Final Review Flashcards
1
Q
Rank the following lipoproteins from lowest % of protein (1) to highest (4):
VLDL
Chylomicrons
LDL
HDL
A
- Chylomicron
- VLDL
- LDL
- HDL
2
Q
What provide stability and hydrophilicity to lipoprotein particles for their carriage into the bloodstream?
A
Apolipoproteins
3
Q
What is the major apolipoprotein associated with LDL particles?
A
apoB-100
4
Q
what lipoproteins transfer cholesterol from the liver to other tissues in the body?
A
VLDL and LDL
5
Q
What lipoprotein transfers cholesterol from the intestine to the liver?
A
Chylomicron
6
Q
What category of hypertension is characterized by chronic elevation in blood pressure that results from some other disorder, such as kidney disease?
A
secondary
7
Q
What is primary hypertension?
A
also known as essential hypertension; the chronic elevation in blood pressure occurs without evidence of other disease conditions
8
Q
what percentage of primary hypertension accounts for the cases of hypertensin?
A
90-95%
9
Q
What is a normal range of systolic blood pressure?
A
<120mmHg
10
Q
what are prehypertensive ranges of systolic blood pressure?
A
120-139mmHg
11
Q
what is the range of stage 1 hypertension?
A
140-169mmHg
12
Q
What is the range of stage 2 hypertension?
A
> 160mmHg
13
Q
True or False:
Orthostatic hypertension is an abnormal rise in blood pressure that occurs when assuming the standing position from that of the supine position.
A
false
14
Q
The ________ of the vessel walls controls the transfer of molecules across the vascular wall, plays a role in platelet adhesion and blood clotting, and functions in the modulation of blood flow and vascular resistance.
A
Endothelium
15
Q
What are the neural mechanisms that regulate blood pressure?
A
baroreceptors and chemoreceptors
16
Q
What are the humoral mechanisms that regulate blood pressure?
A
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism and vasopressin
17
Q
Neural mechanisms and humoral mechanisms are examples of ______-term regulation of blood pressure.
A
short
18
Q
true or false:
The initial insult that begins the formation of an atherosclerotic plaque is irritation/dysfunction of endothelial cells that results in adhesion of monocytes and platelets to the vessel wall
A
true
19
Q
true or false:
the heart extracts and uses 60-80% of oxygen in blood flowing through the coronary arteries
A
true
20
Q
true or false:
atherosclerosis is by far the most common cause of coronary heart disease
A
true
21
Q
what term refers to a pathologic narrowing of a valve?
A
stenosis
22
Q
what is a cardiomyopathy?
A
disorder of the heart muscle that is usually associated with disorders of myocardial performance and that may be mechanical or electrical in nature
23
Q
what cardiac disorder represents the LOWEST immediate threat to the individual concerned?
1. STEMI
2. NSTEMI
3. Unstable angina
4. Stable angina
A
- stable angina
24
Q
what cardiac biomarkers can be used to diagnose an acute coronary syndrome event?
A
creatine kinase MB
cardiac troponin T
cardiac troponin I
25
true or false:
the endothelins are potent vasodilators that are released from the endothelial cells throughout the circulation
false
26
true or false:
myocardial hypertrophy is a long-term mechanism by which the heart compensates for increased workload.
true
27
true or false:
major complications of circulatory shock include pulmonary injury, acute kidney injury, gastrointestinal ulceration, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome.
true
28
what side of the heart, in hear failure, causes blood to back up in the systemic circulation, causing peripheral edema and congestion of the abdominal organs?
right
29
what kind of shock does acute myocardial infarction cause?
cardiogenic
30
What kind of shock does loss of whole blood, plasma, or extracellular fluid cause?
hypovolemic
31
what is acute pulmonary edema?
a life-threatening symptom of heart failure syndrome that is characterized by capillary fluid moving into the alveoli
32
which of the following is true of non-atopic (intrinsic) asthma?
a. examples of triggers include animal danders and house
b. it is due to a type 1 hypersensitivity immune respone
c. it involves acute and late phase responses
d. examples of triggers include respiratory tract infections, exercise, hyperventilation, emotional factors and airborne polutants
D.
33
What are signs of asthma?
hyperinflation of lungs as more air is retained in lungs;
contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscles during ventilation;
wheezing as air is exhaled through narrow airways
34
mrs P has primary pulmonary hypertension. Her mean pulmonary artery blood pressure is most likely to be _____ mmHg.
26mmHg
35
What is hypoxemia?
lower than normal levels of oxygen in blood
36
What is hypoxia?
inadequate supply of oxygen to tissues
37
What is it called when a blood-borne substance lodges in a branch of the pulmonary artery and obstructs blood flow.
pulmonary embolism
38
what is hypercapnia?
excess carbon dioxide in the blood
39
severe hypoxemia, when PO2 levels fall below 55mmHg, causes reflex _________ of the pulmonary vasculature and thus increased pulmonary artery pressure, which increases the work of the right ventricle.
constriction/vasoconstriction
40
true or false:
person's with emphysema are often labeled "blue bloaters" due to the chronic hypoxemia and eventual right-sided heart failure with peripheral edema.
false: labeled pink puffers.
41
true or false:
type 2 diabetes is more common in the general population than type 1
true
42
true or false:
all cells in the human body can use fatty acids interchangeably with glucose for energy
false: brain can only use glucose for energy
43
true or false:
insulin is produced by the pancreatic beta cells in the islets of langherans
true
44
true or false:
hyperglycemia is characterized by headache, difficulty problem solving, disturbed or altered behaviour, coma, and seizures
false:
45
Your friend, who is a type 1 diabetic, tells you she is feeling hungry, anxious, and sweaty. She took her insulin as per normal but didn't have time to eat breakfast. What is likely happening?
hypoglycemia
46
what occurs when ketone production by the liver exceeds cellular use and renal excretion?
diabetic ketoacidosis
47
What metabolic actions does insulin do?
decreases protein breakdown, decreases gluconeogenesis, promotes fat storage in adipose tissue cells, increases active transport into cells, increases glycogen synthesis
48
what metabolic actions does glucagon do?
stimulate the production of glucose from alanine in the liver, promotes glycogenolysis, activates adipose cell lipase
49
what is a condition of abnormalities that are identified through specific criteria such as abdominal obesity, elevated triglycerides, elevated blood pressure, elevated fasting plasma glucose, and a decreased HDL?
metabolic syndrome
50
true or false:
paralysis refers to weakness or incomplete loss of muscle function.
false
51
true or false:
autonomic dysreflexia represents an acute episode of exaggerated sympathetic reflex responses that occur in persons with some types of spinal cord injuries
true
52
true or false:
the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis involves demyelination and subsequent degeneration of nerve fibers in the CNS
true
53
what disease is a degenerative disorder of the basal ganglia that results in variable combinations of tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia
parkinson's
54
what part of the CNS represents the highest level of movement function/control?
motor cortex
55
differences in the ____________ of motor units explain why the muscles controlling eye movement (for example) are capable of much more fine motor control than the muscles of the quadriceps
innervation ratio
56
a paralympic wheelchair rugby athlete who has full elbow flexion capabilities, some wrist flexion and partial control of the fingers has most likely experienced damage in which segment of the spinal cord?
C7-C8
57
true or false:
concussions are listed under the category of focal brain injuries
false : they are diffuse
58
true or false:
alzheimer's disease is characterized by cortical atrophy, loss of neurons and enlargement of the ventricles
true
59
what is an acute focal neurologic deficit from an interruption of blood flow in cerebral vessel due to thrombi or emboli or to bleeding into the brain
stroke
60
repeated blows to the head in sports such as boxing, martial arts or gridiron football can result in long term damage to the brain with serious effects on behaviour and cognition. This condition is termed ________
chronic traumatic encephalopathy
61
true or false:
according to current guidelines, individuals who suffer a concussion should avoid physical activity until symptoms have resolved
true
62
true or false:
higher levels of aerobic and muscular physical fitness are associated with a reduced risk of Alzheimer disease
true
63
Cardiac _______ refers to the difference between the heart's current pumping capacity and its maximum capacity.
reserve
64
severance of a large artery will likely lead to _________ shock if blood loss is not stemmed
hypovolemic
65
an anaphylactic reaction from a bee sting is a form of __________ shock
distributive
66
ACE inhibitors are useful for heart failure patients as they decrease activation of the ________ system
RAAS- renin-agiontensin aldosterone system
67
an alternative term for myocardial contractility
inotropy
68
a large and acute myocardial infarction is likely to lead to ___________ shock
cardiogenic
69
if the left ventricular performance starts to fail, blood will back up in the _________ circulation
pulmonary
70
a class of molecules that are released from endothelial cells that are potent vasoconstrictors
endothelins
71
ANP and BNP are collectively known as ________ peptides as they increase both renal sodium excretion and diuresis
natriuretic
72
the fluid filled cavity around the heart is known as the ___________ cavity
pericardial
73
if the right ventricle fails, peripheral _________ is likely to develop
edema
74
________ drugs are often prescribed to heart failure patients as they promote water loss from the circulation
diuretic
75
innate immunity, also called natural or native immunity, consists of mechanisms that respond specifically to:
antibodies
microbes
inflammation
self cells
microbes
76
true or false:
adaptive immunity is the immediate (or "early") respone that prevents or controls an infection; responses are similar regardless of type of infection.
false
77
true or false:
important components of innate immunity include natural killer cells, neutrophils, macrophages and cytokines.
true
78
true or false:
responses of innate immunity distinguish between different microbes and molecules and remember previously encountered pathogens.
false: adapted immunity "remembers" previously encountered pathogens
79
what are substances foreign to the host that can stimulate an immune response?
antigens (immunogens)
80
what are activated T lymphocytes, mononuclear phagocytes and other leukocytes that attack antigens?
effector cells
81
what are smaller chemical units that are immunologically active sites on a foreign substance?
epitopes
82
what is secreted in response to an antigen?
antibodies (immunoglobulins)
83
what mature within lymphoid tissue; used in humoral (antibody mediated) immunity?
B lymphocytes
84
what mature within lymphoid tissue; function in the peripheral tissues to produce cell-mediated immunity?
T lymphocytes
85
What unique surface cell receptor that allows immune cells to distinguish self from nonself?
major histocompatibility complex
86
what is the effector cell that does not need to recognize a specific antigen before being activated; can kill tumor cells, virus infected cells, or intracellular microbes?
natural killer cells
87
what immunoglobulin is involved in inflammation, allergic responses, and combating parasitic infections; binds to mast cells and basophils?
IgE
88
what immunoglobulin prevents the attachment of bacteria to epithelial cells; considered a primary defense against local infection in mucosal tissues
IgA
89
What is the most abundant immunoglobulin; the only Ig that can cross the placenta; protects against bacteria, toxins, and viruses in body fluids and activates the complement system
IgG
90
true or false:
active immunity is acquired through immunization or actually having a disease
true
91
which peripheral lymphoid organ is responsible for the removal of foreign material from lymph before it enters the blood and serves as centers for proliferation and response immune cells?
lymph nodes
92
what are examples of cytokines?
interleukins, interferons, chemokines
93
true or false:
colony stimulating factors are cytokines that stimulate lymphoid and myeloid stem cells to increase production of WBC's, RBC's, and platelets
true
94
what organ filters antigens from the blood and is important in the response to systemic infections?
spleen
95
this drug is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting the normal blood clotting process:
heparin
96
healthy, intact __________ cells normally produce several substances that prevent platelet adhesion and activation.
endothelial
97
the general term given to impaired platelet function
thrombocytopathia
98
this drug prevents platelets from producing TxA2
aspirin
99
the name of the substance that digests fibrin and thus leads to clot dissolution
plasmin
100
this mineral is important in several steps of the clotting cascade
calcium
101
protein involved in the clotting process circulate in an inactive form known as _______ factors
procoagulation
102
name of growth factor that causes the production of platelets
thrombopoietin
103
when capillary vessel walls are disrupted von ______ factor causes platelet adhesion
willebrand
104
found in platelets, provide ATP when needed in the blood clotting process
mitochondria
105
technical name for blood clotting
thrombosis
106
the inactive precursor for thrombin
prothrombin
107
immunity acquired through immunization or actually having a disease is known as __________ immunity
active
108
a plasma protein family that enhances the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to destroy microbes and damaged cells
complement
109
this type of cell helps to 'present' antigens to T-cells
dendritic
110
CD8+ T-cells that kill other cells are also known as ______ T-cells
cytotoxic
111
when a chemical has the capability to act on multiple cell types it is said to be
pleiotropic
112
T-cells are so-called as they mature in this gland
Thymus
113
name given to the 'arm' of the immune system that generates a specific immune response by 'remembering' specific antigens
adaptive
114
the purpose of this substance is to produce a primary immune response that can be remembered for future occasions
vaccine
115
name given to the discrete immunologically active sites found on antigens
epitopes
116
general name given to short-acting low molecular weight soluble proteins that mediates immune responses
cytokines
117
alternative name for diverse class of proteins known as antibodies
immunoglobulins
118
antibodies produced by B-cells that reside in blood or mucosal fluid are collectively known as _______ immunity
humoral
119
a major 'early response' white blood cell
neutrophil
120
name given to a class of substances that 'coat' and 'tag' microorganisms so they can be recognized by a phagocyte
opsonin
121
the form in which lipids are absorbed from the intestine into the blood an lymph
chylomicrons
122
when HDL is used to carry cholesterol from the tissues back to the liver this is known as ________ cholesterol transport
reverse
123
Chylomicrons, LDL, and HDL are all types of _______?
lipoproteins
124
dysfunction of the ________ is believed to underlie pathologies such as thrombosis, atherosclerosis, and hypertensive lesions
endothelium
125
located in the heart and blood vessel walls and are responsible for sensing pressure
baroreceptors
126
The _______ pathway is involved in the transport of lipids from the intestine to the liver and other tissues
exogenous
127
the class of the drugs that act as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are collectively known as _____ drugs
statin
128
DVT's are due to a trifecta of conditions including blood stasis, endothelial damage, and ________
hypercoagulability
129
the 'parent' substance for sex hormones, aldosterone and cortisol
cholesterol
130
name given to weakness in an artery wall that can rupture
aneurysm
131
_______ hypertension results from some other disease or disorder
secondary
132
macrophages engorged with oxidized LDL are known as _____ cells
foam
133
the name given to angina that is associated with plaques that are vulnerable to rupture
unstable
134
acronym for surgical procedures associated with the grafting of blood vessels to encourage myocardial reperfusion
CABG
135
acronym for the surgical procedures associated with stent insertion into blocked coronary arteries
PTCA
136
general name given to a range of acquired or inherited conditions that cause impaired myocardial function
cardiomyopathies
137
name given to a narrowed valve orifice
stenosis
138
this is the most common underlying cause of coronary artery disease
atherosclerosis
139
a betal blocker will _________ myocardial oxygen demand in the aftermath of an MI
decrease
140
a myocardial infarction leads to _________ of the associated tissue
necrosis
141
a valve that leaks due to an inability to close properly is a ________ valve
regurgitant
142
a cardiac-specific serum biomarker that can be used to verify if damage has occurred to the myocardium
troponin
143
angina can sometimes be due to ______ of the coronary arteries
vasospasm
144
myocardial perfusion occurs predominantly during this phase of the cardiac cycle
diastole
145
cardiac ________ refers to the difference between the heart's current pumping capacity and its maximum capacity
reserve
146
severance of a large artery will likely lead to ________ shock if blood loss is not stemmed
hypovolemic
147
an anaphylactic reaction from a bee sting is a form of __________ shock
distributive
148
ACE inhibitors are useful for heart failure patients as they decrease activation of the ________ system
RAAS
149
an alternative term for myocardial contractility
inotropy
150
a large and acute MI is likely to lead to _______ shock
cardiogenic
151
if left ventricular performance starts to fall, blood will back up in the __________ circulation
pulmonary
152
a class of molecules that are released from endothelial cells that are potent vasoconstrictors
endothelins
153
ANP and BNP are collectively known as _______ peptides as they increase both renal sodium excretion and diuresis
natriuretic
154
the fluid filled cavity around the heart is known as the ________ cavity
myocardial
155
If the right ventricle fails, peripheral _________ is likely to develop
edema
156
_______ drugs are often prescribed to heart failure patients as they promote water loss from the circulation
diuretic
157
term for bluish tinge seen in skin and mucous membranes due to hypoxemia
cyanosis
158
name given to the life-threatening condition where a blood borne substance lodges in a pulmonary artery branch
embolism
159
atopic asthma is essentially a _________ reaction to an allergen
hypersensitivity
160
bronchodilator drugs can provide quick relief from an asthma attack as they bind to _________ adrenergic airway receptors
beta
161
name given to obstructive lung condition involving destruction of alveolar lung tissue and loss of lung elasticity
emphysema
162
exercise-induced asthma is a form of ________ ashtma
intrinsic
163
inadequate ventilation can lead to respiratory acidosis and __________
hypercapnia
164
patients suffering from this lung condition are often known as blue bloaters
bronchitis
165
asthma that has an allergic component is also known as ________ asthma
extrinsic
166
patients with allergic asthma may need inhaled _________ medication to decrease airway inflammation
corticosteroid
167
a common sign of asthma
wheezing
168
this drug can trigger an asthma attack in some individuals
aspirin
169
a commonly used anti-diabetic biguanide drug that enhances insulin sensitivity and also has anti aging properties
metformin
170
these cells in the pancreas secrete insulin
beta
171
technical name for excessive urination
polyuria
172
commonly prescribed anti-diabetic drug that is GLP-1 receptor agonist
liraglutide
173
one of the 5 abnormalities associated with syndrome X
hypertension
174
technical name for excessive thirst
polydipsea
175
name of substance secreted by pancreatic delta cells
somatostatin
176
syndrome X is more commonly known as ________ syndrome
metabolic
177
name of class of gut derived hormones that stimulate insulin release after a meal
incretins
178
name given to hormones that tend to have the opposite effect to insulin
counter regulatory
179
name given to dangerous metabolic condition that can arise from poorly controlled type 1 diabetes
ketoacidosis
180
one of the processes stimulated in the cell by the binding of insulin to its cell-surface receptor
lipogenisis
181
simple acronym used to ascertain whether someone may have suffered a stroke
FAST
182
the most common type of stroke
ischemic
183
damage to the spinal cord may cause a temporary loss of function below the level of injury known as spinal ________
shock
184
pathophysiological process that leads to MS
demyelination
185
a modifiable risk factor for stroke
diabetes
186
one of hte signs of autonomic dysreflexia
hypertension
187
region of the brain devoted to modulating and fine tuning movement of the body
basal ganglia
188
abnormal plaques found in the brain of alzheimer disease patients
amyloid
189
the caudate nucleus and putamen form the __________ of the brain
striatum
190
weakness on one side of the body including arm and leg
hemiparesis
191
a serious long term complication of multiple concussive episodes
CTE
192
tangles found in the brains of alzheimer patients
neurofibrillary
193
abnomally slow movements of the body
bradykinesia
194
a neurotransmitter lacking in the brains of parkinson's disease patients
dopamine
195
mechanism of injury often associated with a subsequent concussion
rotational
196
uncontrolled involuntary movement of the body
dyskinesia
197
high than normal muscle tone
hypertonia
198
prior infection with this virus appears to be linked to development of MS
Epstein-barr
199
bleeding in the brain often due to trauma
hematoma
200
alternative name for spongy bone
cancellous
201
condition associated with painful thickening of patellar tendon and increased size of tubercle in teenagers
osgood-schlatter
202
undifferentiated cells that differntiate into osteoblasts
osteoprogenitor
203
name of hormone associated with bone resportion and prompt increase in calcium levels
parathyroid hormone
