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miniq Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What does sterilisation mean?
A

a. Killing procedure of any kind of germs.

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2
Q
  1. What does disinfection mean?
A

a. Procedure where the number of the germs are reduced to a safety level.

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3
Q
  1. Which parameters can influence the effectivity of the sterilisation?
A

a. The number of the germs, the resistance of the germs, the concentration of the disinfectants, the presence of the organic materials, the initial time, the presence of the biofilm.

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4
Q
  1. Parameters of the hot-air sterilisation cupboard protocol?
A

a. 180°C; 1 hour, 160°C; 2 hours, 140°C; 3 hours.

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5
Q
  1. Parameters of the autoclaving?
A

a. + 1 atm overpressure, 121°C, 20-30 minutes or 134°C, +2 atm overpressure 10 minutes.

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6
Q
  1. Chemical agents used for gas sterilisation?
A

a. Etilene oxide, formaldehyde, beta-propiolacton

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7
Q
  1. The theoretical background of plasma sterilisation
A

a. Hydrogen-peroxide in high electric field will form plasma stage. The produced free radicals will kill the microbes. At the end of the procedure will be produced water, oxygen and other nontoxic products.

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8
Q
  1. Biological method used for checking the effectivity of the sterilisation.
A

By Bacillus/Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores. If the procedure was performed in correct way, the spores cannot be cultivated.

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9
Q

Detection of the presence of pyrogenic material in drugs?

A

LAL test; The blood of the horseshoe crab will coagulate in the presence of the LPS

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10
Q

What are the disinfectants?

A

Chemical agents used on inanimate/non-living surfaces.

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11
Q

What are the antiseptic agents?

A

Chemical agents used disinfection on animate (tissue, skin, mucous membrane) surfaces.

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12
Q

What does serological reaction mean?

A

Reaction based on the antigen-antibody reaction performed in vitro.

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13
Q

What does agglutination mean?

A

Serological reaction where the antigen is cell-mediated

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14
Q

What does precipitation mean?

A

Serological reaction where the antigen is soluble (enzyme, toxin, virus particle)

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15
Q

What are the bacterial cell-surface antigens?

A

O: cell wall
H: flagella
K: capsule

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16
Q

What does antibody titre mean?

A

The highest dilution fold/the lowest antibody concentration where we still see antibody-antigen reaction

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17
Q

What is iatrogenic infection?

A

Infection caused by medial staff during investigation or treatment.

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18
Q

What does noscomial infection mean?

A

Infection occured in hospital 48h after hospitalisation

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19
Q

What are the contents of vaccines?

A
  • Live attenuated microbe
  • killed microbe
  • Toxoid
  • antigens of the microbe
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20
Q

What does the native examination of the microbe mean in microbiology?

A

the microbe is examined without killing procedure.

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21
Q

What kind of information can we got by light microscopically examination? (3 example)

A
  • Shape
  • Size
  • Motility

Also

  • staining
  • accessory information (capsule, spore formation)
  • Formation
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22
Q

Solutions of gram-stain

A
  • Sodium oxalate
  • Crystal violet
  • Iodine
  • Ethanol (96%)
  • Safranin/fucshin
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23
Q

What kind of devices can be used for anaerobic cultivation?

A
  • Anaerostate
  • Gas-pack jar
  • high agar
  • Anaerobic chamber
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24
Q

Definitions:

  1. Bacteriostatic
  2. Bacteriocidal
A
  1. inhibition of bacterial growth

2. killing bacteria

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25
Q

Definitions:

Selective toxicity

A

The antibiotic has an effect only on the bacteria but not the human host

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26
Q

Chemotherapeutic infex

A

dosis tolerata maxima/dosis curative minima

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27
Q
  1. Cell wall synthesis inhibitor antibiotics

2. Glycopeptide antibitoics

A 
Penicilin
Cephalosporin 
Carbapenems 
Glycopeptides: 
 - Vancomycin 
- Teicoplanin
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28
Q

Membrane function alternating antibiotics

A

Polymyxin

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29
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotics

A

(30S)
Aminoglycosides
Tetracycline
()

(60S)
Macrolide
Chlorampenicol
Linezolid

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30
Q

Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor antibiotics

A

Quinolones
Rifampin/Rifampicillin
Sulphoamide
Trimetroprim

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31
Q

Three possible ways of horizontal gene transfer

A
  1. Conjugation (plasmid)
  2. Transduction (bacteriophage)
  3. Transformation (uptake of naked DNA from the environment)
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32
Q

Antibiotic resistance mechanisms are

A
  1. Enzymatic degradation or modification of the antibiotics
  2. efflux pump
  3. modifiying the antibiotic binding site
    (also: not in minimal questions)
    (4. Overproduction of target
  4. Change of membrane permeability)
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33
Q

What does MRSA mean?

A

Methicillin-resistant s.aureus

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34
Q

What does ESBL mean?

A

Extended spectrum of beta-lactamase enzymes

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35
Q

What does MIC mean?

A

Minimal inhibitory (bacteriostatic) concentration of an antobiotic measured in microgram/ml.

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36
Q

What does MBC mean?

A

Minimal bacteriocidal concentration of an antibiotic measured in microgram/ml.

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37
Q

Definitions:

  1. MBL:
  2. MACI:
  3. PACI:
A
  1. MBL: metallo-beta-lactamase
  2. MACI: multi-resistant Acinetobacter
  3. PACI: pan-resistant Acinetobacter
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38
Q

Which 3 vaccines contain capsular polysaccharides?

A
  • Hib (against H.influenzae type B)
  • Prevenar/pneumovax (against 13/23 serotypes of strep.pneumoniae)
  • Meningococcus vaccines (against serotypes ACWY)
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39
Q

What kind of specimen can be sent to the microbiological diagnostic laboratory in the case of typical pneumonia?

A

Sputum and haemoculture

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40
Q

What kind of specimen can be sent to the microbiological diagnostic laboratory in the case of atypical pneumonia?

A

Blood
Urine
Broncho-alveolar lavage.

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41
Q

What kind of bacterial infection can be treated by antitoxin?

A

Infections caused by exotoxins:

  1. tetanus
  2. Botulism
  3. Diphteria
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42
Q

Which bacteria can be differentiated with the catalase test?

A

Staphylococci (+) and Streptococci (-)

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43
Q

Which bacteria can be differentiated with the coagulase test?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (+) and the other staphylococcus species (-, so called „coagulase-negative staphylococci”)

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44
Q

Microscopic morphology of Staphylococci

A

Gram +, arranged in grape-like structures

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45
Q

Colony morphology of Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar plate

A
  • average size,
  • round colonies with butter consistency,
  • golden pigment
    production
  • beta-haemolysis
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46
Q

What are the non-toxic virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus? (3 example)

A
  • Protein A,

Enzymes: (except Leukocidin and haemolysins):

  • endocoagulase (clumping factor),
  • exocoagulase,
  • adhezins,
  • teicoic acid,
  • hialuronidase,
  • protease,
  • lipase,
  • DN-ase.
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47
Q

What are the toxic virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus?

A

a. Leucocidin, toxic shock syndrome toxin, exfoliative toxin, enterotoxin, haemolysin

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48
Q

Diseases caused by Staphylococcus aureus?

A

(1. Suppurative infections)
- Septic arthritis
- Skin:
1. Folliculitis (Min Q)
2. Furuncle (Min Q)
3. Carbuncle (Min Q)
4. Impetigo (Min Q)
5. Cellultis
6. Bullus impetigo
7. Wound infections

(2. Systemic infections)
- Osteomyelitis (Min Q)
- Infective endocarditis
- Pneumonia (Min Q)
- meningitis
- sepsis

(3. toxin-mediated diseases)
- scalded skin syndrome
- toxic shock syndrome
- staph food poisening (Min Q)

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49
Q

Diseases caused by Staphylococcus aureus exotoxins?

A

a. Food poisoning, scalded skin syndrome, toxic shock syndrome

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50
Q

List at least 2 coagulase-negative staphylococcus species (from the list provided below)!

A

S. epidermidis,
S. saprophyticus,
S. haemolyticus,
S. lugdunensis

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51
Q
  1. Diseases caused by coagulase negative staphylococci
A

Nosocomial infections, biofilm production on the surface of plastic devices.

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52
Q
  1. Which bacterium can cause „Honeymoon cystitis”?
A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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53
Q

Colony morphology of Streptococcus pyogenes on blood agar plate

A

small, pin-point colonies, surrounded by large, strong beta-haemolytic zone

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54
Q

Which streptococci show beta-haemolysis?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus agalactiae

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55
Q

Which streptococci show alpha-haemolysis?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae and viridans streptococci (e.g. S. mutans,
S. mitis, S. salivarius)

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56
Q

Which species is the Lancefield group A streptococcus?

A

a. Streptococcus pyogenes

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57
Q
  1. Which species is the Lancefield group B streptococcus?
A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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58
Q

. What is the causative agent of scarlet fever?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes?

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59
Q

Which bacterial virulence factor is the causative agent of scarlet fever?

A

a. Streptococcus pyrogenic exotoxin or erythrogenic toxin

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60
Q

hat is the capsule of S. pyogenes made of?

A

Hyaluronic acid

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61
Q

Disease cause by Streptococcus pyogenes? (3 examples)

A
  1. Pharyngitis
  2. Erysipelas
  3. Cellulitis
  4. Scarlet Fever
  5. Necrotizing fasciitis
  6. TSST
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62
Q

What kind of post streptococcal infections can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?

A

Acute rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis

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63
Q

Which two streptococcus species show 100% penicillin sensitivity still now?

A
  • S.pyogenes

- S.agalactiae

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64
Q

What kind of disease can be caused in new-borns by Streptococcus
agalactiae?

A
  • meningitis
  • sepsis
  • pneumoniae
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65
Q

Microscopic morphology of Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Gram-positive diplococci

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66
Q

How can be prevented the invasive diseases caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

By 23 valent polysaccharide capsule vaccine or by 13 valent conjugated vaccine.

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67
Q

. Which two bacteria can be differentiated based on their optochin sensitivity / resistance?

A

S. pneumoniae (S) and viridans streptococci (R)

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68
Q

What kind of disease can be cause by viridans group streptococci?

A

Dental decay or endocarditis.

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69
Q

Which are the 2 most frequent human pathogenic Enterococcus species?

A

a. E. faecalis and E. faecium

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70
Q

Microscopic morphology of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

a. Gram-negative, non capsulated diplococci

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71
Q

73.What kind of culture media can be used to cultivate Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

a. Chocolate agar or Thayer Martin agar.

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72
Q

Microscopic morphology of Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Gram-negative, capsulated, diplococci.

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73
Q

How can Neisseria meningitidis spread?

A

By respiratory droplets and will colonize the nasopharynx.

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74
Q

What diseases will Neisseria meningitidis cause?

A

sepsis, meningitis, Waterhouse-Frederickson syndrome

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75
Q

What diseases will Neisseria gonorrhea cause?

A

Gonorrhoea, blenorrhoea neonatorum, proctitis, orchitis.

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76
Q

What is the causative agent for Waterhouse-Frederickson?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

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77
Q

What kind of tests can be performed from liquor in case of Neisseria meningitidis infection?

A

Microscopic examination
Gram stainig
latex agglutination

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78
Q

What can be do prophylactic with the contact person who suffering by Neisseria meningitidis infection?

A

Chemoprophylaxis by rifampicin or ciprofloxacin.

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79
Q

What can cause Nesseria gonorrhoeae in newborns?

A

Ophthalmoblenorrhoea neonatorum

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80
Q

Which serotype of Haemophilus influenzae can cause invasive infection?

A

serotype B

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81
Q

How can be prevented the invasive infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae strains?

A

Hib vaccine

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82
Q

What kind of disease can be caused by Haemophillus ducreyi?

A

Ulcus molle

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83
Q

What is the causative agent of whooping cough?

A

Bordetella pertussis.

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84
Q

What are the virulence factor of Bordetella pertussis? (2 examples)

A 
Fimbria, 
Pertactin, 
Pertussis toxin, 
Tracheal cytotoxin, 
Dermatonecrotic toxin.
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85
Q

What is the causative agent of tularemia?

A

Franciella tularensis

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86
Q

What are the causative agents of human brucellosis? (2 examples)

A

B. abortus
B. suis
B. canis
B. melitensis

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87
Q

What are the diseases caused by Bacillus anthracis? (2 examples)

A
  1. pulmonary anthrax
  2. cutaneous anthrax
  3. GI anthrax
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88
Q

What kind of disease can be caused by Bacillus cereus?

A

Food poisening, wound infection

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89
Q

What is the causative agent for pseudomembraneous colitis

A

C.difficile

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90
Q

What bacteria can cause flaccid paralysis?

A

C.botulinum

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91
Q

What kind of bacteria can caused spastic paralysis?

A

C. tetani

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92
Q

What is the treatment of Botulism?

A

polyvalent antitoxin

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93
Q

What is the treatment of pseudomembranosus colitis?

A

vancomycin per os, metronidazole, faecal transplantation

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94
Q

Which bacteria can cause gas gangrene? (2 example)

A

Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium histolyticum, Clostridium septicum.

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95
Q

What is the causative agent of diphtheria?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

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96
Q

How can be detected the toxin of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A

By Elek’s-test, Römer-test (in guinea pig).

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97
Q

What is the treatment of diphtheria?

A

Passive immunisation,
giving antibiotics (penicillin, erythromycin)
artificial ventilation if is necessary.

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98
Q

Which bacteria belong to diphtheroid group? (2 examples)

A

Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum, Corynebacterium ulcerans,
Corynebacterium minutissimum,
Corynebacterium urealyticum.

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99
Q

What are the diseases caused by Listeria monocytogenes?

A

Meningitis, sepsis, granulomatosis infantiseptica.

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100
Q

What are the diseases caused by Listeria monocytogenes in adults?

A

Gastrointestinal symptoms, meningitis, sepsis, endocarditis

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101
Q

What is the treatment of Listeriosis?

A

Ampicillin-gentamicin is the drug of choice.

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102
Q

What is the causative agent of erysipeloid?

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae.

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103
Q

Which bacteria can cause dental decay?

A

Lactobacilli and Streptococcus mutans.

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104
Q

Which bacteria can cause human tuberculosis? (3 examples)

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis,
mycobacterium bovis,
Mycobacterium africanum.

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105
Q

What kind of staining can be used to stain mycobacteria?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen staining.

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106
Q

How long can be cultivated the causative agent of human tuberculosis on Lowenstein-Jensen culture media?

A

6-8 weeks.

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107
Q

How can be prevented the human tuberculosis?

A

By BCG vaccine. (bacillus calmette-guerin)

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108
Q

What are the facultative pathogenic mycobacteria? (2 examples)

A

Mycobacterium avium komplex,
Mycobacterium kansasii,
Mycobacterium marinum,
Mycobacterium ulcerans.

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109
Q

Which mycobacteria is apathogenic?

A

Mycobacterium smegmatis.

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110
Q

What is the causative agent of leprosy?

A

Mycobacterium leprae.

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111
Q

What are the types of leprosy?

A

Tuberculoid and lepromatosus leprosy.

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112
Q

What is the treatment of leprosy?

A

Dapson, clofazamin, rifampicin.

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113
Q

How can Nocardia stain?

A

It is Gram-positive and Ziehl-Neelsen positive

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114
Q

What are the most important Actinomyces species? (1 example)

A

Actinomyces israelii,
Actinomyces naeslundii,
Actinomyces odontolyticus.

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115
Q

Which E. coli can be toxin producer? (3 examples)

A

ETEC, EPEC, EAEC, EIEC, EHEC

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116
Q

What kind of extra intestinal disease can be caused by Escherichia coli

A

Urinary tract infections, neonatal meningitis, sepsis.

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117
Q

What are the causative agent of typhoid fever? (4 examples)

A

Salmonella Typhi and Salmonella Paratyphi A, B, C.

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118
Q

Which bacteria can cause salmonellosis?

A

Salmonella Enteritidis, Salmonella Typhimurium, Salmonella Choleraesuis

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119
Q

What is the causative agent of dysentery? (2 examples)

A

Shigella dysenteriae,
Shigella flexneri,
Shigella sonnei.

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120
Q

Which bacterium is the causative agent of plague?

A

Yersinia pestis.

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121
Q

What is the spreading way of the plague?

A

By the bite of the rat flea, by respiratory droplets.

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122
Q

What are the diseases caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae?

A

Lobar (Friedländer) pneumonia, wound infection, bloodstream infection, urinary tract infection.

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123
Q

What is the causative agent of cholera?

A

Vibrio cholerae

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124
Q

What kind of Vibrio species can cause human diseases? (3 examples)

A

Vibrio cholera,
Vibrio parahaemolyticus,
Vibrio vulnificus.

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125
Q

What are the characteristic biochemical features of P.aerginosa?

A

obligate aerboic, oxidase positive

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126
Q

Colony morphology of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Bacteria can produce water-soluble pigment that stain the culture media, the colonies have grape like smells.

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127
Q

Microscopic morphology of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Gram-negative rod.

128
Q

What are the most frequent diseases caused by Pseudomas aeruginosa?

A

Nosocomial lung infections, wound and blood stream infections.

129
Q

What is the treatment of the diseases cause by Pseudomonas aerginosa?

A

Multiresistant, based on antibiogram

130
Q

What is the most common source of the infection caused by Acinetobacter baumanii?

A

Hospital environment

131
Q

What does MACI mean in microbiology?

A

Multiresistant Acinetobacter baumannii

132
Q

What is the most common source of the infection caused by Stenotrophomonas maltophila?

A

nosocomial lung infection,

sepsis

133
Q

What is characteristic for antibiotic sensitivity of Stenotrophomonas maltophila?

A

Multiresistant

134
Q

How can Legionella pneumophila spread?

A

By aerosol

135
Q

What is the diagnosis of Legionellosis?

A

By serology from blood,

By immune chromatography

136
Q

Which bacterium can cause chronic gastritis or stomach ulcer?

A

Helicobacter pylori.

137
Q

What is the most important cultivable anaerobic member of the normal flora of the large bowel?

A

Bacteroides fragilis.

138
Q

Which genera belongs to the Spirochaetales order?

A

Treponema
Borrelia
Leptospira

139
Q

What are the causative agents of Plaut-vincent angina?

A

Treponema vincentii and Fusobacteria.

140
Q

What is the causative agent of syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum

141
Q

How can syphilis spread?

A

By sexual contact, transplacental,

by blood transfusion and by organ transplantation.

142
Q

What is the first symptom in syphilis?

A

Ulcus durum – painless hard ulcer, enlarged lymph nodes.

143
Q

In which stage of the syphilis can appear rush all over the body?

A

2nd stage

144
Q

In which stages is syphilis contagious?

A

1st and 2nd stages and in the first 2 years of the latency.

At 3rd stage only in utero infections may occure.

145
Q

When can develop neurosyphilis during the infection?

A

In all stages.

146
Q

What is the specific diagnosis of the syphilis?

A

ELISA, TPHA, TPPA (treponema pallidum particle agglutination)

147
Q

When can be used non treponemal serological reactions during the
a. infection?

A
  • RPR and VDRL is used to determine the stages of syphilis
  • To detect the reinfection
  • To control the effectiveness of the therapy
148
Q

What are the non-specific treponemal serological reactions?

A

RPR and VDRL

149
Q

What kind of diseases can be caused by Borrelia?

A

Lyme diseases and relapsing fever

150
Q

How can the Lyme disease spread?

A

By the bite of thick.

151
Q

What are the causative agents of Lyme disease? (2 examples)

A

Borrelia burgdorferi,
Borrelia afzelli,
Borrelia garini

152
Q

What is the causative of epidemic relapsing fever?

A

Borellia recurrentis.

153
Q

What is the vector of Lyme diseases?

A

Tick

154
Q

what is the vector of Borrelia recurrentis

A

Body louse

155
Q

What is the molecular background of relapsing fever?

A

Bacterial antigen changing

156
Q

What is the first symptom of Lyme diseases?

A

Erythema chronicum migrans

157
Q

What is the causative agent of Weil’s diseases?

A

Leptospira ichterohemorrhagiae

158
Q

What are the characteristic properties of the meningitis caused by
a. Leptospira?

A

Serous, non-purulent

159
Q

What is the source of the infection caused by Leptospira?

A

Zoonotic diseases, can spread by the urine of animals.

160
Q

How can the Lyme diseases diagnosed?

A

By serology, ELISA screening test and fro confirmation immunoblot is used.

161
Q

Which bacteria cannot have cell wall?

A

Mycoplasma and ureaplasma

162
Q

Which bacteria can cause atypical pneumoniae?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophila.

163
Q

What is the causative agent of typhus exanthematicus?

A

Rickettsia prowaczekii

164
Q

What is the causative agent of Q-fever?

A

Coxiella burnettii

165
Q

What is the causative agent of parrot fever?

A

Chlamydophila psittaci.

166
Q

What is the causative agent of trachoma?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis, serotype A-C.

167
Q

What kind of disease can be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serotype L1-L3?

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum.

168
Q

What is the effect of the bacterial AB exotoxins?

A

They are: neurotoxins, protein synthesis inhibitors or ion secretion enhancers.

169
Q

What is the effect of the cholera toxin?

A

Increasing of the cAMP, enhancing the ion secretion

170
Q

What are the causative agents of impetigo contagiosa?

A

S.aureus, S.pyogenes

171
Q

What is the causative agent of erysipelas?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

172
Q

What is the causative agent of Trachoma?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis A,B,C

173
Q

What is the causative agent of Ophtalmoblenorrhoea neonatorum?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

174
Q

List 4 capsulated bacteria from the list below!

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus pyogenes, Escherichia coli, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis, Listeria monocytogenes

175
Q

How many percentage of the adults are carrier of Staphylococcus. aureus?

A

20-30%

176
Q

How many different kind (serotype) of capsule can be produced by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

94

177
Q

What is the most common causative agent of community acquired pneumonia?

A

s.pneumoniae

178
Q

What kind of vaccines can be used to prevent invasive diseases caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Prevenar-13: Streptococcus pneumoniae 13 type of capsule conjugated to toxoid – recommended for new-borns and in elderly
b. Pneumovax: Streptococcus pneumoniae 23 type of capsule – recommended for adults and teenagers.

179
Q
  • What are the fungal cell components (3example)?
A

a. Cytoplasmic membrane with ergosterin, cell wall build up by chitin, glucan, or
cellulose.

180
Q
  • Classification the fungi by morphology?
A

Unicelllular or yeast
Multicellular or mould
Dimorphic

181
Q
  • Characterisation of the dimorphic fungus
A

They grow like moulds at room temperature and grow like yeast at body temperature

182
Q
  • List at least two asexual spore types
A

Blastopore
Conidia
Arthrospore
Spherule

183
Q
  • What is the cultivation temperature of the fungi?
A

25 degree celcius or 37 degree celcius to detect the dimorphism.

184
Q
  • What kind of culture media can be used to cutivate fungi?
A

Sabouraud culture media

185
Q
  • What are the content (2 examples) of Sabouraud culture media?
A
  • Antifungal agents against environmental moulds
  • carbohydrates
  • antibiotics
186
Q

*What kind of disease can be caused by fungi?

A
  • allergic reactions
  • intoxications
  • mycosis (tissue damage of fungi)
187
Q

*Classification of the mycosis?

A 
Superficial,
Cutaneous,
Subcutaneous, 
Systemic, 
Opportunistic mycosis
188
Q

*What kind of staining can be used in mycology? (2 examples)

A 
Gram
Methylene blue 
India ink 
PAS 
Gömöri-Grocott staining
189
Q

*Mode of action of the antifungal drugs?

A
  • Inhibition of ergosterin synthesis,
  • Pore formation on membrane,
  • Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis,
  • inhibition of cell division
190
Q

*List three causative agent of systemic mycosis

A

coccidioides immitis
Histoplasma capsulatum
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Paracoccoidoides immitis (mener de brasiliensis?)

191
Q

*List two candida species

A
  • Candida albicans
  • C. tropicalis
  • C. krusei
  • C. glabrata
  • C. parapsilosis
192
Q

*List three causative agent of opportunistic mycosis

A
  • candida sp
  • cryptococcus neoformans
  • pneumocystic jirovecii
  • aspergillus sp
  • penicillum sp
  • mucor sp.
  • rhizopus sp.
193
Q

*Which fungus can cause subcutaneous mycosis?

A

sporothrix shenkii

194
Q

*what is the most common causative agent of superficial mycosis?

A

malassezia furfur

195
Q

*List two causative agents of dermatomycosis

A
  • trichopyton sp
  • microsporum sp.
  • epidermophyton sp
196
Q

*What kind of diseases can be caused by dermatophytes? (3 examples)

A
  • tinea pedis
  • T.manus
  • T.capitis
  • T.corporis
  • T. faciei
  • T. barbae
197
Q

*List two trichophyton species

A
  • trichphyton rubrum
  • t. schonleinii
  • t. tonsurans
  • t. verrucosum
198
Q

*What are the source of the infection caused by dermatophytes?

A
  • Anthropophilic - human
  • Geophilic - soil
  • Zoophilic - animal
199
Q

*What are the development stages of the protozoa?

A

Trophozoit and cyst

200
Q

*What are the properties of the trophozoit?

A

Can move, feed, multiply and die

201
Q

*What are the properties of the cyst?

A

Is responsible for surviving in unfavourable environment, not showing biochemical activity is a dormant structure

202
Q

*How can the protozoa be classified?

A

By the type of movement:

  • amoeba
  • ciliate
  • flagellate
  • sporozoa
203
Q

*List two amoebas

A
  • Entamoeba sp
  • Acantamoeba sp
  • Naegleria sp
204
Q

*What is the causative agent of amoebic dysentery?

A

Entaemoeba histolytica

205
Q

*What can entomoeba histolygica cause?

A
  • amoebic dysentery

- liver, lung and brain abscess

206
Q

*What is the causative agent of primary amoebic meningoencephalitis?

A

Naegleria fowleri

207
Q

*What is the causative agent of amoebic keratitis?

A

Acanthamoeba castellani

208
Q

*Which protozoa can cause steatorrhea?

A

Giardia lamblia

209
Q

*What is the treatment of giardiasis?

A

Metronidazole

210
Q

*Which protozoon can cause prosteatitis?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

211
Q

*Which protozoon can spread by sexual contact?

A

trichomonas vaginalis

212
Q

*which protozoa can spread by the bite of a sand fly?

A

Leishmania sp

213
Q

*What kind of disease can be caused by Leishmania sp?

A

cutan, mucocutan and visceral leishmaniosis

214
Q

*How can leishmaniosis diagnose?

A

Giemsa-staining of biopsied material

215
Q

*Treatment of leishmaniosis?

A

Stibogluconate in combination with g-IFN and amphotericin-B

216
Q

*What are the causative agent of Human African Trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)?

A
  • Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

- Trypanosoma brucei rhodensiense

217
Q

*How can be sleeping sickness spread?

A

By the bite of tsetse fly

218
Q

*What are the symtoms of sleeping sickness?

A

Letargy, meningoencephalitis, dementia, somnolence, coma

219
Q

*What is the treatment of sleeping sickness?

A

Suramin, melarsoprol

220
Q

*What is the causative agent of Chagas disease?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

221
Q

*How can spread the Chagas disease?

A

By the feces of the kissing bug dyring the bite

222
Q

*What is the treatment of Chagas disease?

A

Nifurtimox, the chronic stage is untreatable

223
Q

*What kind of disease can be caused by cryptosporidium parvum?

A

Watery diarrhea which lasts t 1-2 week

224
Q

*What is the treatment of cryptosporidiosis?

A

oral rehydration

225
Q

*What is the final host of toxoplasma gondii?

A

cats

226
Q

*In which population can toxoplasma cause serious disease?

A

in pregnant women and in immunocompromised population

227
Q

*what is the treatment of toxoplasmosis?

A

spiramycin, pyrimethamine combined with sulphonamide

228
Q

*How can malaria spread?

A

By the bite of Anopheles mosquito, transplacental and by transfusion

229
Q

*What are the symtoms of malaria? (4 symtoms)

A
  • periodic high fever
  • chills
  • headache
  • pain in joints and muscle
  • anaemia
  • hepato and splenomegaly
  • kidney failure
230
Q

*How can malaria diagnose?

A
  • blood: thick droplet, thin film stained by Giemsa, IF, PCR
231
Q

*What is the treatment of malaria?

A
  • Chloroquine
  • Mefloquine and artemisin
  • Hypnozoites by primaquine
232
Q

*Prevention of malaria by chemoprophylaxis?

A

Chloroquine, mefloquine, doxycycline

233
Q

*Prevention of malaria by vaccine?

A

Available vaccine since 2018 against plasmodium falciparum. The content of the vaccine is a fusion protein.

234
Q

*How can Balantidium coli spread?

A

By fruits, vegetable contaminated by big manyre or by fecal-oral route

235
Q

*What are the symtoms of balantidiasis?

A

Dysentery with abdominal pain, tenesmus.

236
Q

*Treatment of balantidiasis?

A

Metronidazole, tetracycline.

237
Q

*Classification of the helminths by morphology?

A

Flatworms: flukes and tapeworms; roundworms

238
Q

*What are the most characteristic properties of the flukes? (3 examples)

A

they are short, flat, leaf shaped, hermaphrodites, do developed digestive systems

239
Q

*What is the most common intermediate host of the flukes?

A

water snail

240
Q

*What is the causative agent of fascioliasis?

A

Fasciola hepatica

241
Q

*What is the treatment of fascioliasis?

A

Bithionol or triclabendazole

242
Q

*What is the causative agent of the lung fluke disease?

A

Paragonimus westermani

243
Q

*What are the symtoms of paragonimiasis?

A

night weats, fever, bloody sputum, chest pain, pleuritis, bronchopneumonia?

244
Q

*What us the treatment of paragonimiasis?

A

Praziquantel or bithionol

245
Q

*What are the blood flukes?

A

Schistosoma mansoni,
S. japonicum
S. haematobium

246
Q

*What flukes can live in the intestinal venules?

A

Schistosoma mansoni and Schistosoma japonicum

247
Q

*Which fluke can live in the bladder venules?

A

Schistosoma haematobium

248
Q

*What is the treatment of schstosomiasis?

A

Praziquantel

249
Q

*What is the intermediate host of taenia saginata?

A

Cattle

250
Q

*What is the intermediate host of taenia solium?

A

Pig

251
Q

*What kind of human diseases can be caused by taenia solium (2 examples)?

A

Tape work infection and cysticerus cellulosae

252
Q

*What is the treatment of taeniasis?

A

Niclosamide, mebendazole (?)

253
Q

*What is the causative agent of fish tapeworm disease?

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

254
Q

*What is the treatment of diphyllobothriasis?

A

Niclosamide

255
Q

*Which vitamine deficiency can cause by diphyllobothrium latum?

A

The lack of B12

256
Q

*How can hymenolepsis nana infection treated?

A

Niclosamide

257
Q

*Which helminths can develop hydatid cycsts?

A

Echinococcus granulosus

Echinococcus multilocularis

258
Q

*How can be hydatid cysts treated?

A

By albendazole or surgical removing

259
Q

*Which helminths can cause itchiness in anus?

A

Enterobius vermicularis

260
Q

*How can be treated the infection caused by enterobius vermicularis?

A

by mebendazole

261
Q

*How can be diagnosed the infection caused by Enterobius vermicularis?

A

by sticky tape or scotch tape

262
Q

*Which helminth can cause diarrhea by prolapses of rectum?

A

Trichuris trichiura

263
Q

*Which helminth can cause protein deficiency? (Kwashiorkor syndrome)

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

264
Q

*Which helminths can suck blood?

A

Ancylostoma duodenale

Necator americanus

265
Q

*What is the treatment of the infection caused by Ancylostoma and Necator?

A

Mebendazole and albendazole

266
Q

*Which helminth can cause paralytic ileus?

A

Strongyloides stercoralis?

267
Q

*What kind of human disease can be caused by Toxocara canis?

A

Visceral larva migrans and ocular larva migrans syndrome

268
Q

*What kind of specimen can be used to diagnose the toxocara infection?

A

Blood for serology

269
Q

*What kind of helminthic infection can spread from carnivore animals to humans?

A

Trichinella spiralis

270
Q

*What is the diagnosis of trichinellosis?

A

Serology from blood

271
Q

*What is the treatment of the Trichinella infection?

A

Mebendazole, Albendazole and can acts only on intestinal helminths

272
Q

*What is the causative agent of lymphatic filariasis, elphantiasis?

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

273
Q

*How can elephantiasis spread?

A

By mosquito bite?

274
Q

*What is the treatment of filariasis?

A

Diethylcarbamazin

275
Q

*Which helminth can appear in subconjunctival region?

A

Loa-loa

276
Q

*Which helminth can cause river blindness and elephant skin?

A

Onchocerca volvulus

277
Q

What kind of disease can be caused by adenoviruses? (3 examples)

A

Pharyngitis, pneumonia, pertussis syndrome, pharyngoconjuctival fever, acute haemorrhagic cystisis, gastroenteritis

278
Q

How can parvovirus spread?

A

By respiratory droplets

279
Q

What kind of disease can be caused by parvoviruses? (3 examples)

A

Erythema infectiosum
Hydrops fetalis
Aplastic anaemia

280
Q

What kind of diseases can be caused by high-risk group papillomaviruses?

A

Cervix cancer

tumor in oral cavity

281
Q

What kind of diseases can be caused by low-risk group papillomaviruses?

A

conduloma acuminatum, warts

282
Q

What can JC and BK viruses cause? (1 example)

A

JC: progressive multifocal leucopathia (PML)
BK: haemorrhagic cystitis and nephropathy

283
Q

What can HHV1 (herpes simplex virus 1) cause?

A 
Herpes labialis
Herpes simplex dermatitis
Eczema herpeticum 
Herpes gladiatorym 
Herpetic whitlow
284
Q

What can HHV2 (Herpes simplex vrus 2) cause?

A

Herpes genitalis
Neonatal herpes
Encephalitis

285
Q

How can HHV1 and HHV2 infections treated?

A

By acyclovir

286
Q

What can VZV (varicella zooster virus) cause?

A

Chickenpox and shingles

287
Q

How can chickenpox prevented?

A

By vaccine (live attenuated)

288
Q

What can EBV (Epstein Barr virus) cause?

A

Mononucleosis infectiosa
Burkitt lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Oral hairy leucoplakia

289
Q

What can CMV (cytomegalovirus) cause?

A 
hepatitis
pancreatitis
pneumonitis
nephritis
myocarditis
encephalitits
chorioretinitis
eosophaitis
colitis
congenital infections
290
Q

What can HHV-6 cause?

A

Encephalitis
Pneumonitis
Chorioretinitis
Exanthema subitum or roseola infantum

291
Q

What can HHV-7 cause?

A 
Encephalitis
Flaccid paralysis
Hepatitis
Gastritis
Lymphadenopathy
Diarrhea
Pityriasis rosea
292
Q

What can HHV-8 cause?

A

Kaposi-sarcoma, lymphoma

293
Q

How can hepatitis B virus spread?

A

by parenteral way, by sexual contact or perinatal

294
Q

How can hepatitis B virus infection treated?

A

by interferon, by nucleotide analogues

295
Q

How can Molluscum contagiosum virus spread and what can cause?

A

by direct contact and cause benign tumor of the skin

296
Q

What can poliovirus cause?

A

aseptic meningitis, poliomyelitis, post-polio syndrom

297
Q

What can coxsackie A and B viruses cause?

A

A:

  • herpangina
  • hand-foot-mouth disease
  • acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis

B:

  • Pleurodynia or Bronholm disease
  • myocarditis
  • pancreatitis
298
Q

What can rhinoviruses cause?

A

sore throat, running nose, coughing

299
Q

how can hepatitis A virus spread?

A

by faecal oral route, by contaminated food, by contaminated water

300
Q

How can Caliciviruses spread and what can cause?

A

by faecal oral route, by contaminated water, by aerosol. Can cause diarrhea vomiting

301
Q

How can rotaviruses spread and what can cause?

A

by faecal-oral route and can cause diarrhea and vomiting

302
Q

How can hepatitis E virus spread and what can cause?

A

by contaminated water, by raw pig and boar meat, rarely by blood transfusion and transplacental.
Can cause acute hepatitis.

303
Q

How can spread the causative agent of yellow fever?

A

by mosquito bite from human to human or from monkey to human.

304
Q

How can hepatitis C virus spread?

A

by parenteral way, by blood, by tattooing.

305
Q

Which population is at risk during Rubella virus infection?

A

Pregnant women because can cause in-utero infections (congenital rubella syndrome)

306
Q

How can influenaza viruses spread and what can cause (3 examples)?

A
  • by respiratory droplets.

Symptoms: high fever, fatigue, muscle pain, headache, sometimes GI symptoms.

307
Q

How can Morbilivirus virus and what can cause?

A

by respiratory droplets and can cause measles with exanthemas and Koplic spots.

308
Q

What kind of complication may develop during measles?

A

Pneumonia, encephalitis and SSPE: subacute sclerotizing panencephalitis

309
Q

How can Mumpsvirus spread and what are the symtoms?

A

by respiratory droplets.
Symtoms:
- inflammation of salivary gland, pancreatisis, orchitis, deafness.

310
Q

What is the causative agent of rabies?

A

Lyssa virus

311
Q

How can rabies prevented?

A

by vaccine administered post exposure

312
Q

What is the treatment of HIV infection?

A

By combination of nucleotide analogue and protease inhibitors

313
Q

How can HTLV-1 spread?

A

By sexual contact, by blood and transplacental or by breastfeeding

314
Q

How can Dengue-fever virus spread?

A

by mosquito bite

315
Q

List two members of Flaviviruses

A

Yellow-fever virus
Dengue-fever virus
Tick-born encephalitis virus
Zika-virus

316
Q

What does arbovirus mean?

A

Arthropod born viruses

317
Q

List two diseases caused by prions

A

Kuru
Fatal familiar insomnia
Creutzfeldt-Jacob syndrome
Bovine Spongiform encephalitis

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