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AET 310- Pathophysiology > Midterm review: Chapters 1-12 > Flashcards

Midterm review: Chapters 1-12 Flashcards

1
Q

What is an adipoctye?

A

a type of fat cell that is metabolically active, and a modified fibroblast

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2
Q

where is ghrelin released?

A

the stomach and it may stimulate appetite and eating

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3
Q

What is leptin? Where is it released?

A

a hormone that is released from adipoctyes and suppressed the hypothalamic feeding centre.

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4
Q

how does brown fat differ from white fat?

A

it is thermogenic- can produce heat.

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5
Q

is it true that the number of fat cells is fixed in early childhood?

A

no

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6
Q

what does the hormone cholecystokinin do?

A

released by small intestine to aid in digestion and induce satiety

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7
Q

true or false:
more than 90% of body energy is stored in the skeletal muscle tissue of the body.

A

false

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8
Q

what is a condition of malnutrition, representing a progressive loss of muscle mass and fat stores due to inadequate food intake that is deficient in calories and protein?

A

marasmus

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9
Q

true or false: the satiety centres reside in the hypothalamus

A

true

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10
Q

both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa involve weight fluctuations that may drop to dangerously low levels.

A

fase

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11
Q

what is the orderly, stepwise process for stopping bleeding that involves vasospasm, formation of platelet plug, and the development of a fibrin clot?

A

hemostasis

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12
Q

what is decrease in circulating platelets?

A

thrombocytopenia

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13
Q

what is produced by endothelial cells of blood vessels and circulates in the blood as a carrier protein of coagulation facto VIII

A

Von Willebrand factor (vWF)

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14
Q

what causes proliferation and maturation of megakaryocytes?

A

thrombopoietin

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15
Q

what are large fragments from the cytoplasm of bone marrow cells known as megakaryocytes?

A

thrombocytes (aka platelets)

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16
Q

what is the plasma protein that when activated, is converted to an enzyme capable of digesting fibrin strands of the clot?

A

plasminogen

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17
Q

true or false:
bleeding can occur as a result of decreased number of circulating platelets or because of impaired platelet function?

A

true

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18
Q

what are the five stages of hemostasis?

A

vessel spasm
vWF binds to platelet receptors causing adhesion of platelets to exposed collagen fibers
one of two blood coagulation pathways occur leading to activation of factor X
actin and myosin in platelets that are trapped in clot begin to contract
clot dissolution

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19
Q

what factors cause increased platelet function?

A

smoking, atherosclerosis, hypercholesterolemia

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20
Q

true or false:
platelets are a form of leukocyte.

A

false

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21
Q

what fat soluble vitamin is continuously being synthesized by intestinal bacteria and is necessary for normal activity for factors VII, IX, and X and prothrombin?

A

Vitamin K

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22
Q

What term is used to describe elevations in the platelet count above 1,000,000uL?

A

thrombocytosis

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23
Q

true or false:
most of the coagulation factors are proteins synthesized in the spleen.

A

false: synthesized in the liver.

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24
Q

true or false:
the use of aspirin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs has been identified as a cause of impaired platelet function.

A

true

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25
Q

true or false:
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune disorder that results in excess destruction of platelets.

A

true

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26
Q

What does the extracellular fluid compartment contain?

A

fluid in the interstitial space and the plasma in blood vessels

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27
Q

true or false:
osmosis refers to the movement of water molecules from a stronger to a weaker solute/

A

false: water moves from a weaker solute to a stronger solute.

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28
Q

if a red blood cell is placed in a hypotonic solution. What will happen to the cell?

A

the red blood cell will swell and potentially burst.

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29
Q

what causes an increase in capillary permeability?

A

inflammation

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30
Q

what causes hyponatremia?

A

a loss of a sodium or a gain of water

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31
Q

what is an acid?

A

a compound that can dissociate and release a hydrogen ion. an example is H2CO3.

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32
Q

how does respiratory acidosis present?

A

with a lower than normal pH and hypercapnia

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33
Q

true or false:
the extracellular compartment contains approximately two thirds of the body water in healthy adults and is the larger of the two compartments.

A

false: the intracellular fluid compartment is the larger of the two compartments

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34
Q

what refers to the movement of water molecules through capillary pores into the tissues due to hydrostatic pressure?

A

capillary filtration pressure

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35
Q

what plays a role in the maintenance of acid-base balance within the body?

A

the kidneys, lungs, and extracellular fluid.

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36
Q

true or false:
the sympathetic nervous system manifestation of the stress reaction has been called fight-or-flight response.

A

true

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37
Q

true or false:
the alarm stage is the third stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS).

A

false: it is the first stage.

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38
Q

true or false:
the stress response is strongly influenced by both the nervous system and endocrine system.

A

true

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39
Q

true or false:
nutrition, gender, and sleep-wake cycles are known to affect a person’s appraisal of a stressor and the coping mechanisms used to adapt to the new situation.

A

true

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40
Q

what is the state that refers to the reexperiencing of an event through the occurrence of “flashbacks” during waking hours or nightmares in which the past traumatic event is relived?

A

intrusion

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41
Q

what is the personality characteristic that includes having a purpose in life, having control of one’s environment, and being able to conceptualize stressors as a challenge, rather than a threat?

A

hardiness

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42
Q

What is the ability of the body systems to increase their function given the need to adapt known as?

A

physiologic reserve

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43
Q

Which area of the brain is central to the neural component of the neuroendocrine response to stress and is densely populated with neurons that produce norepinephrine?

A

the locus ceruleus

44
Q

why does cortisol production result in increased blood glucose levels?

A

glucose provides energy

45
Q

which hormones are involved in the neuroendocrine response to stress?

A

antidiuretic hormone, aldosterone, adrenocorticotrophic hormone

46
Q

what is grading of a tumor?

A

the process in which a tumor involves the microscopic examination of cancer cells to determine their level of differentiation and the number of mitoses.

47
Q

what term is used to describe the development of a secondary tumor in a location distant from the primary tumor

A

metastasis

48
Q

true or false:
both benign and malignant tumors are composed of parenchymal cells and connective tissue.

A

true

49
Q

what is a benign tumor?

A

a growth with well differentiated cells and a fibrous capsule.

50
Q

what is a malignant tumor?

A

a cancer with poorly differentiated cells and the ability to metastasize.

51
Q

what is a solid tumor?

A

a cancer that is initially confined to a specific tissue or organ.

52
Q

what is a hematologic tumour?

A

a cancer involving blood-forming cells.

53
Q

what is a sarcoma?

A

a cancer that arises from transformed cells of mesenchymal (connective tissue) origin such as fat, blood vessels, nerves, bones, muscles, deep tissues and cartilage.

54
Q

what is a carcinoma?

A

a cancer that arises in epithelial cells that make up the skin or the tissue lining organs, such as the liver or kidneys

55
Q

what is initiation stage of tumor cell transformation?

A

the exposure of cells to doses of a carcinogenic agent that induce malignant transformation

56
Q

what is the promotion stage of tumor cell transformation?

A

induction of unregulated accelerated growth by various chemicals and growth factors; mutated cells are stimulated to divide.

57
Q

what is the progression stage of tumor cell transformation?

A

the process whereby tumor cells acquire malignant phenotypic changes; tumor cells compete with one another and develop more mutations, which make them more aggressive.

58
Q

true or false:
stem cells are undifferentiated cells that have the capacity to generate multiple cell types.

A

true

59
Q

what type of tissues contain cells that normally stop dividing with growth ceases?

A

stable

60
Q

what is cell proliferation?

A

the process of increasing cell numbers

61
Q

what is cell differentiation?

A

the process whereby a cell becomes more specialized.

62
Q

true or false:
inflammation has no role to play in tissue repair and healing

A

false

63
Q

true or false:
tissue repair only takes the form of regeneration

A

false

64
Q

what are cell types cardiac myocytes?

A

differentiated and parenchymal cells

65
Q

where is fibroblast growth factor secreted and what does it do?

A

it is secreted by macrophages, endothelial cells, and other tissues to attract fibroblasts to the area, and induce angiogenesis.

66
Q

what are the phases of wound healing?

A
  1. inflammation, proliferation, remodelling
67
Q

what is granulation tissue?

A

red, moist connective tissue that fills an area as necrotic debris is removed

68
Q

true or false:
the genetic information needed for protein synthesis is encoded in the DNA contained in the cell nucleus

A

true

69
Q

which type of RNA moves from the nucleus into the cytoplasm, carrying the genetic code?

A

messenger RNA (mRNA)

70
Q

how many bases make up the alphabet of the genetic code?

A

four: T/C/A/G

71
Q

what makes up a nucleotide?

A

phosphate group, deoxyribose sugar, one of four nitrogenous bases.

72
Q

true or false:
RNA and DNA have the same chemical structure.

A

false: RNA contains nitrogenous base uracil

73
Q

true or false:
Messenger RNA carries the instructions for protein synthesis.

A

true

74
Q

what involves copying of the genetic code containing the instructions for protein synthesis from DNA to a complementary strand of mRNA?

A

transcription

75
Q

what refers to the recognizable traits, physical or biochemical, associated with the genes carried by the organism?

A

phenotype

76
Q

what type of RNA functions to deliver the activated form of amino acids to protein molecules in the ribosomes?

A

transfer RNA

77
Q

within the confines of the cell nucleus, DNA helices are tightly coiled into chromatin and the DNA is spooled around what type of protein?

A

histone

78
Q

what is recombinant DNA?

A

a combination of DNA molecules that are normally not found together in nature.

79
Q

what are genes?

A

a sequence of DNA

80
Q

what is it called when something turns a gene on?

A

induction

81
Q

what is it called when something turns a gene off?

A

repression

82
Q

what are epigenetics?

A

the study of changes in an organism due to changes in gene express, not changes to DNA itself.

83
Q

what are examples of causes epigenetics?

A

growth/development, drugs/chemicals, environment, aging, diet, exercise.

84
Q

what are variant/alternate forms of a gene, usually created by mutations?

A

alleles

85
Q

what is CRISPR/Cas9?

A

a protein/synthetic guide RNA complex that can be designed to target and cut genetic material very precisely

86
Q

true or false:
if a gene is induced where it should be repressed, the result can be injury to the tissue.

A

true: while each chromosome contains the same genetic material, the same genes are not activated for every cell. for example, if a gene responsible for a digestive enzyme were to be induced in the lung, the result would be digestion of lung tissue, which would result in significant tissue/organ damage.

87
Q

true or false:
mitosis results in the formation of gametes (reproductive cells).

A

false:
mitosis replicates nongerm cells, like red blood cells and epithelial cells. it occurs during growth, replacement, or repair.

88
Q

true or false:
when recombinant insulin is produced by gene isolation and cloning, the bacterial gene for insulin is expressed to make insulin protein.

A

false: human gene is expressed. The insulin gene is cut from human chromosomes and then inserted into bacterial plasmid DNA. Bacteria are induced to express the human insulin gene to make human insulin protein.

89
Q

true or false:
cells are able to adapt to changes in work demands or threats to survival by changing their size, number and type.

A

true

90
Q

what refers to an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue?

A

hyperplasia

91
Q

what type of calcification is often seen in advanced atherosclerosis?

A

dystrophic calcification

92
Q

true or false:
apoptotic cell death and necrotic cell death are both pathologic forms of cell death that are unregulated and invariably injurious to the cell organism.

A

false: apoptosis is programmed cell death

93
Q

true or false:
all mechanisms of cell injury (hypoxia, mechanical forces, extremes of temp, electrical injuries, etc.) lead to irreversible cellular damage with cell destruction or death.

A

false

94
Q

what refers to a decrease in the size of cells in an organ or tissue?

A

atrophy

95
Q

cell injury caused by electrocution is an example from what type of agent?

A

physical

96
Q

what are the different types of agents that cause cell injury?

A

biologic, chemical, physical, radiation

97
Q

if a clot prevents oxygen from being delivered to the myocardium, what is the primary mechanism that could lead it irreversible cell damage?

A

hypoxic cell injury

98
Q

what part of the term pericarditis indicates that this is a condition of inflammation?

A

-itis

99
Q

which condition results in the most rapid increase in neutrophil count in the blood stream?

A

bacterial infection

100
Q

what are the phases of fever?

A

prodrome
chill
flush
defervescence

101
Q

what cells protect cells from exogenous and endogenous inflammatory stimuli?

A

endothelial cells

102
Q

what cells are released in allergic reactions such as hay fever and asthma?

A

eosinophils

103
Q

what cells participate in inflammation and normal immune function; differentiate into T and B cells.

A

lymphoctyes

104
Q

what phagocyte is active in bacterial killing; especially important in maintaining the chronic inflammatory process?

A

macrophage

105
Q

what are the stages of acute inflammation?

A

vascular phase
margination
migration
leukocyte activation
phagocytosis

AET 310- Pathophysiology (4 decks)

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