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AET 310- Pathophysiology > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

Rank the following lipoproteins from lowest % of protein (1) to highest (4):
VLDL
Chylomicrons
LDL
HDL

A
  1. Chylomicron
  2. VLDL
  3. LDL
  4. HDL
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2
Q

What provide stability and hydrophilicity to lipoprotein particles for their carriage into the bloodstream?

A

Apolipoproteins

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3
Q

What is the major apolipoprotein associated with LDL particles?

A

apoB-100

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4
Q

what lipoproteins transfer cholesterol from the liver to other tissues in the body?

A

VLDL and LDL

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5
Q

What lipoprotein transfers cholesterol from the intestine to the liver?

A

Chylomicron

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6
Q

What category of hypertension is characterized by chronic elevation in blood pressure that results from some other disorder, such as kidney disease?

A

secondary

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7
Q

What is primary hypertension?

A

also known as essential hypertension; the chronic elevation in blood pressure occurs without evidence of other disease conditions

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8
Q

what percentage of primary hypertension accounts for the cases of hypertensin?

A

90-95%

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9
Q

What is a normal range of systolic blood pressure?

A

<120mmHg

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10
Q

what are prehypertensive ranges of systolic blood pressure?

A

120-139mmHg

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11
Q

what is the range of stage 1 hypertension?

A

140-169mmHg

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12
Q

What is the range of stage 2 hypertension?

A

> 160mmHg

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13
Q

True or False:
Orthostatic hypertension is an abnormal rise in blood pressure that occurs when assuming the standing position from that of the supine position.

A

false

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14
Q

The ________ of the vessel walls controls the transfer of molecules across the vascular wall, plays a role in platelet adhesion and blood clotting, and functions in the modulation of blood flow and vascular resistance.

A

Endothelium

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15
Q

What are the neural mechanisms that regulate blood pressure?

A

baroreceptors and chemoreceptors

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16
Q

What are the humoral mechanisms that regulate blood pressure?

A

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism and vasopressin

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17
Q

Neural mechanisms and humoral mechanisms are examples of ______-term regulation of blood pressure.

A

short

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18
Q

true or false:
The initial insult that begins the formation of an atherosclerotic plaque is irritation/dysfunction of endothelial cells that results in adhesion of monocytes and platelets to the vessel wall

A

true

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19
Q

true or false:
the heart extracts and uses 60-80% of oxygen in blood flowing through the coronary arteries

A

true

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20
Q

true or false:
atherosclerosis is by far the most common cause of coronary heart disease

A

true

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21
Q

what term refers to a pathologic narrowing of a valve?

A

stenosis

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22
Q

what is a cardiomyopathy?

A

disorder of the heart muscle that is usually associated with disorders of myocardial performance and that may be mechanical or electrical in nature

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23
Q

what cardiac disorder represents the LOWEST immediate threat to the individual concerned?
1. STEMI
2. NSTEMI
3. Unstable angina
4. Stable angina

A
  1. stable angina
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24
Q

what cardiac biomarkers can be used to diagnose an acute coronary syndrome event?

A

creatine kinase MB
cardiac troponin T
cardiac troponin I

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25
Q

true or false:
the endothelins are potent vasodilators that are released from the endothelial cells throughout the circulation

A

false

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26
Q

true or false:
myocardial hypertrophy is a long-term mechanism by which the heart compensates for increased workload.

A

true

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27
Q

true or false:
major complications of circulatory shock include pulmonary injury, acute kidney injury, gastrointestinal ulceration, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome.

A

true

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28
Q

what side of the heart, in hear failure, causes blood to back up in the systemic circulation, causing peripheral edema and congestion of the abdominal organs?

A

right

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29
Q

what kind of shock does acute myocardial infarction cause?

A

cardiogenic

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30
Q

What kind of shock does loss of whole blood, plasma, or extracellular fluid cause?

A

hypovolemic

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31
Q

what is acute pulmonary edema?

A

a life-threatening symptom of heart failure syndrome that is characterized by capillary fluid moving into the alveoli

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32
Q

which of the following is true of non-atopic (intrinsic) asthma?
a. examples of triggers include animal danders and house
b. it is due to a type 1 hypersensitivity immune respone
c. it involves acute and late phase responses
d. examples of triggers include respiratory tract infections, exercise, hyperventilation, emotional factors and airborne polutants

A

D.

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33
Q

What are signs of asthma?

A

hyperinflation of lungs as more air is retained in lungs;
contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscles during ventilation;
wheezing as air is exhaled through narrow airways

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34
Q

mrs P has primary pulmonary hypertension. Her mean pulmonary artery blood pressure is most likely to be _____ mmHg.

A

26mmHg

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35
Q

What is hypoxemia?

A

lower than normal levels of oxygen in blood

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36
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

inadequate supply of oxygen to tissues

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37
Q

What is it called when a blood-borne substance lodges in a branch of the pulmonary artery and obstructs blood flow.

A

pulmonary embolism

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38
Q

what is hypercapnia?

A

excess carbon dioxide in the blood

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39
Q

severe hypoxemia, when PO2 levels fall below 55mmHg, causes reflex _________ of the pulmonary vasculature and thus increased pulmonary artery pressure, which increases the work of the right ventricle.

A

constriction/vasoconstriction

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40
Q

true or false:
person’s with emphysema are often labeled “blue bloaters” due to the chronic hypoxemia and eventual right-sided heart failure with peripheral edema.

A

false: labeled pink puffers.

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41
Q

true or false:
type 2 diabetes is more common in the general population than type 1

A

true

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42
Q

true or false:
all cells in the human body can use fatty acids interchangeably with glucose for energy

A

false: brain can only use glucose for energy

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43
Q

true or false:
insulin is produced by the pancreatic beta cells in the islets of langherans

A

true

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44
Q

true or false:
hyperglycemia is characterized by headache, difficulty problem solving, disturbed or altered behaviour, coma, and seizures

A

false:

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45
Q

Your friend, who is a type 1 diabetic, tells you she is feeling hungry, anxious, and sweaty. She took her insulin as per normal but didn’t have time to eat breakfast. What is likely happening?

A

hypoglycemia

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46
Q

what occurs when ketone production by the liver exceeds cellular use and renal excretion?

A

diabetic ketoacidosis

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47
Q

What metabolic actions does insulin do?

A

decreases protein breakdown, decreases gluconeogenesis, promotes fat storage in adipose tissue cells, increases active transport into cells, increases glycogen synthesis

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48
Q

what metabolic actions does glucagon do?

A

stimulate the production of glucose from alanine in the liver, promotes glycogenolysis, activates adipose cell lipase

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49
Q

what is a condition of abnormalities that are identified through specific criteria such as abdominal obesity, elevated triglycerides, elevated blood pressure, elevated fasting plasma glucose, and a decreased HDL?

A

metabolic syndrome

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50
Q

true or false:
paralysis refers to weakness or incomplete loss of muscle function.

A

false

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51
Q

true or false:
autonomic dysreflexia represents an acute episode of exaggerated sympathetic reflex responses that occur in persons with some types of spinal cord injuries

A

true

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52
Q

true or false:
the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis involves demyelination and subsequent degeneration of nerve fibers in the CNS

A

true

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53
Q

what disease is a degenerative disorder of the basal ganglia that results in variable combinations of tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia

A

parkinson’s

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54
Q

what part of the CNS represents the highest level of movement function/control?

A

motor cortex

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55
Q

differences in the ____________ of motor units explain why the muscles controlling eye movement (for example) are capable of much more fine motor control than the muscles of the quadriceps

A

innervation ratio

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56
Q

a paralympic wheelchair rugby athlete who has full elbow flexion capabilities, some wrist flexion and partial control of the fingers has most likely experienced damage in which segment of the spinal cord?

A

C7-C8

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57
Q

true or false:
concussions are listed under the category of focal brain injuries

A

false : they are diffuse

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58
Q

true or false:
alzheimer’s disease is characterized by cortical atrophy, loss of neurons and enlargement of the ventricles

A

true

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59
Q

what is an acute focal neurologic deficit from an interruption of blood flow in cerebral vessel due to thrombi or emboli or to bleeding into the brain

A

stroke

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60
Q

repeated blows to the head in sports such as boxing, martial arts or gridiron football can result in long term damage to the brain with serious effects on behaviour and cognition. This condition is termed ________

A

chronic traumatic encephalopathy

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61
Q

true or false:
according to current guidelines, individuals who suffer a concussion should avoid physical activity until symptoms have resolved

A

true

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62
Q

true or false:
higher levels of aerobic and muscular physical fitness are associated with a reduced risk of Alzheimer disease

A

true

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63
Q

Cardiac _______ refers to the difference between the heart’s current pumping capacity and its maximum capacity.

A

reserve

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64
Q

severance of a large artery will likely lead to _________ shock if blood loss is not stemmed

A

hypovolemic

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65
Q

an anaphylactic reaction from a bee sting is a form of __________ shock

A

distributive

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66
Q

ACE inhibitors are useful for heart failure patients as they decrease activation of the ________ system

A

RAAS- renin-agiontensin aldosterone system

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67
Q

an alternative term for myocardial contractility

A

inotropy

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68
Q

a large and acute myocardial infarction is likely to lead to ___________ shock

A

cardiogenic

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69
Q

if the left ventricular performance starts to fail, blood will back up in the _________ circulation

A

pulmonary

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70
Q

a class of molecules that are released from endothelial cells that are potent vasoconstrictors

A

endothelins

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71
Q

ANP and BNP are collectively known as ________ peptides as they increase both renal sodium excretion and diuresis

A

natriuretic

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72
Q

the fluid filled cavity around the heart is known as the ___________ cavity

A

pericardial

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73
Q

if the right ventricle fails, peripheral _________ is likely to develop

A

edema

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74
Q

________ drugs are often prescribed to heart failure patients as they promote water loss from the circulation

A

diuretic

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75
Q

innate immunity, also called natural or native immunity, consists of mechanisms that respond specifically to:
antibodies
microbes
inflammation
self cells

A

microbes

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76
Q

true or false:
adaptive immunity is the immediate (or “early”) respone that prevents or controls an infection; responses are similar regardless of type of infection.

A

false

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77
Q

true or false:
important components of innate immunity include natural killer cells, neutrophils, macrophages and cytokines.

A

true

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78
Q

true or false:
responses of innate immunity distinguish between different microbes and molecules and remember previously encountered pathogens.

A

false: adapted immunity “remembers” previously encountered pathogens

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79
Q

what are substances foreign to the host that can stimulate an immune response?

A

antigens (immunogens)

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80
Q

what are activated T lymphocytes, mononuclear phagocytes and other leukocytes that attack antigens?

A

effector cells

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81
Q

what are smaller chemical units that are immunologically active sites on a foreign substance?

A

epitopes

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82
Q

what is secreted in response to an antigen?

A

antibodies (immunoglobulins)

83
Q

what mature within lymphoid tissue; used in humoral (antibody mediated) immunity?

A

B lymphocytes

84
Q

what mature within lymphoid tissue; function in the peripheral tissues to produce cell-mediated immunity?

A

T lymphocytes

85
Q

What unique surface cell receptor that allows immune cells to distinguish self from nonself?

A

major histocompatibility complex

86
Q

what is the effector cell that does not need to recognize a specific antigen before being activated; can kill tumor cells, virus infected cells, or intracellular microbes?

A

natural killer cells

87
Q

what immunoglobulin is involved in inflammation, allergic responses, and combating parasitic infections; binds to mast cells and basophils?

A

IgE

88
Q

what immunoglobulin prevents the attachment of bacteria to epithelial cells; considered a primary defense against local infection in mucosal tissues

A

IgA

89
Q

What is the most abundant immunoglobulin; the only Ig that can cross the placenta; protects against bacteria, toxins, and viruses in body fluids and activates the complement system

A

IgG

90
Q

true or false:
active immunity is acquired through immunization or actually having a disease

A

true

91
Q

which peripheral lymphoid organ is responsible for the removal of foreign material from lymph before it enters the blood and serves as centers for proliferation and response immune cells?

A

lymph nodes

92
Q

what are examples of cytokines?

A

interleukins, interferons, chemokines

93
Q

true or false:
colony stimulating factors are cytokines that stimulate lymphoid and myeloid stem cells to increase production of WBC’s, RBC’s, and platelets

A

true

94
Q

what organ filters antigens from the blood and is important in the response to systemic infections?

A

spleen

95
Q

this drug is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting the normal blood clotting process:

A

heparin

96
Q

healthy, intact __________ cells normally produce several substances that prevent platelet adhesion and activation.

A

endothelial

97
Q

the general term given to impaired platelet function

A

thrombocytopathia

98
Q

this drug prevents platelets from producing TxA2

A

aspirin

99
Q

the name of the substance that digests fibrin and thus leads to clot dissolution

A

plasmin

100
Q

this mineral is important in several steps of the clotting cascade

A

calcium

101
Q

protein involved in the clotting process circulate in an inactive form known as _______ factors

A

procoagulation

102
Q

name of growth factor that causes the production of platelets

A

thrombopoietin

103
Q

when capillary vessel walls are disrupted von ______ factor causes platelet adhesion

A

willebrand

104
Q

found in platelets, provide ATP when needed in the blood clotting process

A

mitochondria

105
Q

technical name for blood clotting

A

thrombosis

106
Q

the inactive precursor for thrombin

A

prothrombin

107
Q

immunity acquired through immunization or actually having a disease is known as __________ immunity

A

active

108
Q

a plasma protein family that enhances the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to destroy microbes and damaged cells

A

complement

109
Q

this type of cell helps to ‘present’ antigens to T-cells

A

dendritic

110
Q

CD8+ T-cells that kill other cells are also known as ______ T-cells

A

cytotoxic

111
Q

when a chemical has the capability to act on multiple cell types it is said to be

A

pleiotropic

112
Q

T-cells are so-called as they mature in this gland

A

Thymus

113
Q

name given to the ‘arm’ of the immune system that generates a specific immune response by ‘remembering’ specific antigens

A

adaptive

114
Q

the purpose of this substance is to produce a primary immune response that can be remembered for future occasions

A

vaccine

115
Q

name given to the discrete immunologically active sites found on antigens

A

epitopes

116
Q

general name given to short-acting low molecular weight soluble proteins that mediates immune responses

A

cytokines

117
Q

alternative name for diverse class of proteins known as antibodies

A

immunoglobulins

118
Q

antibodies produced by B-cells that reside in blood or mucosal fluid are collectively known as _______ immunity

A

humoral

119
Q

a major ‘early response’ white blood cell

A

neutrophil

120
Q

name given to a class of substances that ‘coat’ and ‘tag’ microorganisms so they can be recognized by a phagocyte

A

opsonin

121
Q

the form in which lipids are absorbed from the intestine into the blood an lymph

A

chylomicrons

122
Q

when HDL is used to carry cholesterol from the tissues back to the liver this is known as ________ cholesterol transport

A

reverse

123
Q

Chylomicrons, LDL, and HDL are all types of _______?

A

lipoproteins

124
Q

dysfunction of the ________ is believed to underlie pathologies such as thrombosis, atherosclerosis, and hypertensive lesions

A

endothelium

125
Q

located in the heart and blood vessel walls and are responsible for sensing pressure

A

baroreceptors

126
Q

The _______ pathway is involved in the transport of lipids from the intestine to the liver and other tissues

A

exogenous

127
Q

the class of the drugs that act as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are collectively known as _____ drugs

A

statin

128
Q

DVT’s are due to a trifecta of conditions including blood stasis, endothelial damage, and ________

A

hypercoagulability

129
Q

the ‘parent’ substance for sex hormones, aldosterone and cortisol

A

cholesterol

130
Q

name given to weakness in an artery wall that can rupture

A

aneurysm

131
Q

_______ hypertension results from some other disease or disorder

A

secondary

132
Q

macrophages engorged with oxidized LDL are known as _____ cells

A

foam

133
Q

the name given to angina that is associated with plaques that are vulnerable to rupture

A

unstable

134
Q

acronym for surgical procedures associated with the grafting of blood vessels to encourage myocardial reperfusion

A

CABG

135
Q

acronym for the surgical procedures associated with stent insertion into blocked coronary arteries

A

PTCA

136
Q

general name given to a range of acquired or inherited conditions that cause impaired myocardial function

A

cardiomyopathies

137
Q

name given to a narrowed valve orifice

A

stenosis

138
Q

this is the most common underlying cause of coronary artery disease

A

atherosclerosis

139
Q

a betal blocker will _________ myocardial oxygen demand in the aftermath of an MI

A

decrease

140
Q

a myocardial infarction leads to _________ of the associated tissue

A

necrosis

141
Q

a valve that leaks due to an inability to close properly is a ________ valve

A

regurgitant

142
Q

a cardiac-specific serum biomarker that can be used to verify if damage has occurred to the myocardium

A

troponin

143
Q

angina can sometimes be due to ______ of the coronary arteries

A

vasospasm

144
Q

myocardial perfusion occurs predominantly during this phase of the cardiac cycle

A

diastole

145
Q

cardiac ________ refers to the difference between the heart’s current pumping capacity and its maximum capacity

A

reserve

146
Q

severance of a large artery will likely lead to ________ shock if blood loss is not stemmed

A

hypovolemic

147
Q

an anaphylactic reaction from a bee sting is a form of __________ shock

A

distributive

148
Q

ACE inhibitors are useful for heart failure patients as they decrease activation of the ________ system

A

RAAS

149
Q

an alternative term for myocardial contractility

A

inotropy

150
Q

a large and acute MI is likely to lead to _______ shock

A

cardiogenic

151
Q

if left ventricular performance starts to fall, blood will back up in the __________ circulation

A

pulmonary

152
Q

a class of molecules that are released from endothelial cells that are potent vasoconstrictors

A

endothelins

153
Q

ANP and BNP are collectively known as _______ peptides as they increase both renal sodium excretion and diuresis

A

natriuretic

154
Q

the fluid filled cavity around the heart is known as the ________ cavity

A

myocardial

155
Q

If the right ventricle fails, peripheral _________ is likely to develop

A

edema

156
Q

_______ drugs are often prescribed to heart failure patients as they promote water loss from the circulation

A

diuretic

157
Q

term for bluish tinge seen in skin and mucous membranes due to hypoxemia

A

cyanosis

158
Q

name given to the life-threatening condition where a blood borne substance lodges in a pulmonary artery branch

A

embolism

159
Q

atopic asthma is essentially a _________ reaction to an allergen

A

hypersensitivity

160
Q

bronchodilator drugs can provide quick relief from an asthma attack as they bind to _________ adrenergic airway receptors

A

beta

161
Q

name given to obstructive lung condition involving destruction of alveolar lung tissue and loss of lung elasticity

A

emphysema

162
Q

exercise-induced asthma is a form of ________ ashtma

A

intrinsic

163
Q

inadequate ventilation can lead to respiratory acidosis and __________

A

hypercapnia

164
Q

patients suffering from this lung condition are often known as blue bloaters

A

bronchitis

165
Q

asthma that has an allergic component is also known as ________ asthma

A

extrinsic

166
Q

patients with allergic asthma may need inhaled _________ medication to decrease airway inflammation

A

corticosteroid

167
Q

a common sign of asthma

A

wheezing

168
Q

this drug can trigger an asthma attack in some individuals

A

aspirin

169
Q

a commonly used anti-diabetic biguanide drug that enhances insulin sensitivity and also has anti aging properties

A

metformin

170
Q

these cells in the pancreas secrete insulin

A

beta

171
Q

technical name for excessive urination

A

polyuria

172
Q

commonly prescribed anti-diabetic drug that is GLP-1 receptor agonist

A

liraglutide

173
Q

one of the 5 abnormalities associated with syndrome X

A

hypertension

174
Q

technical name for excessive thirst

A

polydipsea

175
Q

name of substance secreted by pancreatic delta cells

A

somatostatin

176
Q

syndrome X is more commonly known as ________ syndrome

A

metabolic

177
Q

name of class of gut derived hormones that stimulate insulin release after a meal

A

incretins

178
Q

name given to hormones that tend to have the opposite effect to insulin

A

counter regulatory

179
Q

name given to dangerous metabolic condition that can arise from poorly controlled type 1 diabetes

A

ketoacidosis

180
Q

one of the processes stimulated in the cell by the binding of insulin to its cell-surface receptor

A

lipogenisis

181
Q

simple acronym used to ascertain whether someone may have suffered a stroke

A

FAST

182
Q

the most common type of stroke

A

ischemic

183
Q

damage to the spinal cord may cause a temporary loss of function below the level of injury known as spinal ________

A

shock

184
Q

pathophysiological process that leads to MS

A

demyelination

185
Q

a modifiable risk factor for stroke

A

diabetes

186
Q

one of hte signs of autonomic dysreflexia

A

hypertension

187
Q

region of the brain devoted to modulating and fine tuning movement of the body

A

basal ganglia

188
Q

abnormal plaques found in the brain of alzheimer disease patients

A

amyloid

189
Q

the caudate nucleus and putamen form the __________ of the brain

A

striatum

190
Q

weakness on one side of the body including arm and leg

A

hemiparesis

191
Q

a serious long term complication of multiple concussive episodes

A

CTE

192
Q

tangles found in the brains of alzheimer patients

A

neurofibrillary

193
Q

abnomally slow movements of the body

A

bradykinesia

194
Q

a neurotransmitter lacking in the brains of parkinson’s disease patients

A

dopamine

195
Q

mechanism of injury often associated with a subsequent concussion

A

rotational

196
Q

uncontrolled involuntary movement of the body

A

dyskinesia

197
Q

high than normal muscle tone

A

hypertonia

198
Q

prior infection with this virus appears to be linked to development of MS

A

Epstein-barr

199
Q

bleeding in the brain often due to trauma

A

hematoma

200
Q

alternative name for spongy bone

A

cancellous

201
Q

condition associated with painful thickening of patellar tendon and increased size of tubercle in teenagers

A

osgood-schlatter

202
Q

undifferentiated cells that differntiate into osteoblasts

A

osteoprogenitor

203
Q

name of hormone associated with bone resportion and prompt increase in calcium levels

A

parathyroid hormone

AET 310- Pathophysiology (4 decks)

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