily
  • will spontaneously leave seat when expected to sit
  • often on the go
  • interruptive or intrusive to others
  • answers prematurely, before q finished
  • run and climb in situations where it’s not appropriate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ADHD meds

A

methylphenidate - 6 week trial (acts on dop/norep reuptake inhibitor. SE N/dyspepsia/abdo pain)
Lisdexamfetamine
dexamfetamine
ALL CARDIOTOXIC - do ECG at baseline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

GDM rf

A 
BMI >30
prev macrosomic baby >4.5kg 
prev GDM
1st deg relative w DM
family origin (south asian, black caribbean, middle eastern)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

GDM screening

A

Priod GDM - OGTT asap after booking (12 w) + 24-28w

Other RF - 24-28w

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

OGTT levels GDM

A

Fasting: >5.1

1hr: >10
2hr: >8.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

2 pills missed in week 1

A

emergency contraception if sex during pill-free interval or week 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

2 pills missed in week 3

A

continue as normal and omit the pill free week and add 7 days additional precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Missed 1 pill (any time in cycle)

A

take last pill even if it means 2 in one day

continue as normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

2 pills missed

A

take last pill even if means taking two in one day, continue taking pills daily
take precautions until have taken pills for 7 straight days
W1: emergency contracep if unprotected sex in pill free interval of w1
W2: no need for EC if have taken for 7 consecutive days
W3: finishe pills in pack and start a new pack right away, omit pill free interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ectopic w heartbeat on US

A

salpingectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ectopic preg : expectant management

A

<35mm, unruptured, no HR, asymptomatic and declining HCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Mifepristone

A

termination of intrauterine preg only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ectopic preg Ix

A

transvaginal ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Methotrexate for ectopic if:

A 
<35mm
unruptured
no pain
no heartbeat
bHCG <1500
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Surgical mgmt ectopic if:

A 
>35mm
can be ruptured
pain
HR
>1500 HCG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

RF for developmental dysplasia of hips

A

1st degree fam hx of hip issues in early life
breech presentation at or after 36w (doesnt matter what presentation was at delivery)
Breech pres at delivery if earlier than 36 w

female sex, firstborn, oligohydramnios
birth weight >5kg, congenital calcaneovalgus foot deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Barlow

A

attempt to dislocate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ortolani

A

attempt to relocate a dislocated femoral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

whooping cough tx

A

azithromycin or clarithromycin if onset within 21d

Household contacts given prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Whooping cough ft

A

2-3d coryza
coughing bouts - worse at night + after feeding, cand end w vomit/central cyanosis
apnea spells
inspiratory whoop
persistent cough can lead to subconjuctival hemorrhage or anoxia leading to syncope/seizure
sx can last 10-14 weeks
lymphocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Whooping cough dx criteria

A 
acute cough >14 days with no cause + 1 of these:
paroxysmal cough
inspiratory whoop
post-tussive vom
undx apneic attacks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Whooping cough school

A

keep out until 48h after starting abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Scabies tx

A

permethrin 5%

2nd line: melathion 0.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Crusted Norwegian scabies tx

A

Ivermectin

Pt with immunosuppression, need to isolate them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Acutely painful red eye + reduced visual acuity, photophobia.
Exam: small pupil, pus in anterior chamber

A

Anterior uveitis

Tx: hydrocortisone drops + cycloplegic drops (atropine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Open angle glaucoma tx

A

Dorxolamide - carbonic anhydrase inhibitor to reduce aqueous production

Lantanoprost - prostaglandin analogue increasing uveoscleral outflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Acute angle closure glaucoma

A

IV acetazolamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Anterior uveitits

A

Iris + ciliary body
HLA B27
Pain + red, acute, blurry vision, lacrimation, hypopyon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Anterior uveitis assoc w

A 
Ank spond
Reactive arthritis
UC, Crohn's
Behce't disease
Sarcoidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Entropion

A

eyelid turned inward to lashes rub eyeball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Ectropion

A

out turning of eyelids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Blepharitis

A

Inflammation of eyelid margins, leading to red eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Stye

A

infection of glands of eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Latanoprost

A

open angle glaucoma
prostaglandin analogue
SE: increased eye lashe length, iris pigmentation, periocular pigmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Open angle glaucoma defn

A

Raised intraocular pressure
iris clear of trabecular meshwork
slow, symptomless for a long time
visual field defect, cupping of optic disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Open angle glaucoma Ix

A
  • automated perimetry to assess visual field
  • slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic neve and fundus for a baseline
  • applanation tonometry to measure IOP
  • central corneal thickness measurement
  • gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth
  • Assess risk of future visual impairment, using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, life expectancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

open angle glaucoma tx

A

1: prostaglandin analogue (lantanoprost - increase uveoscleral outflow)
2: BB (timolol - reduce aqueous prod), carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (reduce aqu prod), sympathomimetic (reduce aqu prod, increase outflow)
3: laser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

rapidly worsening painful eczema, fever

A

eczema herpeticum
HSV 1 and 2
more common in those w atopic eczema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Eczema herpeticum tx

A

IV acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

fixed dilated pupil w conjunctival injection

A

acute closed angle glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Acute pain, visual changes, halos in vision

A

acute closed angle glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

segmental conjunctival injection

A

episcleritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

lost red reflex

A

cataracts

retinoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

reduced abduction of eye

A

muscular or neuro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

boundaries of inguinal canal/indirect hernia

A

Inguinal ligament - inf
external oblique - ant
conjoined tendon - sup
transversalis fascia - post

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Hasselbachs triangle - direct hernia

A

RIP
Rectus abdominis (med)
Inferior epigastric vessels (sup/lat)
Pouparts lig (inguinal lig) - inf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Femoral canal borders

A 
FLIP
Femoral vein - lat
Lacunar lig - med
Inguinal lig - sup
Pectineal lig - post
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Femoral triangle - contains fem canal

A

SAIL
Sartorius - lat
Adductor longus - med
Iinguinal Lig - sup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Contents of fem triangle

A

NAVY - lat to med
Nerve
Artery
Vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Nipple inversion

A

normal in many (congenital, weight loss)

No precipitant - breast CA, breast abscess, mammary duct ectasia, mastitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Nipple discharge

A

milky - galactorrhea
Purulent yello/green/brown - mastitis, central abscess, duct ectasia
Watery/blood - DCIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Breast scaling

A

Pagets esp w erythema and pruritis

–>in situ or invasive carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Breast erythema

A

mastitis or abscess
fat necrosis
CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Breast puckering

A

invasion of suspensory ligaments by malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Breast peau d’orange

A

cutaneous lymphatic edema - inflammatory BCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

breast tethering

A

invasive BCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Breast lump description

A 
location
size
shape
consistency (smooth, firm, rubbery)
mobility
fluctuance (cyst v solid)
skin changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Diverticulosis RF

A

Increased age
Low fibre diet
Obesity
NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Diverticulosis Tx

A

Increase Fibre
Bulk forming laxatives (ispaghula husk)
Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Uncomplicated diverticulitis tx

A

oral co-amoxiclav
analgesia (not NSAID)
clear liquids and avoid solid food until sx improve
follow up in 2d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Hospital mgmt diverticulitis

A 
NPO, clear fluids
IV abx
IV fluids
Analgesia
CT scan
Surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Diverticulitis complications

A 
Perforation
Peritonitis
Peridiverticular disease
Hemorrhage
Fistula (colon and bladder or vagina)
Ileus/obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Colorectal CA RF

A 
Fam Hx
FAP (fam adenomatous polyposis)
HNPCC (Lynch syndrome)
IBD
Age
Diet (high red+processed meat, low fibre)
Obesity
Smoking
Alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

CEA

A

predict relapse of colon CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Dukes A

A

confined to mucosa and part of muscle of bowel wall

77
Q

Dukes B

A

extending through muscle of bowel wall

78
Q

Dukes C

A

LN involvement

79
Q

Dukes D

A

mets

80
Q

Tx

A

unable to assess size

81
Q

T1

A

submucosa

82
Q

T2

A

muscularis propria

83
Q

T3

A

subserosa and serosa (outer layer) but not through serosa

84
Q

T4

A

through serosa (4a) reading other tissues/organs (4b)

85
Q

Cholangitis

A

inflam of bile ducts

86
Q

Cholecystitis

A

Inflam gallbladder

87
Q

Choledocholithiasis

A

gallstones in bile duct

88
Q

Raised bilirubin

A

obstruction to flow of bile ducts - jaundice

89
Q

High bili + high ALP + RUQ pain

A

biliary obstruction

90
Q

Causes of raised ALP

A

Liver, bone, biliary system, pregnancy

91
Q

AST + ALT

A

markers of hepatocellular injury

92
Q

Causes of cholangitis

A

obstruction of bile ducts (CBD often) causing inflammation

infection from ERCP

93
Q

Causes of cholecystitis

A

blockage of cystic duct preventing drainage

94
Q

Organisms causing cholangitis

A

E Coli
Klebsiella
Enterococcus

95
Q

high plasma osmolality and low urine osmolality, person thirsty

A

Diabetes insipidus

96
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

poor water resorption by kidneys due to lack of ADH from pituitary or from reduced sinsitivity of kidneys. Can’t concentrate the urine.
Dilute urine

97
Q

Diabetes insipidus test

A

water deprivation test/desmopressin test
No fluid/food x 8h
Norm: increase in urine osmol (ADH working) in response to no H2O in order to maintain plasma osmolarity.
Cranial DI: rise in plasma osmol w low osmol urine until exogenous ADH given
Nephro DI: same but no response to exogenous ADH

98
Q

Causes of cranial DI

A 
idiopathic
head injury
pituitary surgery
craniopharyngiomas
Infx (meningitiss, enceph, TB)
Hemochromatosis
**alcohol binge mimics it
99
Q

Causes of nephrogenic DI

A

genetic
hypercalcemia
hypokalemia
*lithium

100
Q

Nephrogenic DI tx

A

thiazides, low salt/protein diet

101
Q

Cranial DI tx

A

desmopressin

102
Q

Primary polydipsia

A

Normal ADH system but drinking excessive water and having v dilute urine

103
Q

polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, postural hypotension, hypernatremia, high serum osmol w low urine osmol

A

DI

104
Q

Polyuria defn

A

> 3L in 24h

105
Q

tx of anemia in CKD

A

EPO

Kidney is not producing enough EPO itself anymore

106
Q

Testicular torsion

A

Severe and sudden pain
Referred to low abdo
N/V
Swollen, tender testis retracted upwards, red skin
Cremasteric reflex lost
Elevation does NOT ease pain (neg Prehn’s)

107
Q

Epididymal cysts

A

most common scrotal swelling
separate from body of testicle, usually posterior to testis.
Assoc: PKD, CF, von Hippel Lindau

108
Q

Hydrocele

A

accumulation of fluid in tunica vaginalis

communicating (patent processus vaginalis, common in 5-10% newborns) and non-comm (excessive fluid prod. in tunica vag)

109
Q

Hydrocele secondary to:

A

epididymo-orchitis
test torsion
test tumour

110
Q

Hydrocele ft

A

soft, non tender anterior swelling, extends below
Confined to scrotum, can get above it
Transilluminates
hard to palpate testis

111
Q

Hydrocele mgmt

A

Infant: repair if doesn’t resolve by 1-2y
Adults: conservative, Ix, underlying tumour?

112
Q

Varicocele

A

Enlargement of testicular veins
Asymptomatic often
More common left side (>80%)
Bag of worms, decreased subfertility

113
Q

Staghorn calcui comp.

A

Struvite: magnesium ammonium phosphate, triple phosphate

Form in alkaline urine (ammonia producing bacteria)

114
Q

Types of renal stones

A 
Calcium oxalate (40%)
Mixed calcium(25%) ox/phosphate
Triple phosphate
Calcium phosphate
Urate
Cystine stones
Xanthine stones
115
Q

Radio-lucent kidney stones

A

urate

xanthine

116
Q

Semi opaque kidney stones

A

cystine

117
Q

Balanitis xerotica obliterans

A

rare
caused by lichen sclerosis
Itchy, assoc w white plaques and scarring

118
Q

Paraphimosis

A

emergency

retracted foreskin cant be returned to normal position

119
Q

Phimosis

A

foreskin too tight to be pulled back over head of glans penis

120
Q

Balanitis

A

inflammation of glans penis sometimes extending to underside of foreskin

121
Q

Tamsulosin SE

A

dizziness

Postural hypotension

122
Q

BPH RF

A

> 50 (50%)
80 (80%)
Black>white>asian

123
Q

BPH sx

A

Voiding: weak/intermittent stream, straining, hesitancy, dribbling, incomp emptying
Storage: urgency, freq, urg incont, nocturia
Post micturition: dribbling
Comps: UTI, retention, obstructive uropathy

124
Q

BPH tx

A

Watch + wait
Meds: alpha 1 antagonists (tamsulosin, alfuzosin), 5 alpha reductase inhib (finasteride)
Surgery: TURP

125
Q

Alpha 1 antagonists

A

tamsulosin, alfuzosin
decrease smooth muscle tone (prostate, bladder)
dizzy, postural hypotension, dry mouth, depression

126
Q

5 alpha reductase inhibitors

A

finasteride
block testosterone to DHT (which induces BPH)
reduce prostate volume and slows progression
ED, low libido, ejaculation issues, gynecomastia
Can take 6m to work

127
Q

Scan for kidney stones

A

non contrast spiral CT

128
Q

Drugs causing kidney stones

A

Calcium stones: loop diuretics, steroids, acetazolmide, theophylline

129
Q

RF for urate kidney stones

A

gout

ileostomy (loss of bicarb and fluid –> acidic urine)

130
Q

Peds maintenance fluids

A

100ml/kg first 10kg
50ml/kg second 10kg
20ml/kg next kg’s

131
Q

Peds fluid choice

A

.45% NaCl + 5% dextrose

132
Q

Daily fluid req’s

A

25-30ml/kg/day H2O
1mmol/kg/day K and Cl
50-100g/d glucose

133
Q

Adult maintenance

A

25-30ml/kg/d NaCl .18% in 4% glucose w 27mmol/L K

134
Q

Post kidney transplant cancers

A

Squamous cell Ca of skin
Cervical Ca
Lumphoma

135
Q

Renal transplant immuno sup: initial

A

ciclosporin/tacrolimus + monoclonal Ab

136
Q

Renal transplant immuno sup: maintenance

A

ciclosporin/tacrolimus + Micophenolate mofetil or Sirolimus

+/- steroids

137
Q

Ciclosporin

A

inhibits calineurin which is involved in T cell activation

138
Q

Tacrolimus

A

Lowers rejection rate rena trans
HTN and hyperlipidemia
SE: DM

139
Q

Micophenolate mofetil

A

blocks purine synthesis, inhibits B and T cells

SE: GI and marrow suppression

140
Q

Sirolimus (rapamycin)

A

blocks T cell proliferation via IL-2 block

SE hyperlipidemia

141
Q

Monoclonal Ab

A

Inhibit IL-2

daclizumab, basilximab

142
Q

White cell casts in urine, high WCC/IgE/eosinophils

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

143
Q

Acute interstitial nephritis sx

A

fever, rash, arthralgia, eosinophilia, renal impair, HTN

144
Q

Acute interstitial nephritis causes

A 
Drugs
-penicillin
-rifampicin
-NSAID
-allopurinol
-furosemide
Disease
-SLE
-Sarcoidosis
-Sjogren
Infx
-Hanta virus
-Staph
145
Q

Young woman, fever, weight loss, painful red eyes. Urinalysis leuk + protein

A

tubulointerstitial nephritis

146
Q

CKD bone disease

A

low vit D
high phosphate
low Ca (lack of vit D and high phos)
secondary hyperparathyroidism: low Ca, Low D, high phos

147
Q

CKD bone disease manifestations

A 
osteitis fibrosa cystica - hyperparathyroid
reduced cell activity
osteomalacia from low vid d
osteosclerosis
osteoporosis
148
Q

Vomiting electrolyte dist

A

hypo-K
hypo-Cl
met alk - from hydrogen loss

149
Q

Diarrhea electrolyte disturb

A

normal anion gap acidosis

150
Q

Anion gap calc:

A

(Na+K) - (HCO3+Cl)

8-14=normal

151
Q

Normal anion gap or hyperchloremic met acidosis causes:

A 
diarrhea, fistula
renal tubular acidosis
acetazolamide
ammonuim chloride injection
addisons
152
Q

raised anion gal met acid causes

A 
lactate: shock, hypoxia
Ketones: DKA, alcohol
Urate: renal fail
Acid poisoning: salicylates, methanol
5-oxoproline: paracetamol
153
Q

ED tests

A

morning testosterone

If low –> prolactin/FSH/LH

154
Q

SIADH bloods

A

hyponatremia
low serum osmolaliry
high urinary sodium

155
Q

DI bloods

A

Hypernatremia
high serum osmol
Low urine osmol

156
Q

Primary polydipsia bloods

A

norm/low serum Na

normal/low serum osmol

157
Q

Causes of polyuria

A 
diretics/coffee/alcohol
DM
lithium
HF
Hyper-Ca
Hyperthyroid
CKD
Primary polydipsia
Hypo-K
DI
158
Q

CKD w raised albumin:Cr–> tx

A

ACEi (ramipril)

159
Q

when to refer to nephrology for ACR

A

> 70mg alone
30 + hematuria
3-29 + persistent hematuria + RF like low eGFR or CVD

160
Q

Nephrotic syndrome criteris

A

peripheral edema
proteinuria >3 (frothy urine)
Albumin <25
hypercholesterolemia

161
Q

Nephritis syndrome criteria

A

hematuria (micro/macro)
oliguria
proteinuria (<3)
fluid retention

162
Q

reactive arthritis

A

balanitis/urethritis/cervicitis
arthritis
conjunctivitis/iritis

163
Q

Most glomerulonephritis tx

A

steroids

ACEi/ARB

164
Q

Most common nephrotic dx in kids

A

minimal change

165
Q

Most common nephrotic dx in adults

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

166
Q

IgA nephropathy/Bergers

A

primary glomerulonephritis
20’s
IgA deposits + mesangial proliferation

167
Q

Membranous glomerulonephritis

A

20’s and 60’s
IgG + complement deposition in BM
Mostly idiopathic
Can be secondary to malignancy, rheum disorder, drugs (NSAIDs)

168
Q

Post strep glomerulonephritis/ diffuse proliferative

A

<30
1-3 week post strep
nephritis syndrome
full recovery

169
Q

Goodpasture

A

Anti-GBM Ab attach glomerulus + pulmonary BM
Pulm hem + glomerulopephitis
eg AKI + Hemop

170
Q

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

A

crescentic glomerulonephritis
Acutely ill
secondary to goodpastures

171
Q

Causes of CKD

A

HTN
DM
Congenital renal conditions

172
Q

AKI presents w

A

oliguria
anuria
BUN:Cr v high

173
Q

Renal failure disturbances

A

Metabolic acidosis from retained H
Hyperkalemia
In ppl w HF, Pulm Edema, HTN–> periorbital/periph edema
Uremia (N/anorex/bleed)
Uremic pericarditis
Uremic neuropathy(progressive encephalopathy w asterixis)
Liver - increase lipid synthesis (hypertriglyceridemia)
EPO deficiency - anemia

174
Q

Renal osteodystrophy

A

Hyperphosphatemia
Hypocalcemia
Lead to brittle bones, increased PTH–>increased bone breakdown
Deposits in vasculature of phosphate+calcium

175
Q

Prerenal AKI path

A

low blood in –> low blood being filtered –> low GFR –> less excretion of Ur + Cr –> increased BUN:Cr
ALSO RAAS activ–>higher aldosterone–>Na+H2O reabsorbed –> urea reabsorbed
Urine Na low, concentrated (>500osm)

176
Q

Intrarenal AKI path

A

Kidney damade –> cant filter and reabsorb –> less Ur/Cr being reabsorbed –> BUN:Cr <20:1
No Na reabs –> urine Na high –> no water reabs –> urine osmol<300

177
Q

Intrarenal AKI causes

A 
ATN from ischemia from prerenal AKI
Acute interstitial nephritis
Acute glomerulonephritis
Diffuse cortical necrosis
contrast dye
aminoglycosides
cisplatin
heavy metals
myoglobin
hemoglobinuria - hemolytic anemia
178
Q

ATN path

A

insult
oliguric phase (hyperkalemia, uremia, metabolic acidosis)
recovery (hypokalemia, polyuria)
Muddy brown casts w renal tubular epithelial cells

179
Q

Acute interstitial nephritis

A

Inflam of inerstitium over days to weeks
Type 1 or 4 hypersensitivity
Usually meds: NSAID, penicillin, rifampicin, diretics, PPI.
Infx
Autoimmune conditions: Sjogren, sarcoidosis

180
Q

Acute interstitial nephritis sx

A 
fever
rash
hematuria
pyuria
costovertebral tenderness
OR asymptomatic
181
Q

Acute interstitial nephritis labs

A

eosinophilia

Urine: WBC casts, RBC, WBC

182
Q

Acute glomerulonephrtis

A

Inflamm, rapidly progressive glom., hemolytic uremic syndrome

183
Q

Acute glomerulonephritis signs

A

hemolytic anemia
thrombocytopenia
AKI
bloody diarrhea prior

184
Q

Postrenal AKI causes

A

blockage of urine
BPH
Prostate Ca
Kidney stones

185
Q

Postrenal AKI labs

A

Urine osmol low <350

Less fluids reabsorbed

186
Q

Prerenal AKI lab values

A

BUN:Cr >20:1
Urine Na <20
FeNA <1
Urine osmol >500

187
Q

Intrarenal AKI labs

A

BUN:Cr <20:1
Urine Na >40
FeNA >2
Urine osmol <350

188
Q

Postrenal AKI

A

Urine osmol <350

My notes - med (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions